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Radiographic Pathology explores the principles and practices involved in identifying and understanding disease processes as seen through medical imaging. The course focuses on the radiographic appearance of various pathologies affecting different body systems, including musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and genitourinary systems. Students gain a foundational understanding of how diseases alter normal anatomy, how these alterations are visualized using imaging modalities, and the implications for patient care. Emphasis is placed on correlating clinical symptoms with imaging findings to enhance diagnostic accuracy, and on recognizing the significance of radiographic changes in formulating appropriate treatment plans.
Recommended Textbook
Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology 6th Edition by Ronald L. Eisenberg
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12 Chapters
913 Verified Questions
913 Flashcards
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17057
Sample Questions
Q1) Pain
A)Rubor
B)Calor
C)Dolor
D)Tumor
Answer: C
Q2) New growths that invade and destroy adjacent structures and have the ability to spread are considered
A) neoplastic
B) benign
C) cachexia
D) malignant
Answer: D
Q3) What term is used to denote a disease in which the underlying cause is unknown?
A) Idiopathic.
B) Antietiologic.
C) Iatrogenic.
D) Nosocomial.
Answer: A
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The complexity of technology requires the radiographer to
A) have a more specific skill set
B) have an extensive knowledge of anatomy
C) have computer networking classes
D) A and B
Answer: D
Q2) CT number
A)Ability to collect data from multiple sections per rotation
B)Attenuation of a specific tissue relative to water
C)Calculation of data collected from multiple angles using a narrow x-ray beam
D)Continuous scanning while the patient moves through the gantry
E)Contrast scale to be demonstrated on computer monitor
F)Midpoint selected of densities to be viewed on the computer monitor
G)Single scans that are integrated to produce multiplanar images
Answer: B
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81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The newborn who experiences underaeration of the lungs resulting from a lack of surfactant has
A) cystic fibrosis
B) hyaline membrane disease
C) croup
D) pneumonia
Answer: B
Q2) Croup is a(n)
A) viral infection of the subglottic region of the trachea
B) infection involving the pleural lining of the lung
C) bronchial spasm narrowing the bronchi
D) trapping of air in the alveolar sacs
Answer: A
Q3) Thyroid mass
A)Anterior mediastinum
B)Middle mediastinum
C)Posterior mediastinum
Answer: A
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A rare hereditary bone dysplasia involving the bone resorption mechanism of calcified cartilage is
A) osteoporosis
B) osteogenesis imperfecta
C) osteomalacia
D) osteopetrosis
Q2) Which of the following results when a pyogenic organism enters the joint through the blood,direct extension,or trauma?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis.
B) Tuberculous arthritis.
C) Infectious arthritis.
D) Osteoarthritis.
Q3) A vertebra with characteristics of more than one major division of the spine is called
A) spina bifida
B) a transitional vertebra
C) spondylolysis
D) spondylolisthesis
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pneumoperitoneum is a sign of perforation of the GI tract.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Preexisting polyps
A)Obstruction of cystic duct by an impacted gallstone
B)Perforation of GI tract
C)Inflammation or necrosis
D)Excessive alcohol consumption
Q3) Varicose veins of the lower end of the rectum that cause symptoms of pain,itching,and bleeding are
A) volvulus
B) intussusception
C) hemorrhoids
D) Crohn's disease
Q4) Progressive shortening and rigidity of the colon and absent haustral patterns are radiographic evidence of A) appendicitis
B) diverticulosis
C) diverticulitis
D) chronic ulcerative colitis

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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the imaging modality of choice to diagnose renal vein thrombosis?
A) CT.
B) MRI.
C) US.
D) Excretory urography.
Q2) Glomerulonephritis
A)Contrast-enhanced CT
B)Ultrasound
C)Noncontrast helical CT
D)MRI
Q3) Ureteroceles are commonly associated with duplicated ureters.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which urinary disease occurs almost exclusively in males and is defined as a thin transverse membrane that causes bladder outlet obstruction and may lead to severe hydronephrosis,hydroureter,and renal damage?
A) Ureterocele.
B) Posterior urethral valves.
C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia.
D) Polycystic kidney disease.
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81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which imaging modality is the most definitive,yet the most invasive,for demonstration of the heart atria and ventricles?
A) MRI.
B) Echocardiography.
C) CT.
D) Angiography.
Q2) What term is applied to the contraction phase of the heart?
A) Diastole.
B) Systole.
C) Impulse.
D) Synapse.
Q3) Thrombus
A)Intravascular clot
B)Fatty material deposits on inner arterial walls
C)Clot material in the circulating blood
D)Dead heart muscle cells1.Atherosclerosis
Q4) Right-to-left shunts are the most common congenital cardiac lesions.
A)True
B)False
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73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the basal ganglia?
A) The portion of the brain between the cerebrum and the spinal cord.
B) The portion of the brain between the cerebrum and the midbrain.
C) Islands of gray matter deep within the white matter of the cerebrum.
D) Islands of white matter deep within the gray matter of the cerebellum.
Q2) Which of the following facial fractures is usually caused by a direct blow to the orbit?
A) Stellate fracture.
B) Le Fort fracture.
C) Blow-out fracture.
D) Tripod fracture.
Q3) Which of the following are components of the central nervous system?
(1)Brain.
(2)Spinal cord.
(3)Twelve pairs of cranial nerves.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are red blood cells produced?
A) Spleen.
B) Red bone marrow.
C) Yellow bone marrow.
D) Lymph nodes.
Q2) Leukemia is a neoplastic proliferation of white blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of anemia is caused by a B deficiency?
A) Megaloblastic anemia.
B) Hemolytic anemia.
C) Aplastic anemia.
D) Myelophthisic anemia.
Q4) Mononucleosis
A)Iron deficiency
B)Inherited anomaly
C)Platelet deficiency
D)Virus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gland secretes steroid hormones?
A) Adrenal.
B) Pituitary.
C) Liver.
D) Parathyroid.
Q2) Where does a pheochromocytoma occur?
A) Anterior pituitary.
B) Adrenal medulla.
C) Kidney cortex.
D) Liver parenchyma.
Q3) Where is the pituitary gland located?
A) The mediastinum.
B) The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.
C) The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.
D) On the upper poles of the kidneys.
Q4) Graves' disease is related to the thyroid gland.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) On ultrasound (US)simple cysts in the breast demonstrate as
A) "snowstorm" appearance
B) hyperechoic areas with mixed signals surrounding lesion
C) well-defined hyperechoic area with surrounding anechoic shadow
D) anechoic center with thin echogenic capsule
Q2) What condition is associated with cryptorchidism?
A) Testicular torsion.
B) Epididymitis.
C) Hypogonadism.
D) Malignancy.
Q3) A _____ is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis.
A) chancre on the genitals
B) nonitching skin rash
C) cardiovascular calcification
D) neuropathic joint disease
Q4) The corpus luteum secretes
A) estrogen
B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C) luteinizing hormone (LH)
D) progesterone
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61 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of a vitamin A deficiency?
A) Peripheral neuropathy.
B) Night blindness.
C) Bleeding gums.
D) Vomiting and severe diarrhea.
Q2) Which of the following diseases are caused by an error in metabolism?
(1)Phenylketonuria.
(2)Homocystinuria.
(3)Scurvy.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder in which a metabolic error causes faulty amino acid absorption.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Turner's syndrome is a male with only one X chromosome.
A)True
B)False

Page 14
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