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Radiographic Imaging is an essential course that introduces students to the fundamental principles and techniques of producing diagnostic images using X-ray technology. The course covers the physics of radiation, equipment operation, patient positioning, image acquisition, and exposure factors that influence image quality. Emphasis is placed on understanding radiographic procedures for various anatomical regions, ensuring radiation safety, and adhering to protocols that protect both patients and health care personnel. Students will develop the skills necessary to critically analyze radiographic images for diagnostic accuracy and will gain knowledge of quality control measures, digital imaging systems, and regulatory standards pertinent to radiography practice.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Imaging and Exposure 3rd Edition by Terri L. Fauber
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Q1) Which of the following is a correct description of the relationship between the wavelength and the frequency of the x-ray photon?
A) Wavelength and frequency are directly proportional.
B) Wavelength and frequency are inversely related by the square root of lambda.
C) Frequency and wavelength are inversely related.
D) Wavelength and frequency have no relationship to each other.
Answer: C
Q2) X-ray photons are capable of traveling around corners.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) X-ray photons travel at the speed of light in a vacuum.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Chemical changes may occur as a result of exposure to ionizing radiation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The amount the voltage varies during an x-ray exposure is known as:
A) kVp.
B) voltage ripple.
C) mA.
D) tube current.
Answer: B
Q2) The amount of filtration required to reduce the exposure of the beam to half of its original intensity is defined as:
A) wedge filtration.
B) HVL.
C) mAs compensator.
D) mA linearity.
Answer: B
Q3) _____ is the boiling off of electrons from the filament when current is applied.
A) Saturation emission
B) Thermionic emission
C) Filament transport
D) Proton emission
Answer: B
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Q1) Unwanted density on the radiograph due to scatter radiation is called:
A) latent.
B) manifest.
C) fog.
D) backscatter.
Answer: C
Q2) Compton interactions are more likely to occur in soft tissue as compared to bone.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) When the entering x-ray photon loses energy and changes its path of travel as a result of interacting with an atom, the interaction is known as the:
A) compensating effect.
B) photoelectric interaction.
C) characteristic effect.
D) Compton effect.
Answer: D
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Q1) Assuming all produce appropriate density images, which of the following would be the best exposure technique choice when performing a chest radiograph on an infant?
A) Use 40 ms exposure time.
B) Use 60 ms exposure time.
C) Use 200 ms exposure time.
D) Use at least 80 kVp.
Q2) If mAs were fixed, which kVp would produce the greatest density?
A) 70 kVp
B) 80 kVp
C) 90 kVp
D) 100 kVp
Q3) Generally speaking, what is the kVp value for a pediatric (less than 6 years old) skull compared with the adult skull?
A) 5% less
B) 15% less
C) 50% less
D) 50% more
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Q1) All of the geometric factors and those that determine the amount of image distortion are equally important for digital and film-screen imaging.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What effect will using a slower speed imaging system have on recorded detail?
A) Increased recorded detail
B) Decreased recorded detail
C) No effect on recorded detail
Q3) The most detrimental factor to maximum recorded detail is:
A) increased OID.
B) decreased SID.
C) large focal spot size.
D) motion.
Q4) What effect will using a higher grid ratio have on recorded detail?
A) Increased recorded detail
B) Decreased recorded detail
C) No effect on recorded detail
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Q1) When a grid is needed but not available, the _____ may be used for certain examinations.
A) tomographic technique
B) air-gap technique
C) Seldinger technique
D) reverse collimation technique
Q2) What occurs when scatter radiation strikes the film?
A) Radiographic contrast increases.
B) Radiographic contrast decreases.
C) Recorded detail decreases.
D) Visibility of recorded detail improves.
Q3) Also called lateral decentering, the _____ grid error results when the central ray is not aligned to the middle of a focused grid.
A) off-level
B) off-focus
C) off-center
D) upside-down focused
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Q1) What is used to assess screen-film contact?
A) Spinning top
B) Wire mesh test tool
C) Gauze compression device
D) Nine penny test
Q2) What is the term specifically used to describe the emission of light during and after external stimulation?
A) Luminescence
B) Phosphorescence
C) Fluorescence
D) Incandescence
Q3) The CR latent image consists of:
A) electrons trapped in the phosphor layer.
B) clumps of metallic silver in the emulsion.
C) light trapped in the phosphor layer.
D) computer data.
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Q1) If films begin to fade after being in storage for a long time, there might be a problem with which stage of the processing cycle?
A) Development
B) Fixation
C) Washing
D) Drying
Q2) In the developer solution, exposed silver halide crystals are reduced to _____ silver.
A) ionic
B) liquid
C) negative
D) metallic
Q3) One and one half minutes (90 seconds) is a typical processing cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Silver recovery is the removal of silver from the:
A) developer solution.
B) wash.
C) fixer solution.
D) all of the above.
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Q1) What is measured by comparison of the amount of light transmitted through an area of film with the amount of light incident on that area?
A) Speed point
B) Gamma
C) Optical density
D) Logarithmic scale
Q2) The steeper the slope of the straight-line region of the sensitometric curve, the higher the contrast of the film.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the range of diagnostic densities on the radiograph?
A) 0.5-1.5
B) 0.25-2.5
C) 0.5-2.0
D) 0.5-3.0
Q4) The lower the speed exposure point, the faster the film speed.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Technique charts are still needed when using Automatic Exposure Control (AEC).
A)True
B)False
Q2) When using a fixed kVp/variable mAs technique chart, if part thickness increases by 5 cm, what needs to happen to the mAs?
A) It should be halved.
B) It should be doubled.
C) It should be quartered.
D) It should be tripled.
Q3) Radiographic contrast would be standardized with the:
A) variable kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.
B) variable kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.
C) fixed kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.
D) fixed kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.
Q4) Generally speaking, patient dose will be decreased with the:
A) variable kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.
B) variable kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.
C) fixed kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.
D) fixed kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.
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Q1) When using film-screen, what happens when an outside detector is selected for an AP thoracic spine?
A) The spine will have insufficient contrast.
B) The spine will be too dark.
C) The spine will have excessive contrast.
D) The spine will have insufficient density.
Q2) Why was automatic exposure control (AEC) originally developed?
A) To decrease the need for technique charts
B) To make the technologist more of a "button pusher"
C) To reduce repeats and improve image quality
D) To increase productivity and patient dose
Q3) AEC eliminates the need for the radiographer to select the actual _____ the examination will require.
A) kVp
B) SID
C) time
D) focal spot size
Q4) AEC can typically be used with table-top exams.
A)True
B)False

Page 13
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Q1) How many lines would an ideal video monitor for digital radiography have?
A) 525
B) 1024
C) 1050
D) 2000
Q2) Which one of the following digital systems would have the best image quality?
A) 8 bit
B) 12 bit
C) 16 bit
D) 32 bit
Q3) The _____ provides a method of processing digital images in order to change the density and contrast displayed.
A) matrix
B) lookup table
C) histogram
D) charge-coupled device
Q4) The pixel bit depth determines the amount of shades of gray the system is capable of displaying on the digital image.
A)True
B)False

Page 14
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