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Radiographic Imaging is a foundational course that explores the principles and techniques used to create diagnostic images through the use of X-rays and related modalities. The course covers the physics of X-ray production, image formation, and the factors affecting image quality, such as contrast, resolution, and exposure. Students will learn about different types of radiographic equipment, image receptors, and digital imaging technologies. Emphasis is placed on radiation safety, proper patient positioning, and adherence to protocols to ensure accurate and high-quality diagnostic results. Practical components may include laboratory sessions and hands-on practice to reinforce theoretical knowledge and develop technical skills essential for clinical radiography.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Imaging and Exposure 3rd Edition by Terri L. Fauber
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345 Verified Questions
345 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) X-rays carry a negative charge that causes ionization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Erythema, an early sign of biological damage due to x-ray exposure, is:
A) reddening of the skin.
B) a malignant tumor.
C) a chromosomal change.
D) one of the most serious effects of x-ray exposure.
Answer: A
Q3) The first Nobel Prize for physics was received in 1901 by:
A) Marie Curie.
B) Crookes.
C) Wilhelm Roentgen.
D) Einstein.
Answer: C
Q4) X-rays are invisible.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not classified as inherent filtration?
A) The oil in the transformer
B) The collimator mirror
C) The glass tube envelope
D) The oil surrounding the tube
Answer: A
Q2) Effective compensation for the anode heel effect would involve positioning:
A) the thinnest portion of the part under the anode.
B) the thickest portion of the part under the anode.
C) the thinnest portion of the part under the cathode.
D) b and c
Answer: A
Q3) The focusing cup:
A) surrounds the anode.
B) has a positive charge.
C) has a negative charge.
D) focuses the x-ray beam.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the image intensifier, the light intensities created by the input phosphor are converted to electrons by the:
A) output phosphor.
B) electrostatic lenses.
C) TV monitor.
D) photocathode.
Answer: D
Q2) Compton interactions are more likely to occur in soft tissue as compared to bone.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) _____ results in the process of image formation, whereby the x-ray beam interacts with the anatomic tissue and a portion of the beam strikes the image receptor.
A) Transference
B) Differential absorption
C) Molecular modeling
D) Compensating filtration
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the first radiograph of a foot is done using 4 mAs at 40 inches and a second radiograph is done using 50 inches, how much mAs should be used to maintain density?
A) 1 mAs
B) 2 mAs
C) 6 mAs
D) 12 mAs
Q2) When imaging the thoracic spine, in order to take advantage of the anode heel effect, the most superior portion of the patient's spine should be placed beneath:
A) the anode end of the tube.
B) the cathode end of the tube.
C) the middle of the tube.
D) either end; it doesn't matter when imaging the thoracic spine.
Q3) For a given exposure technique, increasing part thickness decreases radiographic density.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) SID indicators should be accurate within ______ of the SID.
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 5%
D) 10%
Q2) The pinhole camera is a device that is used to measure:
A) SID.
B) OID.
C) focal spot size.
D) resolution.
Q3) When the SID is divided by the SOD, what is the result called?
A) Magnification factor
B) Degree of unsharpness
C) OID
D) Image width
Q4) The misrepresentation of the size of an object is:
A) shape distortion.
B) magnification.
C) foreshortening.
D) elongation.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which grid design is manufactured to match the divergence of the x-ray beam?
A) The parallel grid
B) The crossed grid
C) The linear grid
D) The focused grid
Q2) What type of grid error is seen as a loss of density at the periphery of the image?
A) Stationary grid
B) Upside-down focused grid
C) Off-focus
D) Off-level
Q3) A radiograph that has a fogged appearance has most likely been exposed to which of the following?
A) Scatter radiation
B) Primary radiation
C) Coherent radiation
D) Photoelectric radiation
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Q1) What are the physical imperfections in the emulsion layer of radiographic film called?
A) Silver bromide crystals
B) Silver iodide crystals
C) Sensitivity specks
D) Silver halide crystals
Q2) What is the term specifically used to describe the emission of light during and after external stimulation?
A) Luminescence
B) Phosphorescence
C) Fluorescence
D) Incandescence
Q3) The material used as the CR photostimulable phosphor is:
A) gadolinium oxysulfide with terbium.
B) barium fluorohalide with europium.
C) lanthanum oxybromide with thulium.
D) yttrium oxysulfide with terbium.
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Q1) Stopping the development process takes place during:
A) developing.
B) washing.
C) fixing.
D) drying.
Q2) At what stage does the process of removing unexposed and undeveloped silver halide from the emulsion occur?
A) Developing
B) Fixing
C) Washing
D) Drying
Q3) While in the developer solution, additional electrons are added to the:
A) fixer.
B) silver.
C) sensitivity specks.
D) water.
Q4) To achieve proper replenishment, the film should be placed on the feed tray so that the leading edge is the shorter dimension.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When 50% of the light is transmitted through a film, the optical density (OD) is:
A) 0.0.
B) 0.3.
C) 0.5.
D) 50.
Q2) What is the range of optical density acceptable for base + fog values?
A) 0.10-0.20
B) 0.22-0.26
C) 1.0-1.5
D) 1.8-2.2
Q3) What is the area on the sensitometric curve that represents the minimum level of density?
A) Toe
B) Shoulder
C) Slope
D) Dmax
Q4) The lower the speed exposure point, the faster the film speed.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A patient measuring 26 cm requires 25 mAs at 75 kVp based on a fixed kVp/variable mAs technique chart. What technique should be used for the next patient, who measures 34 cm?
A) 50 mAs at 75 kVp
B) 100 mAs at 75 kVp
C) 25 mAs at 91 kVp
D) 50 mAs at 91 kVp
Q2) Technique charts are still needed when using Automatic Exposure Control (AEC).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a standardized technique chart?
A) SID
B) OID
C) mA
D) kVp
Q4) Optimal kVp values for each anatomic area have been established.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If the detector is directly exposed to the primary beam during a film-screen study, the area of interest will appear:
A) overexposed.
B) underexposed.
C) correctly exposed.
D) to have high contrast.
Q2) Which automatic exposure device works by converting x-ray photons first into light and then into an electronic signal?
A) Phototimer
B) Gas detector
C) Ionization chamber
D) Back-up timer
Q3) Which of the following terms does not belong in the list?
A) Photodiode
B) Ion chamber
C) Ionization chamber
D) mAs readout
Q4) AEC can typically be used with table-top exams.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Image noise in digital imaging is primarily a result of:
A) quantum mottle.
B) low dynamic range.
C) wide window width.
D) postprocessing image enhancement.
Q2) Which of the following digital imaging systems uses a photostimulable phosphor?
A) Digital fluoroscopy
B) Computed radiography
C) Direct conversion DR
D) Charge-coupled device
Q3) As compared to CR, a disadvantage of direct digital radiography is:
A) increased image processing time.
B) lower dynamic range.
C) incompatibility with existing equipment.
D) increased spatial resolution.
Q4) The basic unit of information in a computer is a(n):
A) bit.
B) byte.
C) word.
D) algorithm.

Page 14
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