Radiographic Physics
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Radiographic Physics introduces students to the fundamental physical principles underlying the production and interpretation of medical radiographic images. This course covers key topics such as the nature and properties of radiation, x-ray production, the interaction of radiation with matter, image formation, and the principles of exposure and image quality. Emphasis is placed on understanding the operation of radiographic equipment, radiation safety, dosimetry, and the application of physics principles to optimize diagnostic image quality while minimizing patient exposure. The course provides a crucial foundation for those pursuing careers in medical imaging or radiologic technology.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton
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Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you purchase four (4) twelve-packs of soda as a fundraiser for $10.00 and sell each can of soda for 50 cents, your profit is
A)$9.74.
B)$14.00.
C)$24.00.
D)$34.00.
Answer: B
Q2) PV = nRT; solve for T. Answer: PV/nR
Q3) Convert 87.3% to a decimal.
A)0.0873
B)0.873
C)8.73
D)87.3
Answer: B
Q4) F = Gm<sub>1</sub>m<sub>2</sub>/r<sup>2</sup>; solve for m<sub>1</sub>. Answer: Fr<sup>2</sup>/Gm<sub>2</sub>
Q5) I = E/R + r; solve for r. Answer: E - IR/I
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Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) A period in the periodic table is
A)represented by a column.
B)vertical.
C)the principal quantum number.
D)determined by the valence electrons.
Answer: C
Q2) elements having the same chemical characteristics
A)tungsten
B)valence
C)molybdenum
D)iodine
E)barium
F)lead
G)families (groups)
H)periods
Answer: G
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4
Chapter 3: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ohm's law is mathematically described as
A)C = Q/V.
B)L = -V/It.
C)R = V/I.
D)V = I<sup>2</sup>R.
Answer: C
Q2) If the distance between two electrical charges is doubled, the force between them is
A)decreased by 1/4.
B)decreased by 1/2
C)doubled.
D)quadrupled.
Answer: A
Q3) When the atomic valence and conductance bands overlap, A)an insulator is created.
B)electrical flow easily occurs.
C)electrical flow is inhibited.
D)Ohm's law no longer applies.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Electromagnetism
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Q1) A rectifier
A)refers to a type of electromagnetic device.
B)changes electron flow to current flow.
C)converts DC to AC.
D)converts AC to DC.
Q2) An induced current in a wire loop
A)results from a constant magnetic flux.
B)can result only from an alternately expanding and contracting magnetic field.
C)is in such a direction that its effects oppose the change producing the current.
D)always decreases when the magnetic flux decreases.
Q3) A simple DC generator has essentially the same construction as an AC generator except that a DC generator employs the use of
A)slip rings.
B)a commutator.
C)brushes.
D)an armature.
Q4) List the three ways to induce an electromagnetic field.
Q5) The magnitude of an induced electromagnetic field depends on what four factors?
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) excellent x-ray tube positioning flexibility with patients on carts
A)overhead tube suspension system
B)C-arm tube suspension
C)panoramic dental and facial system
D)footboard
E)floor-to-ceiling suspension system
F)shoulder supports
G)upright Bucky unit
H)simulator systems
Q2) Nearly all types of x-ray equipment operate from an incoming line of
A)210 V.
B)120 AC.
C)120 Hz.
D)210 A.
Q3) What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 80?
Q4) What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 65?
Q5) What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 75?
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Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is a vacuum created in the x-ray tube?
Q2) The exact point on the anode where the x-ray beam emanates is the A)focusing cup.
B)focal spot.
C)stator.
D)rotor.
Q3) The actual focal spot is controlled by the A)thickness of the anode disc.
B)length of the filament.
C)anode rotation speed.
D)angle of the cathode focusing cup.
Q4) The function of the cathode is to produce
A)a focal point.
B)an electrical connection to the rectifier.
C)a thermionic cloud.
D)a grounding effect.
Q5) List the three functions of the x-ray tube anode.
Q6) How many heat units are generated by an exposure of 70 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.1 second on a 3\(\phi\) rectified unit?
Q7) List the three primary functions of the x-ray tube's protective housing.
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Chapter 7: X-Ray Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a characteristic interaction, the kinetic energy of the incident electron must be ____ the electron it knocks from its orbit.
A)less than that of B)greater than that of C)proportional to that of D)characteristic of
Q2) The types of target interaction that occur in the production of x-ray photons in the diagnostic range are dependent upon the A)incident electron kinetic energy.
B)nuclear binding energy.
C)incident electron potential energy.
D)band gap of the valence electrons.
Q3) Bremsstrahlung interactions may occur only when the incident electron interacts with
A)an inner-shell electron.
B)an outer-shell electron.
C)the force field around the nucleus.
D)the nuclear force within the nucleus.
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9
Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The indirect interaction of matter with photon energy involves the absorption of radiation within a
A)water molecule.
B)glucose molecule.
C)complex protein.
D)macromolecule such as DNA.
Q2) measure of absorbed dose
A)Gray (Gy)
B)Sievert (Sv)
C)Roentgen (R)
D)somatic damage
E)genetic damage
F)Curie (Ci)
G)Equivalent Dose (HT)
H)Effective Dose
Q3) When comparing x-rays and gamma rays, a key distinction is in the A)origin of the emission.
B)mass of the emission.
C)velocity of the emission.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and
Personnel
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Sample Questions
Q1) An x-ray sales person who demonstrates the usage of his/her product to radiographers once or twice a year would be classified as
A)an occupationally exposed individual.
B)an exempt radiation worker.
C)a general public member.
D)an occasionally exposed radiation worker.
Q2) Proper x-ray beam collimation does all of the following EXCEPT
A)reduce patient dose.
B)improve radiographic image quality.
C)eliminate the need for gonadal shielding.
D)reduce scatter radiation.
Q3) Secondary barriers are intended to intercept
A)scatter radiation from the patient.
B)leakage radiation from the x-ray tube.
C)primary beam that exits the patient.
D)both a and b
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11
Chapter 10: Filtration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Total beam filtration is equal to the sum of ____ filtration.
A)added and compensating
B)inherent and compensating
C)compound and compensating
D)inherent and added
Q2) mammography tube window material
A)compound filter
B)added
C)Thoraeus filter
D)trough filter
E)beryllium
F)aluminum
G)HVL
H)keV
I)1.5 mm aluminum minimum filtration
J)2.5 mm Al
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Prime Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) If 1 ampere equals a flow of 6.3 * 10<sup>18</sup> electrons per second, how many electrons flow from cathode to anode in 1 milliampere?
A)6.3 * 10<sup>21</sup>
B)6.3 * 10<sup>18</sup>
C)6.3 * 10<sup>15</sup>
D)6.3 * 10<sup>16</sup>
Q2) The primary factor controlling x-ray beam quantity is determined by A)mAs.
B)kVp.
C)distance.
D)filtration.
Q3) Kilovoltage is the primary controlling factor of A)radiographic film density.
B)radiographic film contrast.
C)beam quantity.
D)none of the above
Q4) Given 50 mA and an exposure time of 0.50 second, calculate the mAs.
Q5) An acceptable radiograph was taken using 12 mAs at 80 kVp at a distance of 72 inches.To reduce the image density by 50%, the new distance should be what?
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Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the process of attenuation, x-ray photons in the beam
A)reduce in number.
B)lose energy.
C)interact.
D)all of the above
Q2) During which interaction with matter is the x-ray photon converted to matter in the form of two electrons?
A)pair production
B)Compton scattering
C)photoelectric absorption
D)coherent scattering
Q3) A photoelectron
A)is matter and possesses energy.
B)typically travels 1-2 mm in soft tissue.
C)is capable of creating biological changes.
D)all of the above
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14
Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an effort to minimize patient dose,
A)the small focal spot should be used.
B)the large focal spot should be used.
C)beam filtration should be minimum.
D)none of the above.
Q2) The conscientious radiographer can reduce the patient dose by at least ____ in most examinations by choosing appropriate exposure factors.
A)100 percent
B)75 percent
C)50 percent
D)25 percent
Q3) 1.7 mR/mAs
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
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Chapter 14: Vision and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pattern recognition involves comparing mental images of ____ patterns to arrive at a diagnostic opinion.
A)histological
B)pathological
C)anatomical
D)all of the above
Q2) Rods and cones respond to
A)visible light energy.
B)magnetic energy.
C)kinetic energy.
D)gamma energy.
Q3) The phenomenon that occurs when the intensely bright light from a view box floods the eye directly is termed
A)eye motion.
B)veil glare.
C)viewing distance.
D)pattern recognition.
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Chapter 15: Beam Restriction
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the volume of irradiated tissue ____, the amount of scatter produced ____. A)increases; increases B)increases; decreases C)decreases; increases D)decreases; decreases
Q2) The diameter of the lower rim of a cone is 4 inches.The bottom of the cone is placed at a distance of 10 inches from the focal spot.What will be the size of the projected image at a 40-inch SID?
Q3) Cones and cylinders would be commonly employed for the following examinations EXCEPT A)orbits.
B)L5-S1 spot.
C)skull.
D)AP thoracic spine.
Q4) Penumbra is a geometric unsharpness around the periphery of an image. A)True B)False
Q5) Image quality is improved when scatter reaching the image receptor is reduced. A)True B)False
17
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Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following refer to patient factors contributing to image quality EXCEPT
A)receptor contrast.
B)subject detail.
C)subject contrast.
D)tissue density.
Q2) Shape distortion can be the result of a patient's body habitus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) low attenuation
A)Compton scatter
B)photoelectric effect
C)12.31
D)air
E)fat
F)water
G)bone
H)chest
I)subject detail
J)subject density
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pathologies is not considered an additive condition?
A)abscess
B)edema
C)ascites
D)atrophy
Q2) Which pathologic condition involves the filling of the interstitial lung tissues and is commonly associated with congestive heart failure?
A)cardiomegaly
B)pulmonary embolus
C)pulmonary edema
D)bronchiectasis
Q3) A pathology that is difficult to penetrate is called a/an ____ condition.
A)additive
B)radiolucent
C)constructive
D)destructive
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19
Chapter 18: The Grid
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Q1) increased OID
A)grid frequency
B)grid ratio
C)contrast improvement factor
D)focussed grid
E)air-gap technique
F)Moire effect
G)grid cut-off
H)convergence point
I)Hollis Potter
J)Gustav Bucky
Q2) For a grid to be properly focused, the x-ray tube must be located along the ____ line.
A)convergence
B)divergence
C)umbra
D)penumbra
Q3) If the lead strips are 2.0 mm high and are separated by an interspace of 0.25 mm, what is the grid ratio?
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Radiographic Film
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each crystal is a cubic lattice of each of the following atoms EXCEPT A)silver.
B)potassium. C)bromide.
D)iodine.
Q2) The purpose of the sensitivity speck is to A)attract free silver ions.
B)repel free silver ions.
C)cause the crystal lattice to grow.
D)cause the crystal lattice to collapse.
Q3) The most commonly used silver halide is silver A)iodide.
B)bromide. C)chloride. D)fluoride.
Q4) Which one of these radiographic films is not a single-emulsion film?
A)fluoroscopic
B)mammographic
C)dental
D)duplication
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Film Processing
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Q1) Which type of replenishment system is designed to be used in a very busy radiology department?
A)metric replenishment
B)volume replenishment
C)flood replenishment
D)standard replenishment
Q2) Developer has an ____ pH, while the fixer has an ____ pH.
A)acidic; acidic
B)acidic; alkaline
C)alkaline; acidic
D)alkaline; alkaline
Q3) The darkroom entrance may be a
A)double interlocking door.
B)lightproof maze.
C)revolving door.
D)all of the above
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22
Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the slope of the straight line increases, the radiographic contrast
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)is unaffected.
D)reverses.
Q2) penetrometer
A)speed point
B)gamma
C)step wedge
D)densitometer
E)characteristic curve
F)latitude
G)average gradient
H)sensitometer
Q3) Film sensitivity is affected by the A)size of the silver halide crystals.
B)number of sensitivity specks.
C)thickness of the emulsion layer.
D)all of the above.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen
Combinations
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Q1) When selecting a film/screen combination, a principal consideration in the best choice is
A)image contrast and exposure latitude.
B)image contrast and resolution.
C)MTF and dose.
D)line pair resolution and MTF.
Q2) The ability of the phosphor to emit as much light per x-ray photon interaction as possible is a measurement of the A)brilliance.
B)spectral emission.
C)atomic number.
D)screen speed.
Q3) The precise wavelength of light emitted by the phosphor is termed the A)spectral emission.
B)conversion efficiency.
C)conversion emission.
D)spectral efficiency.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Digital Radiography
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Q1) If the digital FOV is 1024 and the display matrix is 256, the pixel size would be
A)4
B)128
C)768
D)262,144
Q2) All of the following are true of local area processing EXCEPT:
A)It relies on the application of kernels to pixels.
B)Kernels are ultimately applied to the entire pixel data set.
C)Spatial filtering is an example of local area processing.
D)Electronic magnification of the image is an example of local area processing.
Q3) In digital image processing, the digital data set is arranged into a histograph distribution in order to determine the
A)display matrix.
B)exposure index.
C)values of interest (VOI).
D)both b and c
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Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Pacs
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Q1) Any computer platform that is designed to deal with medical purposes such as medical care, medical information, and medical research and documentation would be classified as a/an
A)HIS.
B)ACR.
C)BMI.
D)BMR.
Q2) CT scanner and workstation
A)WAN
B)LAN
C)BMI
D)soft copy
E)DICOM
F)hard copy
G)SOP
H)LCD
Q3) What is the anticipated image file size in kilobytes for a computed radiography digital image comprised of a 2,400 x 2,400 matrix with a 32-bit depth?
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Chapter 25: The Imaging Process
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Q1) assessing image quality in terms of density, contrast, detail, distortion
A)narrowing the search
B)pyramid problem
C)image processing
D)wide acceptance limits
E)image acquisition
F)acceptable limits
G)narrow acceptance limits
H)image analysis
Q2) Which phase of the imaging process includes control of factors such as density, contrast, recorded detail, and distortion?
A)image display
B)image processing
C)image analysis
D)image acquisition
Q3) Producing an acceptable radiograph requires consideration of
A)technical factor selection.
B)pathology.
C)image processing.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure
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Q1) If a satisfactory density is obtained with 40 mAs at 72 in., what mAs is required to maintain the same density at 40 in.?
Q2) Radiographic room A is a three-phase, 6-pulse generator.Room B is a high frequency generator.When going between these two rooms to perform examinations, what exposure modification is necessary to produce comparable exposure density?
A)Use 15% more with the three-phase system.
B)Use 10% more with the high frequency system.
C)No change is required between the two systems.
D)Use 10% less with the high frequency system.
Q3) In the event of making a single exposure that is critical to the exam success, most experienced technologists will
A)use slightly less mAs than necessary to prevent overexposure.
B)overexpose the IR slightly.
C)provide enough exposure to permit viewing with a bright light or adequate histogram analysis.
D)both b and c
Q4) If a satisfactory PA chest radiograph is obtained with 4 mAs at 72 in., what mAs is required to maintain the same density at 60 in.?
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Contrast
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Q1) Which generator type results in the greatest decrease in contrast?
A)single-phase, 2-pulse
B)three-phase, 6-pulse
C)three-phase, 12-pulse
D)high frequency
Q2) Depending upon the kVp range, a visible change in contrast will not be seen unless kVp is minimally changed
A)2-3%.
B)4-12%.
C)25%.
D)50%.
Q3) kVp controls the proportional relationship
A)mAs and kVp.
B)Compton and photoelectric interactions.
C)photoelectric and characteristic interactions.
D)SID and patient thickness.
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Chapter 28: Recorded Detail
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Q1) Recorded detail is
A)the degree of geometric sharpness.
B)definition.
C)the accuracy of the structural lines actually recorded in the radiographic image.
D)all of the above
Q2) Which radiograph exhibits the best detail?
A)a PA chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 40 in.
B)a PA chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 72 in.
C)an AP chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 40 in.
D)an AP chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 72 in.
Q3) Resolution is improved when
A)OID increases.
B)OID decreases.
C)SID decreases.
D)the x-ray tube is angled
Q4) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 1 in.
Q5) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 6 in.
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Chapter 29: Distortion
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Q1) MF
A)kidneys
B)SID SOD
C)elongation
D)SOD
E)object size
F)scapula
G)foreshortening
H)patella
Q2) Size distortion in radiography can be ____ only.
A)foreshortening
B)magnification
C)elongation
D)minimization
Q3) If an object measures 2 cm and the image measures 4 cm, what is the percent magnification of the object?
Q4) If an object is measured as 4 in.in diameter on the image and 2 in.from the film, what is the actual size of the object if the SID is 40 in.?
Q5) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 72 in.and the SOD is 25 in.
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Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique
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Q1) Technical factor problems can include both
A)equipment and technologist problems.
B)procedural and room scheduling problems.
C)equipment and image processing problems.
D)photographic and geometric problems.
Q2) possible explanation of image quality cues
A)improper patient preparation
B)an S# of 50
C)film-screen contact problem
D)consistently low contrast images
E)image cut-off along the long dimension of a cassette
F)presence of grid lines on image
G)white specks on final images
H)hypothesis
Q3) The presence of the Moire effect on an image indicates a problem with
A)a flat panel detector.
B)the automatic film processor.
C)a CR cassette and grid.
D)the Bucky mechanism.
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Chapter 31: Quality Management
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Q1) collimator-to-receptor accuracy
A)synchronous motor spinning top
B)2% of SID
C)DQE
D)MQSA
E)12 inches
F)S:N ratio
G)exposure reproducibility
H)15 inches
Q2) The accuracy of three-phase generator time settings can be measured with a A)motorized synchronous spinning top test.
B)densitometer.
C)spinning top test.
D)penetrometer.
Q3) When testing collimator accuracy, an SID error of ____ is allowed.
A)20%
B)10%
C)2%
D)0%
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts
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Sample Questions
Q1) developed a scientific approach to exposure techniques
A)calipers
B)Arthur Fuchs
C)APR
D)variable kVp system
E)fixed kVp system
F)AEC
G)Ed C. Jerman
H)phantom
I)fixed kVp systems
J)120 kVp
K)15% rule
L)2 kVp rule
Q2) Once phantom images have been produced, they must be shown to
A)all diagnosing radiologists only.
B)image quality control radiographers only.
C)diagnosing radiologists and image quality control radiographers.
D)radiology equipment representatives.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls
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Q1) Early versions of AEC technology were referred to as
A)photometers.
B)phototimers.
C)photosensors.
D)voltage regulators.
Q2) U.S.public law requires that generators automatically terminate AEC exposures at ____ mAs above 50 kVp.
A)100
B)300
C)600
D)900
Q3) When an AEC is used for an AP lumbar spine, which ionization chambers are utilized?
A)the center cell
B)the left and right outer cells
C)all three cells
D)the right outer cell only
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35
Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems
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Q1) A radiograph is produced using 70 kVp and 10 mAs.If kVp is decreased to 60, how much mAs is required to maintain exposure?
Q2) requires less mAs but does not affect recorded detail or distortion
A)decreased density
B)focal spot size
C)longer scale of contrast
D)grid ratio
E)receptor speed
F)increased mAs by 2x
G)additive pathology
H)higher amount of contrast
I)destructive pathology
J)density-distance relationship
Q3) A radiograph is produced using 70 kVp and 10 mAs.If mAs is decreased to 5, how much kVp is required to maintain exposure?
Q4) A radiograph is produced at 10 mAs with a single-phase, 2-pulse generator.The film is repeated using a high frequency generator.Calculate the new mAs.
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Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) The preferred method for demonstrating air fluid levels during mobile radiography is to make sure that the
A)SID is 60".
B)patient is sitting fully erect.
C)x-ray beam is perpendicular to the receptor.
D)both b and c
Q2) x-ray beam quality with current-day portable units
A)110-120 volts
B)capacitor discharge
C)Picker Corporation
D)high frequency output
E)56 inches
F)rechargeable batteries
G)tethered detector
H)low ratio and high frequency
I)dead man switch
J)CVP line
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Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) What is the magnification factor for an image viewed with an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 23 cm that is using a 13 cm diameter area during magnification?
Q2) Fluoroscopic resolution with image intensification will vary according to A)minification gain.
B)electrostatic focal point.
C)input and output screen diameter.
D)all of the above
Q3) The input screen absorbs ____ and emits ____.
A)x-ray photons; light photons
B)x-ray photons; electrons
C)light photons; x-ray photons
D)electrons; x-ray photons
Q4) Fluoroscopy is a ____ x-ray examination.
A)dynamic, real-time
B)static
C)therapeutic
D)all of the above
Q5) What is the minification gain for an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 10 in.and an output diameter of 2 in.?
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis
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Q1) The tomographic ____ is the total distance traveled by the tube.
A)arc
B)wavelength
C)blur
D)increment
Q2) Digital tomosynthesis has its greatest application currently with _________ studies.
A)chest
B)mammographic
C)renal
D)liver
Q3) Which tomographic motion produces the thinnest section?
A)8 degrees
B)12 degrees
C)25 degrees
D)40 degrees
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Chapter 38: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) To engage the small focal spot in a dedicated mammography tube, ____ focusing must be used.
A)convex
B)dual
C)biased
D)concave
Q2) Breast compression
A)provides a more uniform film density.
B)improves visualization.
C)reduces magnification.
D)all of the above
Q3) A disadvantage of using molybdenum for the anode material in mammography tubes is
A)less x-ray photon output.
B)increased mAs required to maintain film density.
C)increased patient dose.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry
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Q1) DXA scanning provides a statistical assessment of a person's T-score and Z-score.Both of these measures are similar except for the fact that the T-score is A)calculated using a normative group with peak bone mass. B)age-specific.
C)not recognized by the World Health Organization (WHO).
D)all of the above
Q2) DXA scanning of the forearm
A)is preferred for suspected hyperparathyroidism.
B)scans the non-dominant forearm.
C)includes the proximal row of carpal bones.
D)all of the above
Q3) DXA scanning systems
A)are classified as fan beam or pencil beam.
B)may use a rare-earth filtered x-ray source.
C)may employ a synchronous, high frequency generator to switch between photon energies.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The desirable features of a modern angiographic patient table include:
1)fixed vertical height with integrated physician stool
2)carbon-fiber composite top
3)side rails for the attachment of accessory items
4)free-floating tabletop motion
5)variable vertical height of table top
6)leaded composite material to increase photoelectric interactions
7)interchangeable table plates
A)2, 3, 4, 5, and 7
B)1, 2, 3, 6, and 7
C)2, 4, 5, and 7
D)2, 4, 5, 6, and 7
Q2) How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 70 kVp, 300 mA, 0.20 sec.on a three-phase, 6-pulse unit?
Q3) What type of image acquisition is used mainly for cardiac catheterization?
A)digital angiography
B)digital subtraction angiography
C)digital cineradiography
D)cineangiographic imaging
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Computed Tomography
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Q1) The ____ is how well the detectors convert incoming photons.
A)capture efficiency
B)absorption efficiency
C)conversion efficiency
D)response time
Q2) The calculation of CT numbers is based upon the calculation of A)half-value layers.
B)half-lives.
C)attenuation coefficients.
D)pitch.
Q3) The ____ is determined by how well the detector converts the absorbed photon information to a digital signal for the computer.
A)capture efficiency
B)absorption efficiency
C)conversion efficiency
D)response time
Q4) If a pitch of 1.0 is being used with a section thickness of 8 mm, what is the proper table speed?
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Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) In order to create a more homogenous magnetic field in MR, ______ is required.
A)a radio frequency
B)a k-space coil
C)an autotransformer
D)shimming
Q2) In a MR gantry, the patient lies at
A)the lowest gantry level.
B)isocenter.
C)geometric center.
D)the center of the external coils.
Q3) Superconductive magnets used in MR are characterized by A)field strengths of .2T-.35T.
B)the use of liquid helium as a cryogen.
C)resistive magnets with vertical fields.
D)the ability to turn the magnetic field on and off at will.
Q4) The RF signal strength determines A)brightness.
B)field strength.
C)section thickness.
D)spatial resolution.
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Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) The radioactive elements Carbon-12, Carbon-13 and Carbon-14 are ______ to each other
A)isobars
B)isomers
C)isotopes
D)isotones
Q2) The scintillation crystal in an Anger camera is A)calcium tungstate.
B)sodium iodide.
C)sodium chloride-thalium activated.
D)amorphous selenium.
Q3) The isotope of choice for most nuclear medicine medical procedures is A)Gallium-67.
B)Iodine-131.
C)Fluorine-18.
D)Technetium-99m.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The very first successful use of radiation energy to treat and cure a disease process was with a case of A)acne.
B)psoriasis.
C)retinoblastoma.
D)melanoma.
Q2) All of the following are related EXCEPT:
A)Spare healthy tissues.
B)Preserve surrounding tissue function.
C)Eradicate the malignancy.
D)Prolong side effects as tissues recover.
Q3) Radiotherapy treatments
A)are treated as prescriptions.
B)require a physician's order.
C)start with a consultation.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography
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Q1) The characteristic of spatial pulse length (SPL)
A)is distance from the beginning of the pulse to the end of the pulse.
B)is alterable by the sonographer.
C)has no effect upon resolution.
D)is directly related to frequency and depth.
Q2) the process by which images are displayed on current machines.
A)B-mode
B)rayls
C)damping material
D)decibels
E)Doppler
F)acoustic coupler
G)PZT
H)matching layer
I)M-mode
J)Huygen's principle
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