Radiation Physics Exam Practice
Tests
Course Introduction
Radiation Physics is a comprehensive course that explores the fundamental principles and applications of radiation in various scientific and technological contexts. The course covers the nature and types of ionizing and non-ionizing radiation, radioactive decay processes, interactions of radiation with matter, and methods of radiation detection and measurement. Students also examine the biological effects of radiation, radiation safety protocols, and practical applications such as medical imaging, cancer therapy, nuclear reactors, and industrial uses. Through theoretical frameworks and practical examples, this course forms a foundation for understanding the role of radiation in modern science, healthcare, and industry.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Imaging and Exposure 3rd Edition by Terri L. Fauber
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12 Chapters
345 Verified Questions
345 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Radiation and Its Discovery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26639
Sample Questions
Q1) X-rays have which of the following properties?
A) Electrical properties
B) Magnetic properties
C) Chemical properties
D) a and b
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is a correct description of the relationship between the wavelength and the frequency of the x-ray photon?
A) Wavelength and frequency are directly proportional.
B) Wavelength and frequency are inversely related by the square root of lambda.
C) Frequency and wavelength are inversely related.
D) Wavelength and frequency have no relationship to each other.
Answer: C
Q3) When were x-rays discovered?
A) October 8, 1985
B) November 8, 1895
C) January 23, 1896
D) August 15, 1902
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The X-Ray Beam
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maximum speed the rotating anode will most likely achieve is _____ rpm.
A) 3200
B) 5000
C) 10,000
D) 20,000
Answer: C
Q2) What is the term used to describe the resistance to letting more electrons escape from a heated filament?
A) Saturation emission
B) Space charge effect
C) Electrostatic attraction
D) Thermionic emission
Answer: B
Q3) The focusing cup:
A) surrounds the anode.
B) has a positive charge.
C) has a negative charge.
D) focuses the x-ray beam.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Radiographic Image Formation
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compton interactions are more likely to occur in soft tissue as compared to bone.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) When the entering x-ray photon loses energy and changes its path of travel as a result of interacting with an atom, the interaction is known as the:
A) compensating effect.
B) photoelectric interaction.
C) characteristic effect.
D) Compton effect.
Answer: D
Q3) As compared to the image at the input phosphor, the image at the output phosphor of the image intensifier is:
A) brighter and smaller.
B) dimmer and smaller.
C) brighter and larger.
D) dimmer and larger.
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Radiographic Image Quality: Photographic Properties
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assuming all produce appropriate density images, which of the following would be the best exposure technique choice when performing a chest radiograph on an infant?
A) Use 40 ms exposure time.
B) Use 60 ms exposure time.
C) Use 200 ms exposure time.
D) Use at least 80 kVp.
Q2) Which of the following changes will result in increased density with no change in contrast?
A) Increased SID
B) Decreased SID
C) Increased collimation
D) Decreased collimation
Q3) When imaging the thoracic spine, in order to take advantage of the anode heel effect, the most superior portion of the patient's spine should be placed beneath:
A) the anode end of the tube.
B) the cathode end of the tube.
C) the middle of the tube.
D) either end; it doesn't matter when imaging the thoracic spine.
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Chapter 5: Radiographic Image Quality: Geometric Properties
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the image size measures 4.6 inches and the magnification factor is 1.42, what is the size of the object?
A) 2.43 inches
B) 3.24 inches
C) 5.63 inches
D) 6.53 inches
Q2) What is the geometric unsharpness when the focal spot measures 0.8 mm, the SID is 40 inches (100 cm), and the OID is 2 inches (5 cm)?
A) 0.042 mm
B) 0.42 mm
C) 4.2 inches
D) 4.2 cm
Q3) Providing clear instructions to the patient is a primary method for reducing unsharpness due to:
A) shape distortion.
B) motion.
C) geometric properties.
D) size distortion.
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Chapter 6: Scatter Control
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The results of the collimator alignment quality control test should demonstrate that the alignment is within 5% of the SID used.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a digital image is produced at 40" SID using a focused grid (focal range 66-76"), the image will appear:
A) dark.
B) light.
C) very gray.
D) mottled.
Q3) Which grid design is manufactured to match the divergence of the x-ray beam?
A) The parallel grid
B) The crossed grid
C) The linear grid
D) The focused grid
Q4) What would be the most difficult grid to use?
A) Focused linear grid
B) Parallel linear grid
C) Cross-hatched grid
D) Low ratio parallel linear grid
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Chapter 7: Image Receptors
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The front or tube side of radiographic cassettes should be made of a material that:
A) absorbs most of the x-ray beam.
B) reduces scatter production.
C) filters the beam.
D) absorbs very little of the x-ray beam.
Q2) What is achieved when the color of light emitted by an intensifying screen matches the color of light a film responds to?
A) Chromatic spectrometry
B) Orthochromatic sensitivity
C) Panchromatic matching
D) Spectral matching
Q3) The Gurney-Mott theory is associated with:
A) CR latent image formation.
B) film latent image formation.
C) DR latent image formation.
D) rare-earth phosphor intensifying screens.
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Chapter 8: Radiographic Film Processing
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What removes excess moisture from the film prior to its entrance into the dryer?
A) Planetary roller
B) Solar roller
C) Squeegee roller
D) Guide shoe
Q2) Which of the following is a minus-density artifact not due to processing chemicals?
A) Static
B) Fog
C) Half-moon mark
D) Fingerprints
Q3) At what stage does the process of removing unexposed and undeveloped silver halide from the emulsion occur?
A) Developing
B) Fixing
C) Washing
D) Drying
Q4) Radiographs should be dried to remove at least 95% of their moisture.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sensitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has an inverse relationship with contrast?
A) Density
B) Average gradient
C) Latitude
D) Speed
Q2) When the optical density increases by 0.3, the percentage of light transmitted through the film:
A) decreases by a factor of 2.
B) increases by a factor or 2.
C) increases by a factor of 4.
D) remains the same.
Q3) The measurement of average gradient is the slope of the straight-line portion of the curve between:
A) 0.25 and 2.0 OD.
B) B+F and 2.0 OD.
C) 0.25 and B+F OD.
D) 0.25 plus B+F and 2.0 plus B+F OD.
Q4) The lower the speed exposure point, the faster the film speed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Exposure Factor Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the appropriate change in kVp when using a variable kVp/fixed mAs technique chart for a 1 cm change in tissue thickness?
A) 2 kVp
B) 4 kVp
C) 6 kVp
D) 10 kVp
Q2) What is the purpose of a technique chart?
A) To decrease patient exposure by always using the highest kVp required
B) To ensure consistent image quality
C) To reduce repeats due to technique error and, in turn, reduce patient exposure
D) b and c
Q3) Which of the following is/are true regarding development of an effective technique chart?
A) The processor(s) must be consistent.
B) The equipment must be calibrated.
C) The equipment must be from the same manufacturer.
D) a and b
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Chapter 11: Automatic Exposure Control
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the sensor located in an automatic exposure device with a gas-filled chamber?
A) In front of the patient
B) Behind the Bucky tray
C) In front of the image receptor
D) on the table-top
Q2) What is the purpose of setting a backup time/mAs?
A) To prevent excessive exposure of the patient
B) To make certain the contrast is acceptable if the chosen kVp is too low
C) To make certain the density is acceptable if the patient moves
D) To prevent the selection of the wrong detector
Q3) If the detector is directly exposed to the primary beam during a film-screen study, the area of interest will appear:
A) overexposed.
B) underexposed.
C) correctly exposed.
D) to have high contrast.
Q4) AEC can typically be used with table-top exams.
A)True
B)False
13
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Chapter 12: Digital Imaging
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many lines would an ideal video monitor for digital radiography have?
A) 525
B) 1024
C) 1050
D) 2000
Q2) What is the matrix of the digital image composed of?
A) Voxels
B) Pixels
C) Grains
D) Solutes
Q3) With digital imaging, using twice the needed mAs will result in an image with _____ density/brightness and _____ patient exposure.
A) appropriate, excessive
B) excessive, excessive
C) excessive, appropriate
D) appropriate, appropriate
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Page 14