Radiographic Positioning and Procedures
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Radiographic Positioning and Procedures is a fundamental course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge and practical skills needed to accurately position patients for a variety of radiographic examinations. The course covers standard positioning protocols for imaging different anatomical regions, such as the chest, abdomen, spine, and extremities, while emphasizing patient care, safety, and communication. Students learn to select appropriate equipment, adjust technical factors, and apply radiation protection principles to obtain high-quality diagnostic images. Laboratory sessions provide hands-on experience with positioning techniques and image critique, preparing students for clinical practice in diagnostic radiography settings.
Recommended Textbook
merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
34 Chapters
1670 Verified Questions
1670 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1219
Page 2
Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24095
Sample Questions
Q1) In screen-film radiography, which term is defined as the degree of blackening?
A) Optical density
B) Contrast
C) Recorded detail
D) Distortion
Answer: A
Q2) The total destruction of microorganisms is accomplished through the use of:
A) disinfectants.
B) sterilization.
C) germicides.
D) antiseptics.
Answer: B
Q3) Gonad shielding is required when the gonads lie within ____ cm of the primary x-ray field.
A) 3
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24096
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered advantages in using anatomic compensating filters?
1)Reduces radiation exposure to the patient
2)Provides an even image density
3)Increases image contrast and detail
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Q2) The Boomerang filter would provide an even image density for which body area?
A) Hip
B) Chest
C) Shoulder
D) C7-T1 region
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24097
Sample Questions
Q1) After birth, a separate bone begins to develop at the ends of long bones. Each end is called the:
A) diaphysis.
B) epiphysis.
C) epiphyseal line.
D) epiphyseal plate.
Answer: B
Q2) Turning the forearm so that the palm of the hand is up is termed:
A) pronation.
B) supination.
C) abduction.
D) adduction.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to the covering of an organ?
A) External
B) Internal
C) Visceral
D) Parietal
Answer: C
Page 5
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 4: Upper Limb
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24098
Sample Questions
Q1) Flexing the fingers for a PA projection of the wrist causes which of the following?
A) Placement of the carpal bones farther from the IR
B) Placement of the carpal bones closer to the IR
C) Less pain for the patient when the wrist is broken
D) Greater resolution of the carpal interspaces
Q2) Which of the following methods is used when the arm cannot be abducted for the standard AP or lateral projection of the humerus?
A) Stecher
B) Lawrence
C) Norgaard
D) Gaynor-Hart
Q3) For the lateral projection of the elbow, the elbow joint should be flexed _____ degrees.
A) 25
B) 45
C) 75
D) 90
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
92 Verified Questions
92 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24099
Sample Questions
Q1) The greater tubercle will be partially superimposed over the humeral head on which of the following projections and positions?
A) AP, external rotation
B) AP, neutral rotation
C) AP, internal rotation
D) PA oblique, scapular Y
Q2) To obtain a more uniform image density, the respiration phase for the AP projection of the clavicle should be:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) shallow breathing.
D) suspended respiration.
Q3) When the Fisk modification is used for the tangential projection of the intertubercular groove, the patient is:
A) prone.
B) supine.
C) sitting.
D) standing.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Lower Limb
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
143 Verified Questions
143 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24100
Sample Questions
Q1) Where will the fibula be located on a properly positioned lateral radiograph of the ankle?
A) Directly over the tibia
B) Behind the tibia
C) Over the anterior half of the tibia
D) Over the posterior half of the tibia
Q2) Where is the central ray directed for the tangential projection (Settegast method) of the patella?
A) Through the patellofemoral joint space
B) To the anterior aspect of the patella
C) At the level of the femoral condyles
D) To the apex of the patella
Q3) How many phalanges are in the great toe?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
8
Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24101
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following will be shown "in profile" if the lower limbs are in correct position for an AP pelvis?
A) Lesser trochanters
B) Greater trochanters
C) Anterior superior iliac spines
D) Anterior inferior iliac spines
Q2) How much should the thighs be abducted for the AP oblique projection of the femoral necks (modified Cleaves method)?
A) 10 degrees
B) 20 degrees
C) 30 degrees
D) 45 degrees
Q3) A malformation of the acetabulum causing displacement of the femoral head is known as:
A) osteopetrosis.
B) Paget's disease.
C) congenital hip dysplasia.
D) Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
175 Verified Questions
175 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24102
Sample Questions
Q1) The articulations between the articular processes of the vertebral arches are called the _____ joints.
A) costovertebral
B) costotransverse
C) intervertebral
D) zygapophyseal
Q2) The first cervical vertebra is called the: A) axis.
B) atlas.
C) dens.
D) vertebra prominens.
Q3) The angle of the articulation between the sacrum and the ilia (the sacroiliac joints) is _____ degrees.
A) 10 to 15
B) 15 to 20
C) 25 to 30
D) 45 to 50
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 10
Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24103
Sample Questions
Q1) Which ribs are called the true ribs?
A) 1 to 7
B) 1 to 10
C) 8 to 12
D) 11 and 12
Q2) Which ribs are called the false ribs?
A) 1 to 7
B) 1 to 10
C) 8 to 12
D) 11 and 12
Q3) Which ribs are demonstrated on an AP oblique projection?
A) Upper ribs only
B) Lower ribs only
C) Side farthest from the IR
D) Side closest to the IR
Q4) The space between each of the ribs is called the:
A) costal cartilage.
B) intercostal spaces.
C) costovertebral joints.
D) costotransverse joints.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24104
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the optimal respiration phase for a PA or lateral chest radiograph?
A) Full inspiration-first breath
B) Full expiration-first breath
C) Full inspiration-second breath
D) Full expiration-second breath
Q2) The smallest subdivision of the bronchial tree is the _____ bronchial.
A) terminal
B) tertiary
C) secondary
D) primary
Q3) The part of the lung that extends above the clavicle is termed the:
A) apex.
B) base.
C) hilum.
D) lingula.
Q4) Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged by diffusion within the: A) alveoli.
B) alveolar duct.
C) bronchioles.
D) terminal bronchioles.
Page 12
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24105
Sample Questions
Q1) Which landmark is used to localize the shoulder joint for upper limb long bone measurement?
A) Superior margin of the humeral head
B) Medial margin of the glenoid fossa
C) 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process
D) 2 inches inferior and medial to the superolateral border of the shoulder
Q2) What projection is used for long bone measurement radiographs?
A) PA
B) AP
C) Lateral
D) Variable depending on body habitus
Q3) All of the following imaging modalities may be used to measure for limb length discrepancy except:
A) microdose digital radiography.
B) nuclear medicine.
C) computed tomography.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24106
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is administered during arthrography before the injection of contrast?
A) Conscious sedation
B) Sterile saline
C) Local anesthetic
D) General anesthetic
Q2) The radiography examination in which a contrast medium is introduced into a joint space and radiographs are made of the joint is called:
A) arthrosis.
B) arthrography.
C) arthrogenesis.
D) arthroendoscopy.
Q3) Which of the following imaging modalities has not reduced the use of contrast arthrography?
A) Ultrasound
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24107
Sample Questions
Q1) Which imaging modality is often used to evaluate trauma to the abdomen?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) NM
D) Sonography
Q2) Which imaging modality has replaced conventional trauma skull radiography in most Level I trauma centers?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Angiography
Q3) Which of the following procedures are appropriate for trauma patients?
1)Remove immobilization devices that may cause imaging artifacts.
2)Move tube and IR, instead of injured part, when possible.
3)Perform all AP projections, then all lateral projections.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 15
Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 10 Verified Questions 10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24108
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the salivary glands?
A) Tonsil
B) Parotid
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular
Q2) The salivary glands produce how much saliva each day?
A) 0.25 L
B) 0.50 L
C) 1 L
D) 1.5 L
Q3) Which salivary glands are the largest?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual are equal in size.
Q4) Which salivary gland is located on the floor of the mouth?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24109
Sample Questions
Q1) The roof of the posterior wall of the nasopharynx contains a mass of lymphoid tissue known as the:
A) thymus gland.
B) thyroid gland.
C) pharyngeal tonsil.
D) epiglottis.
Q2) Which of the following lies in the anterior neck?
1)Thyroid gland
2)Parathyroid glands
3)Thymus gland
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) All of the following are techniques used during radiographic examination of the pharyngolaryngeal structures except:
A) swallowing.
B) phonation.
C) sneezing.
D) breathing.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Abdomen
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24110
Sample Questions
Q1) A properly exposed abdominal image will exhibit the: 1)psoas muscles.
2)lower border of the liver.
3)transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) The inner portion of the sac that covers the abdominal organs is termed the:
A) parietal peritoneum.
B) visceral peritoneum.
C) parietal pleura.
D) visceral pleura.
Q3) The serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic walls is called the: A) peritoneum.
B) mesentery.
C) omentum.
D) peritoneal cavity.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
18
Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
130 Verified Questions
130 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24111
Sample Questions
Q1) How far above the anus is the enema bag placed during a barium enema?
A) 12 inches
B) 18 to 24 inches
C) 24 to 36 inches
D) 4 feet
Q2) The first small intestine image is taken how many minutes after the patient drinks barium?
A) 5 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 30 minutes
Q3) Which projection of the colon best demonstrates the lateral aspect of the ascending colon and the medial aspect of the descending colon, when the colon is inflated with air?
A) AP oblique, RPO
B) AP oblique, LPO
C) AP, right lateral decubitus
D) AP, left lateral decubitus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24112
Sample Questions
Q1) Within how many minutes does contrast medium appear in the pelvicalyceal system?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 8
D) 2 to 8
Q2) A severe reaction to a medication or contrast medium would be:
A) itching.
B) sneezing.
C) vomiting.
D) anaphylactic reaction.
Q3) Which position may be helpful to demonstrate the lower ureters?
A) Fowler's 10 degrees
B) Fowler's 15 to 20 degrees
C) Trendelenburg's 10 degrees
D) Trendelenburg's 15 to 20 degrees
Q4) The mucosal folds on the inside of the urinary bladder are called:
A) serosa.
B) omenta.
C) rugae.
D) pleura.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Reproductive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24113
Sample Questions
Q1) The condition of an undescended testis is termed:
A) ectopic testicle.
B) cryptorchidism.
C) testicular torsion.
D) cryptoscrotalism.
Q2) Which of the following is a type of temporary intrauterine contraceptive device (IUD)?
A) Essure
B) ParaGard
C) Insure
D) CerviGard
Q3) Which examination is performed 3 months after insertion of an IUD to determine effective uterine tube occlusion?
A) Hysterosalpingogram
B) Pelvic pneumography
C) Vaginography
D) Pelvic sonogram
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
196 Verified Questions
196 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24114
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the placement of the image receptor for an AP axial (Towne) projection of the skull?
1)Its upper margin is at the level of the top of the cranium.
2)Its upper margin is 2 inches above the top of the cranium.
3)Its upper margin is 2 inches below the top of the cranium.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which facial bones are clearly demonstrated on the parietoacanthial projection (Waters method)?
1)Orbits
2)Maxillae
3)Zygomatic arches
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Mammography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24115
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the essential lateral projection of the breast?
A) 90 degrees lateromedial
B) 90 degrees mediolateral
C) 75 to 90 degrees lateromedial
D) 75 to 90 degrees mediolateral
Q2) The common kVp used in mammography is:
A) 20.
B) 25.
C) 28.
D) 30.
Q3) For which projections of the breast would minimal compression be used?
A) All postsurgery projections
B) All magnification projections
C) CC and MLO with displaced implant
D) CC and MLO with full implant
Q4) The overall most common cause of death in women is:
A) breast cancer.
B) lung cancer.
C) ovarian cancer.
D) auto accidents.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24116
Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventional procedure uses a balloon catheter to expand a compressed vertebral body to near its original height before injection of the bone cement?
A) Myelography
B) Vertebroplasty
C) Kyphoplasty
D) Discography
Q2) Where is the contrast medium injected for a myelogram?
A) Brachial vein
B) Femoral artery
C) L1-L2 interspace
D) L2-L3 or L3-L4 interspace
Q3) What is the imaging method of choice in diagnosing multiple sclerosis?
A) CR
B) CT
C) MRI
D) DSR
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24117
Sample Questions
Q1) The computerized technique by which bone structures are removed from an image of bone and opacified vessels, leaving an unobscured image of the vessels, is termed:
A) digital subtraction angiography.
B) magnetic resonance imaging.
C) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty.
D) computed radiography (CR).
Q2) Blood is supplied to the myocardium by the:
A) atria.
B) right ventricle.
C) left ventricle.
D) coronary arteries.
Q3) The most widely used method of catheterization for selective angiography is known as the _____ method.
A) Amplatz
B) Stecher
C) modified Seldinger
D) Schüller
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 25
Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24118
Sample Questions
Q1) Common reasons for performing skull radiography on a pediatric patient are:
A) craniosynostosis and fracture.
B) sinusitis and fracture.
C) craniosynostosis and meningomyelocele.
D) meningomyelocele and sinusitis.
Q2) Idiopathic scoliosis is most common in:
A) male infants.
B) adolescent females.
C) male toddlers.
D) utero, between 3 to 6 weeks' gestation.
Q3) Which of the following are common pediatric fractures?
1)Salter-Harris
2)Plastic
3)Supracondylar
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24119
Sample Questions
Q1) The aging experience is individual and is affected by:
1)attitude.
2)lifestyle choices.
3)heredity.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) A common cause of death in patients with Alzheimer's is:
A) hemorrhagic stroke.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) elder abuse.
D) pneumonia.
Q3) What system accounts for almost 50% of disability in patients older than age 65?
A) Cardiovascular
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Musculoskeletal
D) Nervous
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24120
Sample Questions
Q1) During mobile radiography, the radiographer ideally should be standing at what degree of angle from the primary beam?
A) 0 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) 45 to 90 degrees
Q2) Mobile radiographic units can have direct digital capability with wired to the unit or wireless.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During mobile radiography, shielding should be used on: 1)children.
2)exams in which the gonads are near the primary beam.
3)patients of reproductive age.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24121
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following surgical procedures require the C-arm to be positioned between the patient's legs?
A) Tibia nailing
B) Operative cholangiography
C) Hip pinning
D) Antegrade femoral nailing
Q2) Institution-approved attire worn in the OR:
A) can be worn over 2 days.
B) should be fresh for each shift.
C) can be used regardless of condition.
D) is not necessary in the semirestricted areas.
Q3) When positioning the IR under the OR table, the radiographer should:
A) lift the drapes up high to keep them away from the IR.
B) not lift the drapes above table level to avoid the sterile field.
C) squat down to place the IR below the table.
D) give the IR to a sterile team member to place.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24123
Sample Questions
Q1) The most significant geometric factor that contributes to spatial resolution is:
A) detector aperture width.
B) FOV.
C) slice thickness.
D) x-ray beam energy.
Q2) The most common reporting method of dose reporting on the present scanners is:
A) Multiple Scan Average Dose (MSAD).
B) Computed Tomography Dose Index (CTDI).
C) Dose-length product (DLP).
D) Computed Tomography Dose Index Volume (CTDIvol).
Q3) The advantages of multislice helical CT (MSHCT) include:
1)multiphase studies.
2)isotropic viewing.
3)longer anatomic coverage.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24124
Sample Questions
Q1) The MRI signal is generated in the receiving antenna by:
A) Lenz's law of induction.
B) a silicon detector.
C) Newton's first law of motion.
D) Faraday's law of induction.
Q2) The rates of relaxation (T1 and T2) of a hydrogen nucleus depend on the:
A) resonant frequency.
B) chemical environment.
C) electron density.
D) signal intensity.
Q3) Strong MRI signals are represented by _____ in the image.
A) black
B) light gray
C) white
D) dark gray
Q4) Spin-spin relaxation (T2) is the release of energy by excited nuclei:
A) as a result of interaction among themselves.
B) to their general environment.
C) according to their precessional frequency.
D) in relation to their resonant frequency.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24125
Sample Questions
Q1) The echo pattern of a cyst can be referred to as:
A) echogenic.
B) anechoic.
C) hyperechoic.
D) hypoechoic.
Q2) A normal liver scan should have a _____ echo pattern.
A) hyperechoic
B) hypoechoic
C) homogeneous
D) heterogeneous
Q3) The frequency for diagnostic ultrasound is in the range of:
A) 2 to 320 Hz.
B) 20 to 20,000 Hz.
C) 100,000 Hz to 1 MHz.
D) 1 to 10 MHz.
Q4) The exam to evaluate for deep vein thrombosis and venous insufficiency is:
A) duplex sonography.
B) endovaginal.
C) transabdominal.
D) volume scanning.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32
Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24126
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common radionuclide used in nuclear medicine is:
A) technetium (99mTc).
B) iodine (123I).
C) thallium (201Tl).
D) xenon (133Xe).
Q2) The crystal used in gamma cameras is made of:
A) sodium iodide.
B) cesium-activated iodide.
C) thallium-activated sodium iodide.
D) lithium fluoride.
Q3) Scintillation detectors or gamma cameras use crystals that change:
A) x-rays into electrons.
B) radioactive emissions into light photons.
C) radioactive emissions into electrons.
D) radioactive emissions into electrical pulses.
Q4) The most common device used to produce nuclides for PET scanning is the:
A) high-frequency generator.
B) compact medical cyclotron.
C) linear accelerator.
D) pulse height analyzer.
33
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24127
Sample Questions
Q1) DXA calculations are based on:
A) body position and bone density.
B) bone density only.
C) soft tissue only.
D) soft tissue and bone.
Q2) Which of the following is not a risk factor for osteoporosis?
A) Daily physical activity
B) Alcohol consumption
C) Low body weight
D) Low calcium intake
Q3) A BMD measurement from a patient is most useful when it can be compared statistically to:
A) the same patient age population.
B) a population living in the same area.
C) multiple scans on the same patient.
D) an appropriate sex-matched reference population.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 34
Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) One way to treat cancer but minimize the toxic effects of radiation is to use:
A) fractionation.
B) differentiation.
C) palliation.
D) conformal radiation.
Q2) Cancer can spread or metastasize by invading:
A) adjacent tissue.
B) normal tissue.
C) blood vessels.
D) anywhere close.
Q3) The basic principle of cancer treatment with radiation is that radiation:
A) stimulates cancer cells to grow.
B) damages cancer cells but stimulates normal cells.
C) damages cancer cells and normal cells equally.
D) usually damages cancer cells more than normal cells.
Q4) Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) uses:
A) radioactive isotopes.
B) multileaf collimators.
C) cerrobend blocks.
D) permanent implants.
Page 35
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.