Radiographic Imaging Final
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Course Introduction
Radiographic Imaging explores the fundamental principles and techniques involved in producing diagnostic images using ionizing radiation. The course covers topics such as x-ray equipment operation, image formation, exposure factors, digital and film-based technologies, image quality evaluation, and radiation safety standards. Students will learn to apply proper positioning and technical settings to achieve optimal images while minimizing patient exposure. Emphasis is placed on understanding anatomical relationships, evaluating radiographs for diagnostic quality, and adhering to professional and ethical standards in radiographic practice.
Recommended Textbook
Radiologic Science for Technologists Physics Biology and Protection 10th Edition by Stewart C. Bushong
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Chapter 1: Essential Concepts of Radiologic Science
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Q1) Ice and steam are examples of two forms of _____.
A) matter
B) radiation
C) energy
D) work
Answer: A
Q2) The biggest source of man-made ionizing radiation exposure to the public is _____.
A) atomic fallout
B) diagnostic x-rays
C) smoke detectors
D) nuclear power plants
Answer: B
Q3) An example of a derived quantity in mechanical physics is a _____.
A) meter
B) second
C) dose
D) volume
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Structure of Matter
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Q1) When atoms of various elements combine,they form _____.
A) isotopes
B) compounds
C) molecules
D) ions
Answer: C
Q2) A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined orbits is the _____ model of the atom.
A) Bohr
B) Thomson
C) Rutherford
D) Dalton
Answer: A
Q3) The binding energies,or energy levels,of electrons are represented by their _____.
A) atomic numbers
B) atomic mass units
C) shells
D) isotopes
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Electromagnetic Energy
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Q1) If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2,then its frequency must _____.
A) double
B) increase four times
C) decrease by half
D) remain constant
Answer: C
Q2) The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its _____.
A) amplitude
B) frequency
C) wavelength
D) velocity
Answer: B
Q3) Gamma rays are produced in the _____ of the atom.
A) outer electron shell
B) inner electron shell
C) nucleus
D) K-shell
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Electricity, Magnetism, and Electromagnetism
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Q1) In the United States,alternating current goes through a complete cycle every _____ second.
A) 1/120
B) 1/100
C) 1/60
D) 1/30
Q2) A charged particle in motion creates a(n)_____.
A) negative charge
B) positive charge
C) magnetic field
D) electrostatic charge
Q3) The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called _____.
A) magnetic force
B) electron spin
C) unified field theory
D) magnetic induction
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Chapter 5: The X-ray Imaging System
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Q1) Voltage across the x-ray tube is most constant with _____.
A) high frequency generators
B) single-phase, half-wave rectification
C) single-phase, full-wave rectification
D) three-phase, full-wave rectification
Q2) Full-wave rectified,three-phase units provide an x-ray beam at _____ pulse(es)per second.
A) 1
B) 60
C) 120
D) 360
Q3) A diode allows electrons to flow from _____.
A) anode to cathode
B) cathode to anode
C) cathode to cathode
D) anode to anode
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Chapter 6: The X-ray Tube
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Q1) When electrons bombard the target,_____% of their kinetic energy is converted to heat.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 99
Q2) A dual focus tube has two _____.
A) anodes
B) filaments
C) rotors
D) stators
Q3) Each tube has its own tube rating chart to show _____.
A) housing cooling times
B) anode cooling times
C) maximum exposure times
D) maximum patient doses
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Page 8
Chapter 7: X-ray Production
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Q1) The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to _____.
A) rotor speed
B) filament current
C) kVp
D) tube current
Q2) Most of the heat generated at the target is due to _____.
A) inner-shell ionization
B) outer-shell excitation
C) nucleus bombardment
D) K x-rays
Q3) The discrete portion of the x-ray emission spectrum would change position with a change in _____.
A) kVp
B) target material
C) voltage ripple
D) both A and B
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Chapter 8: X-ray Emission
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Q1) X-ray intensity is proportional to _____.
A) distance
B) kVp
C) kVp2
D) filtration
Q2) The inverse square law has the same effect on optical density and x-ray _____.
A) intensity
B) exposure
C) quantity
D) all of the above
Q3) X-ray beam quality is improved by _____.
A) lowering kVp
B) decreasing filtration
C) increasing filtration
D) increasing distance
Q4) Grays in air are the measurement for x-ray _____.
A) quantity
B) exposure
C) intensity
D) all of the above
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Chapter 9: X-ray Interaction with Matter
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Q1) Which has the greatest mass density?
A) fat
B) soft tissue
C) bone
D) air
Q2) Barium is a good contrast agent because of its _____.
A) low atomic number
B) high atomic number
C) light color
D) low density
Q3) X-rays transmitted without interaction contribute to _____.
A) photoelectric absorption
B) the radiographic image
C) the image fog
D) beam attenuation
Q4) Only at energies above 10 MeV can _____ take place.
A) photodisintegration
B) pair production
C) Compton scatter
D) photoelectric absorption
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Chapter 10: Concepts of Radiographic Image Quality
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Q1) The densities above 2.5 on a film are represented in the _____ portion of the characteristic curve.
A) base + fog
B) toe
C) straight-line portion
D) shoulder
Q2) If 10% of the viewbox light is transmitted through an area of film,what is the optical density in that area?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Q3) Spatial resolution improves with decreased _____ blur.
A) screen
B) motion
C) geometric
D) all of the above
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Chapter 11: Control of Scatter Radiation
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Q1) Decreasing the kVp will increase _____.
A) patient dose
B) image noise
C) Compton scatter
D) optical density
Q2) Which kVp selection would result in the most scattered x-rays in the image-forming beam?
A) 90 kVp
B) 75 kVp
C) 60 kVp
D) 50 kVp
Q3) The positive beam limiting device (PBL)assures that the x-ray beam is collimated to _____.
A) the exact part size
B) 1 cm inside image receptor size
C) the image receptor size
D) 1 cm outside image receptor size
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Chapter 12: Screen-Film Radiography
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Q1) Film is made with double emulsion to enhance film _____.
A) sensitivity
B) latitude
C) contrast
D) speed
Q2) The intensification factor increases with increased _____.
A) kVp
B) mAs
C) dye
D) temperature
Q3) Luminescent material emits light after its outer shell electrons are _____.
A) excited
B) ejected
C) removed
D) any of the above
Q4) A contaminant in the silver halide crystal creates the _____.
A) sensitivity speck
B) latent image
C) manifest image
D) image fog
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Chapter 13: Screen-Film Radiographic Technique
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Q1) A variable mAs technique chart has a set kVp and specific mAs settings for _____.
A) small, medium, and large parts
B) every 2 cm of thickness
C) every 6 cm of thickness
D) either A or B
Q2) Which medical condition may require a lower technique?
A) atelectasis
B) emphysema
C) pneumonia
D) pleural effusion
Q3) A radiograph with a long scale of contrast will have _____ latitude and _____ contrast.
A) narrow, low
B) narrow, high
C) wide, low
D) wide, high
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Chapter 14: Computers in Medical Imaging
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Q1) The _____ controls data transfer between the main memory and the input and output hardware
A) flat panel display
B) central processing unit
C) disk drive
D) RAM chip
Q2) The active storage of a computer is stored in _____ chips.
A) DRAM
B) SRAM
C) ROM
D) all of the above
Q3) The following computer component temporarily stores data for processing.
A) hard disk drive
B) microprocessor
C) solid state drive
D) main memory
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Computed Radiography
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Q1) Europium is the _____ of the photostimulable phosphor.
A) image buffer
B) scintillator
C) phosphor
D) activator
Q2) The digital imaging plate can sit for some time after the erase cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Switching from screen-film imaging to computed radiography can _____ patient dose.
A) increase
B) reduce
C) not effect
D) remove
Q4) Computed radiography and screen-film imaging both have a(n)_____.
A) image receptor response function
B) characteristic curve
C) digital image
D) latent image
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Chapter 16: Digital Radiography
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Q1) Digital imaging could only be developed after advances were made in _____.
A) microprocessors
B) semiconductor memory
C) photostimulable phosphors
D) both A and B
Q2) Computed radiography developed in the 1970s with the use of _____ as the image receptor.
A) phosphor
B) selenium
C) silicon
D) film
Q3) In digital fluoroscopy,each matrix pixel represents _____.
A) interface reflectivity
B) atomic number and mass density
C) proton density and spin relaxation
D) radionuclide uptake
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Chapter 17: Digital Radiographic Technique
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Q1) DQE is _____.
A) density quantum effect
B) direct quantum efficiency
C) detective quantum efficiency
D) detective quantum energy
Q2) The two principal characteristics of a medical image are _____.
A) spatial resolution and noise
B) spatial resolution and contrast resolution
C) contrast resolution and modular transfer function
D) contrast resolution and dynamic range
Q3) A _____ test tool is used to acquire data for an MTF curve.
A) bar pattern
B) post processing
C) signal-to-noise ratio
D) contrast-detail curve
Q4) Recent studies have shown that denser breast tissue is best imaged with _____.
A) xerography
B) computed tomography
C) screen-film mammography
D) digital mammography
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Viewing the Digital Radiographic Image
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Q1) The decreasing luminous intensity with increasing distance from the source of light follows _____.
A) the law of gravity
B) Murphy's law
C) cosine law
D) the inverse square law
Q2) A digital display device with higher megapixels has better spatial resolution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A liquid crystal is a material in a _____ state.
A) solid
B) state between a liquid and a solid
C) liquid
D) state between a liquid and a gaseous
Q4) What is the basic photometric unit?
A) lumen
B) candela
C) lux
D) nit
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Chapter 19: Screen-Film Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) A bi-color chemical stain on a radiograph is called _____.
A) a curtain effect
B) a dichroic stain
C) hypo retention
D) both A and B
Q2) Lines that occur C.14 inches apart on the finished radiograph are caused by _____.
A) misalignment of guide-shoes
B) chemical build-up on rollers
C) poor film-screen contact
D) grid cut-off during exposure
Q3) Generally,most repeat exams are caused by _____ artifacts.
A) processing
B) handling
C) exposure
D) storage
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Chapter 20: Screen-Film Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) The collimator must be accurately aligned to within ±_____% of the SID.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 12
Q2) The x-ray field must center accurately to within ____% of SID.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 0.5
D) 1
Q3) A QC program should include _____,routine performance monitoring,and maintenance.
A) acceptance testing
B) outcome analysis
C) calibration
D) personnel monitoring
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Digital Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) Histogram selection is done _____.
A) automatically during each exposure
B) automatically during post-processing
C) by the radiographer before each exam
D) by the radiographer during post-processing
Q2) The three classifications of digital imaging artifacts are _____.
A) processing, exposure, and handling/storage
B) processing, image receptor, and exposure
C) image receptor, software, and object
D) software, object, and exposure
Q3) What size is the average CR or DR image file?
A) 10 KB
B) 100 KB
C) 20 MB
D) 200 MB
Q4) Which modality produces the largest image files?
A) digital or computed radiography
B) computed tomography
C) nuclear medicine
D) digital mammography
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Digital Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) Digital display reflections and ambient light conditions are assessed with a(n)_____.
A) illuminance meter
B) near-range photometer
C) luminescence meter
D) TG-18 test device
Q2) When evaluating the test pattern for geometric distortion,all lines should appear _____.
A) blue
B) dashed
C) straight
D) curved
Q3) Specular reflection is reduced with the use of _____.
A) improved anti-reflective coating
B) brighter ambient lighting
C) color monitors
D) larger monitors
Q4) Veiling glare can be evaluated with a VG18 testing pattern.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Mammography
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Q1) Soft tissue radiography requires special techniques because of the low _____.
A) image receptor contrast
B) subject contrast
C) part thickness
D) spatial resolution
Q2) Screening mammography requires _____ view(s)of each breast,whereas diagnostic mammography requires _____ or more views.
A) 1, 2 or more
B) 2, 2 or more
C) 3, 3 or more
D) 4, 4 or more
Q3) The American Cancer Society recommends that all women _____ years of age and above have an annual screening mammogram.
A) 45
B) 50
C) 55
D) 60
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Chapter 24: Mammography Quality Control
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Q1) Every daily sensitometry strip should be fed into the processor _____.
A) emulsion side down
B) on the same edge of the feed tray
C) with the least exposed end first
D) all of the above
Q2) The mammographer should _____ on a monthly basis.
A) do a repeat analysis
B) complete a visual checklist
C) perform processor quality control
D) review phantom images
Q3) The _____ is responsible for supervising quality assurance.
A) chief radiologist
B) mammographer
C) department manager
D) medical physicist
Q4) The _____ is responsible for measurement of the mammogram viewing conditions.
A) darkroom technologist
B) mammographer
C) medical physicist
D) radiologist
26
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Chapter 25: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) With image intensification the light level is raised to _____ vision.
A) photopic
B) scotopic
C) night
D) twilight
Q2) Television monitoring allows _____ to be controlled electronically.
A) brightness
B) contrast
C) bandwidth
D) both A and B
Q3) Fluoroscopy for an air contrast barium enema is generally done at _____ kVp.
A) 65-75
B) 70-80
C) 80-90
D) 100-110
Q4) The image intensifier improved fluoroscopy by increasing image _____.
A) brightness
B) resolution
C) magnification
D) contrast
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Digital Fluoroscopy
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Q1) Digital fluoroscopy systems with hybrid capabilities use both _____.
A) interlace and progressive modes
B) high mAs and low mass techniques
C) temporal and energy subtraction
D) charge coupled devices and TV monitors
Q2) Hybrid imaging can produce the highest-quality digital fluoroscopy images only if _____.
A) remasking is employed
B) energy subtraction is used
C) patient motion is controlled
D) remasking is completed
Q3) Digital fluoroscopy uses at least _____ monitor(s).
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q4) Digital fluoroscopic dose rate is lower than that for continuous analog fluoroscopy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Interventional Radiography
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Q1) The use of _____ reduces the risk of a drug reaction during angiographic procedures.
A) hydrophilic catheters
B) ionic contrast
C) nonionic contrast
D) heparin coating
Q2) The 18-gauge hollow _____ needle with a stylet,developed in 1953,is used to puncture the femoral artery.
A) Judkins
B) Seldinger
C) Dotter
D) Jones
Q3) The focal spot used for magnification of small vessels cannot be larger than _____ mm.
A) 0.3
B) 0.4
C) 0.7
D) 1.0
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Chapter 28: Computed Tomography
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Q1) Filtered back projection in CT refers to _____.
A) spatial resolution
B) pre-patient collimation
C) beam filtration
D) image reconstruction
Q2) The cross-sectional anatomy is translated into _____ during CT reconstruction.
A) an intensity profile
B) attenuation patterns
C) a matrix of values
D) effective atomic numbers
Q3) The CT scanner must be calibrated so that _____ is at CT number zero.
A) water
B) Plexiglas
C) nylon
D) polyethylene
Q4) CT scanners operate on _____ voltage generation.
A) single-phase
B) three phase
C) high frequency
D) twelve-pulse
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Chapter 29: Human Biology
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Q1) The process of cell meiosis results in cells with _____ chromosomes each.
A) 22
B) 23
C) 46
D) 48
Q2) The _____ in the body provide fuel for cell metabolism.
A) protein
B) water
C) carbohydrates
D) hormones
Q3) Ribonucleic acid (RNA)is located primarily in the _____.
A) cytoplasm
B) nucleus
C) cell wall
D) ribosomes
Q4) The _____ have the function of cleaning contaminants from the cell.
A) mitochondria
B) lysosomes
C) ribosomes
D) chromatids
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Fundamental Principles of Radiobiology
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Q1) The human dose-response relationship at low ranges of radiation is calculated using
A) known responses from low doses
B) extrapolation from high ranges
C) human experiments
D) all of the above
Q2) Tissue is _____ radiosensitive under high oxygen conditions and _____ radiosensitive under hypoxic conditions.
A) less, equally
B) less, more
C) more, less
D) more, equally
Q3) _____ is a measure of the rate that energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to soft tissue.
A) LET
B) RBE
C) MeV
D) OER
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Chapter 31: Molecular Radiobiology
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Q1) The most radiosensitive macromolecule is _____.
A) protein
B) DNA
C) mRNA
D) tRNA
Q2) The disassociation of water molecules following irradiation is termed _____.
A) radiolysis
B) ionization
C) cross-linking
D) point mutation
Q3) Two OH* free radicals can join to form _____ molecules.
A) organic free radical
B) hydroperoxyl
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) DNA
Q4) DNA is contained in the _____ of the cell nucleus.
A) proteins
B) cytoplasm
C) chromosomes
D) RNA
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Cellular Radiobiology
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Q1) The _____-target,_____-hit model of radiation induced cell death applies to simple cells only.
A) single, single
B) multiple, multiple
C) multiple, single
D) single, multiple
Q2) Irradiation hits occur through _____.
A) indirect effects
B) direct effects
C) excitation events
D) both A and B
Q3) According to target theory,the target molecule of a cell is _____.
A) any molecule in the cell
B) the DNA in the nucleus
C) a water molecule
D) a protein macromolecule
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Chapter 33: Deterministic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Death from acute radiation exposure follows a _____ dose-response relationship.
A) nonlinear, threshold
B) linear, threshold
C) linear, nonthreshold
D) nonlinear, nonthreshold
Q2) Some radiation victims of _____ syndrome(s)may recover completely.
A) central nervous system
B) gastrointestinal
C) hematologic
D) all of the above
Q3) A subject would not experience _____ following a dose high enough to cause CNS syndrome.
A) hematologic syndrome
B) gastrointestinal syndrome
C) prodromal syndrome
D) both A and B
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Chapter 34: Stochastic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Relative risk is _____.
A) expected cases/observed cases
B) observed cases/expected cases
C) observed cases - expected cases
D) expected cases - observed cases
Q2) A _____ effect increases in incidence but not severity as the dose increases.
A) non-stochastic
B) stochastic
C) deterministic
D) localized
Q3) _____ is a stochastic effect of radiation exposure.
A) Erythema
B) Epilation
C) Cancer
D) Nausea
Q4) Radiation protection guidelines are based on _____.
A) stochastic effects of radiation
B) deterministic effects of radiation
C) lethal effects of radiation
D) both A and B
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Chapter 35: Health Physics
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Q1) The three cardinal principals of radiation protection involve _____.
A) dose, shielding, and exposure
B) exposure, shielding, and ALARA
C) time, distance, and shielding
D) ALARA, time, and distance
Q2) If the HVL in a radiology department is 0.25 mm Pb,then how thick should a shield be to reduce the technologists' exposure to one fourth the incident scatter?
A) 0.125 mm Pb
B) 0.25 mm Pb
C) 0.5 mm Pb
D) 1.0 mm Pb
Q3) The first radiation health physicists worked with _____.
A) the atom bomb
B) x-ray tubes
C) CT scanners
D) nuclear medicine
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Chapter 36: Designing for Radiation Protection
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15681
Sample Questions
Q1) The output intensities of reproduced exposures should not vary more than _____% from each other.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Q2) The leakage radiation limit for x-ray tubes is less than _____ mGy/hr at 1 meter from the tube housing.
A) 0.50
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Q3) The collimator light must be accurate to within _____% of the SID.
A) 10
B) 5
C) 2
D) 1
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Patient Radiation Dose Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which exam does not have one of the highest repeat rates?
A) lumbar spine
B) KUB
C) chest x-ray
D) thoracic spine
Q2) The period of major organogenesis is during the _____ of pregnancy.
A) first 2 weeks
B) second to tenth week
C) 2nd trimester
D) 3rd trimester
Q3) Performing routine x-ray exams without indication is acceptable for _____.
A) preemployment physicals
B) all hospital admissions
C) annual routine physicals
D) none of the above
Q4) Digital mammography results in lower doses than screen/film mammography.
A)True
B)False
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Occupational Radiation Dose Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dose limit for a technologist during pregnancy is _____.
A) 0.05 mSv/mo (5 mrem/mo).
B) 0.5 mSv/mo (50 mrem/mo).
C) 5 mSv/mo (500 mrem/mo).
D) 50 mSv/mo (5000 mrem/mo).
Q2) A protective apron with a thickness of 0.25 mm lead equivalent is the minimum required.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Occupational dose is described as _____.
A) exposure dose
B) threshold dose
C) effective dose
D) dose equivalent
Q4) The lowest occupational exposure of diagnostic x-ray personnel occurs during
A) CT
B) mammography
C) fluoroscopy
D) both A and B
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