Radiation Physics for Radiography Review Questions - 1738 Verified Questions

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Radiation Physics for Radiography

Review Questions

Course Introduction

Radiation Physics for Radiography provides a comprehensive foundation in the principles of radiation physics as they pertain to medical imaging. This course covers the nature and properties of ionizing and non-ionizing radiation, the interactions of x-rays with matter, and the mechanisms of x-ray production. Students will learn about radiation units, measurement, and the factors influencing image quality and patient dose. Special emphasis is placed on the practical application of physics concepts to radiographic techniques, radiation protection, and safety standards within clinical settings. This knowledge equips students to understand the scientific principles underlying radiographic technology and to make informed decisions for optimizing diagnostic imaging and minimizing risks.

Recommended Textbook

Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton

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45 Chapters

1738 Verified Questions

1738 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The equation (x+y) <sup>2</sup> can be expressed as:

A)x<sup>2</sup> + 2xy + y<sup>2</sup>

B)2x + 2y

C)x + 2xy + y<sup>2</sup>

D)x<sup>2</sup> + y<sup>2</sup> + xy

Answer: A

Q2) Convert 87.3% to a decimal.

A)0.0873

B)0.873

C)8.73

D)87.3

Answer: B

Q3) Mercury (Hg), a metal, is liquid at room temperature.Its density is 13.6 g/cm<sup>3</sup>.If you have 100 mL of Hg, how many grams do you have?

A)0.136

B)1.36 * 10<sup>-3</sup>

C)136

D)1.36 * 10<sup>3</sup>

Answer: D

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts

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Sample Questions

Q1) can be long wavelengths in kilometers

A)infrared energy

B)gamma rays

C)radio waves

D)ultraviolet energy

E)excitation

F)lambda

G)amplitude

H)velocity

Answer: C

Q2) A period in the periodic table is

A)represented by a column.

B)vertical.

C)the principal quantum number.

D)determined by the valence electrons.

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Electricity

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Sample Questions

Q1) superconductor

A)electron

B)neutron

C)proton

D)binding energy

E)kinetic energy

F)atomic mass

G)atomic number

H)isotope

Answer: C

Q2) When 6.24 x 10<sup>18 </sup>electrons travel in one second producing a joule (j) of work,

A)one volt has been created.

B)one ohm has traveled through the circuit.

C)an ampere of resistance has been created.

D)alternating current has been generated.

Answer: A

Q3) A 25 watt lightbulb operates on 120-volt household voltage.How much current does the lightbulb draw?

Answer: 0.21 amp

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Chapter 4: Electromagnetism

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Sample Questions

Q1) 10,000 gauss

A)magnetic flux

B)spin magnetic moment

C)tesla

D)electromagnet

E)permeability

F)retentivity

G)paramagnetic

H)ferromagnetic

Q2) an electron doper to improve conductance

A)semiconductor

B)diode

C)p-type material

D)n-type material

E)thyristor

F)valve tube

G)arsenic

H)gallium

Q3) List the three ways to induce an electromagnetic field.

Q4) The magnitude of an induced electromagnetic field depends on what four factors?

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Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment

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Sample Questions

Q1) The kVp control is found between the

A)incoming line and the exposure switch.

B)autotransformer and the timer circuit.

C)exposure switch and the step-up transformer.

D)incoming line and the step-down transformer.

Q2) Present-day AEC technology utilizes

A)ionization chamber technology.

B)minimum reaction times as short as 1 ms.

C)a pre-detector AEC chamber position.

D)all of the above

Q3) Which tube suspension system offers the greatest multidirectional movement?

A)overhead tube suspension system

B)floor-to-ceiling tube suspension system

C)floor tube suspension system

D)mobile tube suspension system

Q4) At what point in the x-ray circuit is the rectification circuit located?

A)between the semiconductors and the valve tubes

B)between the step-down transformer and the rheostat

C)between the step-up transformer and the x-ray tube

D)between the thermionic diode tubes and the x-ray machines

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Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube

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Sample Questions

Q1) When radiographing a wedge-shaped anatomical structure such as the femur, the thicker portion of the anatomy should be positioned

A)under the cathode end of the tube.

B)in the exact center of the beam. as it is most intense in the center.

C)off center laterally to negate the heel effect.

D)under the anode side of the tube.

Q2) Metal envelope x-ray tubes are gaining in popularity.Explain some key advantages to a metal housing x-ray tube.

Q3) Which of the following would affect the production of a thermionic cloud?

A)filament diameter

B)filament length

C)filament temperature

D)all of the above

Q4) List the three functions of the x-ray tube anode.

Q5) Tungsten is the metal of choice for the source of x-ray photons because of its

A)high atomic number.

B)low melting point.

C)low mass number.

D)low cost.

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Chapter 7: X-Ray Production

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bremsstrahlung interactions may occur only when the incident electron interacts with

A)an inner-shell electron.

B)an outer-shell electron.

C)the force field around the nucleus.

D)the nuclear force within the nucleus.

Q2) Characteristic interactions may occur only when the incident electron interacts with A)an inner-shell electron.

B)an outer-shell electron.

C)the force field of the nucleus.

D)protons within the nucleus.

Q3) At the end of the characteristic cascade, the ____ shell is missing an electron.

A)innermost

B)K

C)outermost

D)characteristic

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Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment

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Sample Questions

Q1) In air, alpha particles can travel

A)less than 1 mm.

B)5 cm.

C)5 m.

D)5 km.

Q2) For x-rays and gamma rays approximately ____ of the biological effects on tissue are the result of indirect actions.

A)20 percent

B)40 percent

C)70 percent

D)100 percent

Q3) One joule of energy absorbed in each kilogram of absorbing material defines the A)sievert. B)kerma.

C)becquerel.

D)gray.

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Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and

Personnel

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Sample Questions

Q1) When no threshold dose for radiation exists, the effect is known as A)stochastic.

B)nonstochastic.

C)deterministic.

D)both b and c

Q2) The use of a radiographic grid when performing a femur radiograph will result in

A)a small decrease in patient dose.

B)an increase in patient dose.

C)no change to the patient dose.

D)a large decrease in patient dose.

Q3) All of the following would be effective structural protective barrier materials EXCEPT A)Bakelite.

B)lead-lined drywall.

C)12-inch thick solid concrete.

D)lead impregnated acrylic polymer.

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11

Chapter 10: Filtration

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Sample Questions

Q1) The problem of unequal subject radiographic density is solved by a A)Thoraeus filter.

B)compensation filter.

C)K-edge filter.

D)grid.

Q2) Which term best describes the filtration that occurs as the primary beam passes through the glass window of the x-ray tube?

A)total

B)inherent

C)added

D)scatter

Q3) If the half-value layer of diagnostic radiographic equipment is too low, it may be corrected by

A)increasing the primary beam filtration.

B)decreasing the primary beam filtration.

C)decreasing the kVp.

D)increasing the mAs.

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12

Chapter 11: The Prime Factors

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Sample Questions

Q1) An acceptable radiograph was taken using 20 mAs at 70 kVp at a distance of 40 inches.A second radiograph is requested at 72 inches.What mAs should be used to produce this radiograph with a 72-inch distance?

Q2) An acceptable radiograph was taken using 40 mAs at 80 kVp at a distance of 60 inches.A second radiograph is requested at 40 inches.What mAs should be used to produce this radiograph with a 40-inch distance?

Q3) Kilovoltage is the primary controlling factor of A)radiographic film density.

B)radiographic film contrast.

C)beam quantity.

D)none of the above

Q4) If kVp is doubled, the amount of x-ray photons created approximately increases A)twofold.

B)threefold.

C)fourfold.

D)eightfold.

Q5) Given 5 mAs and a milliamperage of 200, calculate the exposure time.

Q6) Given 50 mA and an exposure time of 0.50 second, calculate the mAs.

Q7) Given 25 mAs and a milliamperage of 100, calculate the exposure time.

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Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) When an electron from an outer shell fills a vacancy in an inner shell,

A)the total energy of the electron increases.

B)the electron increases its mass.

C)a photon is released.

D)all of the above

Q2) In the human body, ____ is the predominant interaction through most of the diagnostic x-ray range.

A)Compton scattering

B)coherent scatter

C)photoelectric interactions

D)photodisintegration

Q3) no loss in energy

A)60 kVp

B)shaped contact

C)focal spot size

D)distance (SID)

E)44-48 inches

F)AP supine abdomen position

G)oblique projection of the abdomen

H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp

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Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose

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Sample Questions

Q1) has no impact upon patient dose

A)60 kVp

B)shaped contact

C)focal spot size

D)distance (SID)

E)44-48 inches

F)AP supine abdomen position

G)oblique projection of the abdomen

H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp

Q2) Patient entrance skin exposure decreases as

A)source-to-image receptor distance (SID) decreases.

B)SID increases.

C)source-to-object distance (SOD) decreases.

D)object-to-image receptor distance (OID) increases.

Q3) When patient SID or SOD increases,

A)patient ESE decreases.

B)patient ESE increases.

C)patient ESE increases by the square of the distance.

D)there is no relationship between ESE and distance.

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Vision and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) All radiographic images are missing the critical diagnostic element of A)depth.

B)length.

C)width.

D)none of the above

Q2) Rods function best in which type of light?

A)yellow wavelength light

B)dim light levels

C)red wavelength light

D)bright, intense light levels

Q3) The visual phenomenon involving the perception of extremely small or faint details is termed the

A)Adler effect.

B)boundary effect.

C)threshold detection.

D)Mach effect.

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Beam Restriction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is placed between the patient and the image receptor to absorb scatter radiation?

A)radiographic grid

B)AEC detector

C)collimator

D)cylinder

Q2) Placing a lead blocker adjacent to an obese patient's anatomy during a lateral lumbar spine radiograph

A)is unnecessary with today's digital receptors.

B)will improve image quality.

C)will reduce exposure to the patient.

D)will reduce exposure to the radiographer.

Q3) Scatter radiation in radiography is produced during A)Compton interactions.

B)photoelectric effect interactions.

C)coherent or classical interactions.

D)an annihilation interaction.

Q4) Bone absorbs more radiation and produces more scatter than soft tissue.

A)True

B)False

Page 17

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Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the least attenuator of the x-ray beam?

A)pneumonated lung

B)pericardial fat

C)psoas muscle

D)perirenal fat

Q2) All of the following are related EXCEPT A)air.

B)barium.

C)fat.

D)bone.

Q3) The patient has an impact on all the properties that affect radiographic quality. A)True

B)False

Q4) The relationship between radiographic contrast and the patient is termed subject contrast.

A)True

B)False

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18

Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem

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Sample Questions

Q1) As radiation passes through the patient, it undergoes

A)attenuation.

B)absorption.

C)scatter and secondary interactions.

D)all of the above

Q2) Which of the following pathologies is not considered an additive condition?

A)atelectasis

B)pneumonia

C)emphysema

D)empyema

Q3) As a patient is undergoing a colon examination, you notice under fluoroscopy the presence of colonic diverticuli in the descending and rectosigmoid colon.As you prepare for follow-up radiographs, you would determine your exposure technique and

A)increase the mAs for this condition.

B)decrease the mAs for this condition.

C)make no technique changes for this condition.

D)ask the radiologist if this is an additive or destructive condition and adjust technique accordingly..

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19

Chapter 18: The Grid

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Sample Questions

Q1) A satisfactory abdominal radiograph is produced using a 12:1 grid (grid-conversion factor [GCF] = 5.5), 30 mAs, and 85 kVp.A second film is requested using a 16:1 grid (GCF = 6.75).What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph with comparable radiographic density?

Q2) undesirable, superimposed lines on CR image

A)grid frequency

B)grid ratio

C)contrast improvement factor

D)focussed grid

E)air-gap technique

F)Moire effect

G)grid cut-off

H)convergence point

I)Hollis Potter

J)Gustav Bucky

Q3) A grid absorbs

A)light.

B)incident electrons.

C)scatter electrons.

D)scatter radiation.

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Chapter 19: Radiographic Film

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the Gurney-Mott theory, the incident photon interacts with one of the halides and ejects a/an

A)electron.

B)x-ray photon.

C)light photon.

D)sensitivity speck.

Q2) The gelatin is used to

A)form the silver halide crystal lattice.

B)react with the silver halide crystals.

C)distribute the crystals evenly over the surface of the film.

D)form a rigid base for the emulsion.

Q3) The adhesive layer is intended to glue the

A)crystals to the base.

B)emulsion to the base.

C)gelatin to the crystals.

D)film to the phosphor screen.

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21

Chapter 20: Film Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) The washing process is used to remove

A)developer only.

B)fixer only.

C)heavy densities only.

D)developer and fixer.

Q2) Fixer solution becomes saturated with ____ ions.

A)bromide

B)silver

C)sodium

D)copper

Q3) The primary chemical agents in the developer are called ____ agents.

A)reducing

B)clearing

C)circulation

D)replenishment

Q4) Developer has an ____ pH, while the fixer has an ____ pH.

A)acidic; acidic

B)acidic; alkaline

C)alkaline; acidic

D)alkaline; alkaline

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Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which point on the D log E curve represents the point where all the silver halide crystals have a full complement of silver atoms?

A)toe

B)shoulder

C)straight line portion

D)D<sub>max</sub>

Q2) Where on the D log E curve is the majority of diagnostic information found?

A)toe

B)shoulder

C)straight line portion

D)D<sub>max</sub>

Q3) Film may experience fog in the form of A)heat.

B)light.

C)radiation.

D)all of the above

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Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen

Combinations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Intensifying screens are used to

A)reduce patient radiation dose.

B)produce light photons.

C)amplify the incoming x-ray beam.

D)all of the above

Q2) non-clinical, extraneous information on the final image

A)CaWO<sub>4</sub>

B)gadolinium oxysulfide:terbium activated

C)fluorescence

D)conversion efficiency

E)RS 100

F)MTF

G)artifact

H)phosphorescence

I)increases quantum mottle

J)line spread function

K)RS 400

L)lp/mm

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Chapter 23: Digital Radiography

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Sample Questions

Q1) In CR technology, preprocessing of data includes A)histogram analysis.

B)gray scale analysis.

C)exposure data recognition (EDR).

D)all of the above

Q2) When changing exposure technique from 9 mAs to 18 mAs using computed radiography, the radiographer should expect

A)an increase in S number from 350 to 475.

B)an EI number increase from 1500 to 1800.

C)a visible change in radiographic image density.

D)all of the above

Q3) In digital image processing, the digital data set is arranged into a histograph distribution in order to determine the A)display matrix.

B)exposure index.

C)values of interest (VOI).

D)both b and c

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Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems

Pacs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A ____ connects all the computers in a system.

A)WAN

B)DICOM

C)LAN

D)CCD

Q2) Production of a grainy, reticulated image that cannot be corrected in digital post-processing is the result of

A)failure to use a high enough mAs setting.

B)failure to use a high enough kVp setting.

C)failure to use the correct algorithm.

D)failure to use the proper SID.

Q3) As a result of film digitizers,

A)hard-copy analog films can be scanned into digital format.

B)digitized images can be placed into a PACS.

C)digitized images can be networked with other DICOM images.

D)all of the above

Q4) What is the anticipated file size for a single cardiac cath acquisition of 20 seconds at 15 fps with a digital matrix of 760 x 512 x10?

Page 26

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Chapter 25: The Imaging Process

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Sample Questions

Q1) What process is used to create a hard copy of digital images?

A)laser

B)DICOM formatting

C)wet mounting

D)You can't create hard copies of digital images.

Q2) Upon analysis of a chest radiograph taken on a female patient, the radiographer notices that there is an uneven radiographic density over the lung bases.One lung base is significantly underexposed compared to the other.In an effort to determine the possible cause(s), a logical strategy to take would be to

A)inspect the AEC detectors and retake the image.

B)retake the image on expiration.

C)ask the patient if she has had a previous breast surgery.

D)make a note for the radiologist that you cannot explain the opacification, as the patient is asymptomatic.

Q3) Image quality is primarily the domain of the

A)x-ray service engineer.

B)administrator.

C)radiographer.

D)physicist.

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure

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Q1) A radiograph of the forearm is produced using 4 mA at 55 kVp.What kVp would be required to double the exposure?

Q2) require an increase in mAs as ratio increases

A)mAs

B)kVp

C)density maintenance formula

D)radiographic grids

E)15% rule

F)anode heel effect

G)focal spot size

H)recorded detail

I)EI value

J)visibility of detail

Q3) If a satisfactory PA chest radiograph is obtained with 4 mAs at 72 in., what mAs is required to maintain the same density at 60 in.?

Q4) If a radiograph using 50 mA (400 mA at 0.125 sec.) produced a radiograph with satisfactory density, what new mA should be used at 0.25 sec.?

Q5) If 80 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.025 sec.produce a satisfactory radiograph, what mAs was used?

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Chapter 27: Contrast

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Q1) used to calculate slope of the H and D curve

A)average gradient

B)long scale contrast

C)Compton interactions

D)low contrast

E)short scale contrast

F)high contrast

G)photoelectric interactions

H)subject contrast

Q2) The difference between two adjacent densities is

A)recorded detail.

B)quantum mottle.

C)radiographic contrast.

D)distortion.

Q3) Which of the choices below does not increase contrast?

A)increasing grid ratio

B)increasing the amount of irradiated tissue

C)decreasing filtration

D)decreasing kVp

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Chapter 28: Recorded Detail

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Sample Questions

Q1) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 1 in.

Q2) switching from 10:1 grid to 6:1 grid

A)PSF

B)quantum noise

C)resolution increase

D)MTF

E)MF

F)LSF

G)aliasing

H)loss of visibility of detail

Q3) A pixel bit depth of 2<sup>16 </sup>will demonstrate _______ shades of gray

A)16

B)32

C)65,536

D)none of the above

Q4) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 40 in.distance, and OID of 2 in.

Q5) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 6 in.

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Chapter 29: Distortion

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Sample Questions

Q1) If an object is measured as 4 in.in diameter on the image and 4 in.from the film, what is the actual size of the object if the SID is 40 in.?

Q2) Which of the following occurs when the tube or the image receptor is not properly aligned?

A)elongation

B)magnification

C)foreshortening

D)minification

Q3) If an object measures 2 cm and the image measures 4 cm, what is the percent magnification of the object?

Q4) Distortion is a misrepresentation of A)size only.

B)shape only.

C)size and shape.

D)detail.

Q5) If an object is measured as 4 in.in diameter on the image and 2 in.from the film, what is the actual size of the object if the SID is 40 in.?

Q6) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 72 in.and the OID is 2 in.

Q7) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 40 in.and the SOD is 25 in.

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Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the electronic timer of a high frequency generator is suspect,

A)a standard spinning top test should be performed.

B)the timer should be compared with a stop watch.

C)an exposure time modifier should be calculated and incorporated into future exposures.

D)a qualified service engineer should be called.

Q2) A photographic problem with visibility of detail would be likely due to

A)improper SID.

B)improper OID.

C)inadequate kVp.

D)improper focal spot selection.

Q3) recorded detail problem

A)improper patient preparation

B)an S# of 50

C)film-screen contact problem

D)consistently low contrast images

E)image cut-off along the long dimension of a cassette

F)presence of grid lines on image

G)white specks on final images

H)hypothesis

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Chapter 31: Quality Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) minimum SSD for portable fluoroscopic units

A)synchronous motor spinning top

B)2% of SID

C)DQE

D)MQSA

E)12 inches

F)S:N ratio

G)exposure reproducibility

H)15 inches

Q2) Installation and acceptance testing of equipment is the responsibility of the

A)radiation physicist.

B)radiology supervisor.

C)radiology equipment vendor.

D)staff radiographer.

Q3) Exposure time settings should be maintained within ____ of the labeled setting.

A)+ 5%

B)+ 10%

C)+ 15%

D)0%

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts

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Sample Questions

Q1) When using a variable kVp exposure technique system, A)a mAs value is identified for each body part and thickness.

B)small changes in patient thickness can be accommodated with small changes in mAs.

C)kVp varies as a function of patient thickness.

D)all of the above

Q2) When AEC systems are used, the selection of ____ is eliminated.

A)mA

B)exposure time

C)kVp

D)detectors

Q3) Technique systems function best when a single variable is permitted to vary.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Fixed kVp systems produce more scatter radiation than other systems. A)True

B)False

Q5) Once a technique chart has been established, the process is terminated.

A)True

B)False

34

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Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls

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Sample Questions

Q1) +2 used when N would have been optimum

A)phototiming

B)minimum response time

C)backup mAs

D)underexposed image

E)overexposed image

F)density controls

G)all three detectors

H)center detector only

Q2) Automatic exposure devices provide a diagnostic quality radiograph when the

A)anatomy of interest is positioned directly above the appropriate ionization chambers.

B)proper time is set.

C)correct focal spot is selected.

D)beam filtration is minimum.

Q3) Most AEC consoles permit activation of

A)all three cells simultaneously.

B)all three cells in any combination.

C)the outer cells when the center cell is inactivated.

D)the center cell and either outer cell.

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) A radiograph is produced at 10 mAs with a three-phase, high frequency generator.The film is repeated using a single phase,2-pulse generator.Calculate the new mAs.

Q2) A radiograph is produced at 10 mAs with a single-phase, 2-pulse generator.The film is repeated using a high frequency generator with a three-phase source of power..Calculate the new mAs.

Q3) A radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at a 40 in.distance.Calculate the new distance if 25 mAs is used.

Q4) A radiographic examination has been taken using the following exposure conditions:

400 mA, 70 ms, 80 kVp, 1,2 mm fs, 200 RS receptor, 12: grid, 44" SID

To increase the contrast, the most appropriate choice would be to

A)increase the mA to 500 and decrease time to 56 ms.

B)switch to the 0.8 mm focal spot.

C)switch to a 400 RS receptor and decrease the mAs.

D)switch to a 16:1 grid and increase mAs.

Q5) A radiograph is produced at 10 mAs with a high frequency generator.The film is repeated using a single-phase, 2-pulse generator.Calculate the new mAs.

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Page 36

Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography

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Sample Questions

Q1) Proper tube-grid alignment is important during ____ radiography.

A)mobile

B)stationary

C)portable

D)all of the above

Q2) During optimal mobile radiography of the chest, the recommended SID is ____ inches.

A)72

B)56

C)40

D)36

Q3) The more advanced, full-power mobile units use ____ energy for a power supply.

A)solar

B)battery

C)thermal

D)alternating current

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Page 37

Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Digital fluoroscopy is typically

A)a progressive, pulsed fluoroscopic exposure.

B)capable of producing higher contrast images.

C)capable of 256 shades of gray through 8-bit processing.

D)all of the above

Q2) Mobile fluoroscopic systems are different from fixed systems in that they

A)do not have a primary barrier.

B)do not use video displays.

C)have separate fluoroscopy and radiographic tubes.

D)have a minimum SOD of 12 inches.

Q3) The most commonly used fluoroscopic viewing system is A)mirrors.

B)real-time video monitors.

C)dry laser images.

D)videotape.

Q4) The input screen is ____ in shape.

A)oval

B)elliptical

C)concave

D)convex

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Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the movement of the tube and the image receptor are along a straight line, the tomographic motion is classified as A)linear.

B)circular.

C)elliptical.

D)trispiral.

Q2) should not exceed the section thickness

A)zonogram

B)panoramic tomography

C)40 degrees

D)focal plane

E)exposure amplitude

F)10 degrees or more

G)section interval

H)maximum blur

Q3) Terms used to refer to the tomographic image include A)cut.

B)section.

C)slice.

D)all of the above

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Chapter 38: Mammography

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Sample Questions

Q1) The anode material of choice for a mammography machine is

A)lead.

B)tungsten.

C)molybdenum.

D)none of the above

Q2) 24-30 inches

A)beryllium

B)tungsten

C)optimum kVp range

D)magnification imaging

E)microcalcifications

F)molybdenum

G)17-20 kev

H)Companie Generale de Radiographique

I)mammography SID

J)developed a dry process for mammography

K)rhodium

L)MQSA

M)NEXT

N)expected to become the mammography gold standard

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Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry

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Sample Questions

Q1) General radiography is ineffective in measuring bone loss since as much as ______ of bone mass must be lost to be radiographically detected.

A)15%

B)30%

C)40%

D)60%

Q2) Quality control procedures with DXA systems

A)are done monthly.

B)utilize a standardized hip phantom for measurements.

C)are completed after each patient exam.

D)none of the above

Q3) DXA scanning of the forearm

A)is preferred for suspected hyperparathyroidism.

B)scans the non-dominant forearm.

C)includes the proximal row of carpal bones.

D)all of the above

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Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Digital image receptors used in angiography

A)require a CCD for image capture.

B)are composed of selenium detector material.

C)acquire the images digitally in the detector material.

D)permit post-processing of images, unlike analog image intensifier detectors.

Q2) How many heat units are generated by a series of 10 exposures using 75 kVp, 300 mA, 0.15 sec.on a high frequency unit?

Q3) The amount of heat load an anode can tolerate for a sequence of exposures is known as

A)short-term loading ability.

B)continuous heat-loading ability.

C)tube-rate loading ability.

D)dose-dependent loading.

Q4) Vascular imaging generators should have the capacity to deliver ____ mA.

A)50

B)100

C)300

D)1,000

Q5) How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 75 kVp, 400 mA, 150 ms sec.using a HF generator?

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Chapter 41: Computed Tomography

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Sample Questions

Q1) The localization image produced by the CT scanner is technically called a/an

A)volume rendered image.

B)scout film.

C)scanogram.

D)FOV image.

Q2) The CTDI dose measurement

A)is slice-based.

B)takes into account the total amount of irradiated tissue.

C)represents the average total dose to the patient during the examination.

D)measures entrance skin exposure (ESE).

Q3) A ____ artifact is caused by the presence of metal in the patient.

A)beam-hardening

B)ring

C)star

D)streak

Q4) CT image data is acquired in the

A)coronal plane and reconstructed in the axial plane .

B)transverse plane and reconstructed in any plane.

C)sagittal plane .

D)axial plane and reconstructed in the coronal plane.

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Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging

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Sample Questions

Q1) unit of magnetic field strength

A)Tesla

B)active shimming

C)resistive magnet

D)SE pulse sequence

E)gyromagnetic ratio

F)Faraday cage

G)voxel

H)cryogen

I)Larmor frequency

J)gradient coils

K)TE

L)precession

M)T<sub>2</sub> relaxation

N)GBCA

O)B<sub>0</sub>

P)NSF

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Page 44

Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine

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Sample Questions

Q1) In order to achieve nuclear stability, a radionuclide may emit

A)beta particles.

B)gamma photons.

C)positrons.

D)all of the above

Q2) Historically, the discoverer of radioactivity was

A)Pierre and Marie Curie.

B)Michael Faraday.

C)Henry Becquerel.

D)Albert Einstein.

Q3) When one considers the many clinical applications of nuclear medicine studies, perhaps the singlemost distinction between radionuclide studies and radiographic studies centers around the fact that

A)nuclear studies have higher resolution and less dose to the patient.

B)CT and radiographic studies are more invasive to the patient.

C)radionuclide studies are generally functional or metabolic studies.

D)nuclear medicine exams are more economical and quicker to complete.

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Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The radiotherapy prescription includes

1)treatment field angles

2)protraction period

3)radiotherapist designated to deliver treatments

4)total dose administered

5)fractionalized dosages

6)patient's mental altitude

7)treatment techniques

8)treatment fields and dimensions

9)patient side effects

A)1, 3, 4, 5, 7, and 8

B)1, 2 4, 6, 8, and 9

C)1, 2, 4, 5, 7, and 8

D)2, 4, 5, 7, 8, and 9

Q2) Radiotherapy treatments

A)are treated as prescriptions.

B)require a physician's order.

C)start with a consultation.

D)all of the above

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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography

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Sample Questions

Q1) High frequency transducers have

A)better resolution and less penetration.

B)better resolution and better penetration.

C)lower resolution and less penetration.

D)lower resolution and better penetration.

Q2) The relationship between ultrasound beam intensity

A)and power is inverse.

B)and power is direct, proportionately.

C)and amplitude is nonexistent.

D)and the transducer is unrelated

Q3) The ultrasound transducer has the ability to send out sound waves and listen for returning echoes.The time the transducer is sending signals is termed its A)capacitance.

B)echo response time.

C)duty factor.

D)use factor.

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