Radiation Oncology Technology
Test Bank
Course Introduction
Radiation Oncology Technology explores the principles, techniques, and clinical applications involved in the use of ionizing radiation to treat cancer and other diseases. The course covers topics such as radiation physics, radiation biology, treatment planning, patient positioning, quality assurance, and safety protocols. Students will gain practical knowledge of the operation of linear accelerators, treatment simulation, dose calculation, and image-guided radiation therapy. Emphasis is placed on the collaborative roles of radiation technologists within the healthcare team, ethical considerations, and strategies for minimizing radiation exposure to healthy tissues while maximizing treatment effectiveness.
Recommended Textbook
Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy 4th Edition by Washington
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38 Chapters
954 Verified Questions
954 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cancer: An Overview
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Sample Questions
Q1) Injecting monoclonal antibodies is an example of which type of treatment?
A) Surgery
B) Radiation therapy
C) Chemotherapy
D) Immunotherapy
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following make(s)for an effective screening examination?
A) Specific
B) Sensitive
C) Cost-effective
D) Accurate
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q3) Which of the following biopsy methods results in the removal of the entire tumor?
A) Fine needle aspiration
B) Core needle
C) Incisional
D) Excisional
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Ethics and Legal Considerations of Cancer Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the radiation therapist's practice standards, a radiation therapist should meet certain levels of which of the following?
A) Clinical performance
B) Quality performance
C) Professional performance
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Jeremy Bentham and John Mill are most closely associated with which ethical theory?
A) Communitarianism
B) Egoism
C) Natural law ethics
D) Utilitarianism
Answer: D
Q3) Who is most closely associated with clarification of values?
A) Immanuel Kant
B) Louis Rath
C) Elisabeth Kübler-Ross
D) John Mill
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Principles of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of the staging system for cancer is which of the following?
A) To evaluate the degree of differentiation of tumor
B) To estimate the prognosis of the patient
C) To evaluate the degrees of malignancy
D) To estimate the geographical extent of disease
Answer: D
Q2) When was the microscope introduced?
A) Sixteenth century
B) Seventeenth century
C) Eighteenth century
D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q3) Characteristics of malignant tumors include all except which of the following?
A) They have rapid growth.
B) They are encapsulated.
C) They metastasize frequently.
D) There is frequent vessel invasion.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Overview of Radiobiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does oxygen retention affect radiosensitivity?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) No change
D) Varies by tissue
Q2) The TD 50/5 for the optic nerve is approximately _____ Gy.
A) 25
B) 35
C) 50
D) 65
Q3) Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
A) Adenine
B) Cytosine
C) Thymine
D) Uracil
Q4) Which of the following tissues is least radiosensitive?
A) Bone
B) Kidney
C) Ocular lens
D) Colon
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Chapter 5: Detection and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are parts of the medical record?
I.Lab results
II.Medical history
III.Simulation and treatment related images
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
Q2) The American Cancer Society strongly recommends mass screening for all except which of the following?
A) Breast cancer
B) Lung cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Colorectal cancer
Q3) Lymphadenopathy in the axilla area could be an indication of cancer spread from which of the following?
A) Breast
B) Larynx
C) Lung
D) Thyroid
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Chapter 6: Medical Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because of the mobility of the prostate, which imaging modality is often used at the time of treatment to identify the position of the prostate?
A) Fluoroscopy
B) Ultrasound
C) MRI
D) Nuclear medicine
Q2) A quality radiograph taken at 100 cm using 20 mAs could be replicated at 50 cm using which of the following?
A) 15 mAs
B) 10 mAs
C) 7 mAs
D) 5 mAs
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of the photostimulatable phosphor plate over conventional x-ray image production?
A) Less radiating per exposure
B) Postprocessing manipulation of density and contrast
C) No need for radiographic grids
D) Higher spatial resolution
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8
Chapter 7: Treatment Delivery Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using multileaf collimation, which concerns need to be evaluated?
A) Penumbra between the leaves and the transmission of the leaves
B) Movement of MLCs during the treatment give variations in dose that need to be evaluated along with penumbra between the leaves
C) Movement of MLCs during treatment and interleaf transmission leakage
D) Penumbra at the end of the leaves and interleaf transmission leakage
Q2) Which of the following is not found inside the head of a linear accelerator?
A) Ion chambers
B) Target
C) Accelerator structure
D) Bending magnet
E) Scattering foil
Q3) A bending magnet in an accelerator may be used to do which of the following?
A) Help deflect microwave power
B) Deflect (bend)the electron beam
C) Gather stray electrons together in a bunch
D) Gather random paper clips
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9
Chapter 8: Treatment Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bolus comes in many forms and has many applications.Which of the following is not a material that bolus would be made from?
A) Vaseline gauze
B) Water-filled balloon
C) Superflab
D) Aluminum covered with paraffin wax
Q2) Which of the following is a series of documentation and activities performed with the purpose of optimizing patient care?
A) Quality control
B) Quality auditing
C) Quality assurance (QA)program
D) Quality of life
Q3) Where would the radiation therapist find the information regarding the status of the treatment unit?
A) Console
B) Interlock system of the unit
C) Patient record
D) Cameras in the room
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Radiation Oncology Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infection cycle includes all except which of the following?
A) Transmission
B) Incubation
C) Natural immunity
D) Convalescence
Q2) When should Standard Precautions be used?
A) When exposure to blood is likely
B) When exposure to saliva is likely
C) During all patient care procedures
D) During patient procedures requiring sterile asepsis
Q3) The person to whom the infectious agent is passed is a(n)_____________.
A) fomite
B) host
C) pathogenic
D) iatrogenic
Q4) CDC stands for the _________________________.
A) Cancer Diagnostic Centers
B) Center for Diagnosis of Cancer
C) Cancer Domain Center
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
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Chapter 10: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ pain is the persistence of pain for longer than 3 months with a less well-defined onset.Its cause may not be known.
A) Onset
B) Chronic
C) Sudden
D) Acute
Q2) Nonspecific side effects include all except which of the following?
A) Fatigue
B) Pain
C) Weight loss
D) Sleep
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the 10 most commonly used and helpful verbal responses?
A) Reflecting
B) Confronting
C) Repeating
D) Summarizing
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Chapter 11: Pharmacology and Drug Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the organ most commonly used by the body to excrete drugs and their byproducts.
A) Kidneys
B) Lungs
C) Sweat glands
D) All of the above
Q2) Opioid medications are prescribed for the purpose of which of the following?
A) Preventing nausea and vomiting
B) Treating allergic reactions
C) Reducing inflammation
D) Relieving pain
Q3) The abbreviation BID stands for which of the following?
A) After meals
B) Before meals
C) Twice daily
D) Once daily
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Chapter 12: Applied Mathematics Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) Express log<sub>2</sub> 16 = 4 in exponential notation.
A) 4 = v16
B) 42 = 16
C) 1.6 = 10<sup>2</sup>
D) 2<sup>4</sup> = 16
Q2) Solve for x in the equation x² - 1 = 0.
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) ±1
Q3) Convert 2 Gy into rad.
A) 2 rad
B) 20 rad
C) 200 rad
D) 2000 rad
Q4) Which of the following is not a fundamental SI unit?
A) Time
B) Distance
C) Weight
D) Electrical current
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Chapter 13: Introduction to Radiation Therapy Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rest mass refers to the _______ of a particle when it is not moving.
A) energy
B) charge
C) force
D) weight
Q2) Which of the following is the most common photon interaction that occurs in the energy range used in radiation therapy?
A) Photoelectric
B) Compton
C) Photodisintegration
D) Thomson
Q3) The condition in which the half-life of the parent isotope is much greater than the half-life of the daughter isotope is called __________________.
A) transient equilibrium
B) transient attenuation
C) secular attenuation
D) secular equilibrium
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Chapter 14: Aspects of Brachytherapy
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Q1) The average or mean life of iridium 192 is __________ days.
A) 51
B) 74
C) 107
D) 148
Q2) The radionuclide with radon as its daughter product is __________________.
A) cobalt 60
B) cesium 137
C) iridium 192
D) radium 226
Q3) Permanent implants involve which of the following?
I.Sources packaged as tiny seeds
II.Sources with long half-lives
III.Sources implanted with needles in surgery
IV.Tumors that cannot be reached surgically
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Special Procedures
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Q1) Besides the patient and reference frame being registered, the stereotactic treatment must also ___________________.
A) control motion
B) conform to the fiducial
C) increase target volume
D) reduce treatment time
Q2) The typical width of the spread-out proton Bragg's peak (SOBP)is
A) 2 to 16 mm
B) 2 to 16 cm
C) 1 to 25 mm
D) 1 to 25 cm
Q3) Cone beam CT, TomoTherapy, and CT-on rails correct for _________ motion.
A) interfraction
B) intrafraction
Q4) Radiation therapists and radiation oncologists prefer the kV images because the
A) contrast is better
B) metal artifacts are reduced
C) timing is more efficient
D) resolution is not an issue
17
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Chapter 16: Particle Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although several heavy particles may be used therapeutically, proton therapy represents _____% of the particle therapy market in the United States.
A) 60
B) 75
C) 88
D) 100
Q2) Which of the following is the most reliable method for verifying beam clearance before a patient is treated?
A) Utilization of three-dimensional (3D)room models
B) Performance of manual verification
C) Use of room blueprints and computer plans
D) Robust review of treatment plans
Q3) Internal target motion can be accounted for by _____________ the compensator used in proton therapy.
A) smearing
B) shaving
C) rotating
D) waxing
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18
Chapter 17: Radiation Safety and Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is recommended that gestational dose be ________________________.
A) unequally shifted to the third trimester
B) unequally shifted to the first trimester
C) unequally shifted to the second trimester
D) evenly distributed throughout the gestational period
Q2) One half-value layer thickness in concrete would be__________ one half-value layer thickness in lead for a Cobalt 60 beam.
A) less than
B) greater than
C) equivalent to
Q3) Electrons have a quality factor (QF)of _____.
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
Q4) What is the radiation weighting factor for alpha particles?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
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Chapter 18: Patient Safety in Radiation Oncology
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Q1) Which of the following would be a key driving force for the development of staff exhibiting "initiating" and "enhancing" behaviors during culture change efforts?
A) Positive feedback
B) Low staff levels
C) Burdensome reporting system
D) Limited access to training
Q2) Which of the following characteristics is least reflective of a good leader?
A) Readily receives criticism
B) Listens well
C) Inspires others
D) Promotes standardization
Q3) Place the three levels of burnout in progressive order.
I.Depersonalization
II.Emotional exhaustion
III.Reduced personal accomplishment
A) I, II, III
B) II, III, I
C) II, I, III
D) III, II, I
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Quality Improvement in Radiation Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tolerance for light/radiation field coincidence on the linear accelerator is _____ mm.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) In general, the major components of a QI plan include which of the following?
A) Evaluation of patterns
B) Assessment of individual clinical events
C) Action to be taken to resolve problems
D) Weekly meeting of QI committee
E) a, b, and d
F) a, b, and c
Q3) The output constancy of all electron energies on the linear accelerator are recommended to be checked ________________.
A) daily
B) twice weekly
C) once weekly
D) once Monthly
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Surface and Sectional Anatomy
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Q1) Which of the following is the structure located immediately superior and medial to the left kidney?
A) Gallbladder
B) Spleen
C) Adrenal gland
D) Prostrate
Q2) The thoracic lymph duct begins in the abdomen at which of the following levels?
A) T11
B) L2
C) L5
D) T2
Q3) The adult vertebral column usually consists of _____ bones.
A) 16
B) 25
C) 33
D) 42
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Simulator Design
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Q1) ___________ takes into consideration how much a machine will run in a normal week.
A) Workload
B) Occupancy factor
C) Use factor
D) Barrier factor
Q2) The CT number for dense bone is _________.
A) -1000
B) -100
C) 0
D) 1000
Q3) Which of the following represents the path of a photon when it enters the image intensifier?
A) Input phosphor, electrostatic lenses, photocathode, anode, output screen
B) Input phosphor, photocathode, electrostatic lenses, anode, output screen
C) Input phosphor, anode, electrostatic lenses, photocathode, output screen
D) Anode, input phosphor, electrostatic lenses, photocathode, output screen
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Chapter 22: Computed Tomography Simulation
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Q1) Which of the following are benefits of CT simulation?
I.The ability to outline critical structures and view these structures in three dimensions
II.Machine setup parameters and treatment accessories unable to be verified on the CT scanner
III.Virtual simulation allows for construction of digitally reconstructed radiographs DRRs without the patient being present
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
Q2) What is a maximum intensity projection, or MIP?
A) Measurement of table translation
B) Result of noise on an image
C) Relationship between the matrix size and the pixel size on an image
D) Fused scan that shows the maximum amount of tumor movement during the respiratory cycle
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24
Chapter 23: Photon Dosimetry Concepts and Calculations
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Q1) As the SSD increases, the PDD does what?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains the same
D) No effect
Q2) As the energy increases, the tissue-air ratio does which of the following?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains the same
D) No effect
Q3) A patient is treated on a 6-MV machine at 100 cm SSD.The collimator setting is 15 × 15.There is no blocking used for this treatment.The prescription states that a dose of 3000 cGy is to be delivered to a depth of 3 cm in 10 fractions using a posterior treatment field using the nonisocentric method of calculation.The patient central axis separation is 20 cm.What is the MU setting for the treatment? Reference dose rate (RDR)for a 15 cm equivalent square is 0.993 cGy/MU.
A) 315
B) 321
C) 319
D) 317
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Chapter 24: Photon Dose Distributions
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Q1) The process of identifying structures, target volumes, or normal tissues, by creating contours around them, is often called _____________________.
A) organ segmentation
B) virtual simulation
C) intensity modulation
D) heterogeneity correction
Q2) Which of the following factors can be corrected to adjust the isodose lines of beams with oblique incidences?
I.PDD
II.TAR
III.TMR
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
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26
Chapter 25: Electron Beams in Radiation Therapy
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Q1) What effect will an increase in the energy of an electron beam have on the lateral bulge of the 80% isodose line?
A) Increase
B) Decrease
C) Remain the same
D) Dose dependence
Q2) What is the danger to tissue in front of an internal shield when used with electron beams therapy?
A) Photon contamination
B) Under dosing
C) Electron backscatter
D) Infection
Q3) Which electron beam's diameter (field size)is most likely to have an effect on a 20-MeV beam's surface dose and percent depth dose?
A) 5 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 15 cm
D) 20 cm
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Chapter 26: Electronic Charting and Image Management
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Q1) What series of events does a patient referred to radiation oncology typically follow?
I.Consultation
II.Treatment delivery
III.Simulation
A) I and II
B) I, III, and II
C) I, II, and III
D) I and III
Q2) Which of the following does not describe EMR?
A) Digital
B) Paperless
C) Easy accessibility
D) Requires little or no training
Q3) What is an information system designed for the collection, management, and analysis of data on a person with a malignant disease?
A) Data gathering
B) DICOM
C) Cancer registry
D) PACS
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Bone, Cartilage, and Soft Tissue Sarcomas
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Q1) In which anatomical location are primary bone lesions most common?
A) Spine
B) Upper extremity
C) Lower extremity
D) Trunk
Q2) What is the most important prognostic factor for osteosarcoma?
A) Site of primary tumor
B) Age of patient at diagnosis
C) Presence of metastatic disease
D) Performance status
Q3) The role of the radiation therapist in the treatment of patients with bone tumors includes which of the following?
I.Education
II.Communication
III.Assessment
IV.Monitoring medical equipment
A) I, II, and III
B) I, III, and IV
C) II, III, and IV
D) I, II, III, and IV
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Chapter 28: Lymphoreticular System Tumors
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Q1) Which treatment field for HD includes the mediastinal lymph node chain?
A) Mantle
B) Inverted-Y (abdominal portion)
C) Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)
D) All of the above
Q2) What stage is a Hodgkin lymphoma affecting the hilar nodes and the periaortic nodes?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q3) Today, the standard treatment for early stage Hodgkin lymphoma is combination chemotherapy and irradiation of the involved field to a dose of ____ Gy.
A) 30
B) 45
C) 50
D) 60
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Chapter 29: Endocrine System Tumors
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Q1) In which gland is ACTH produced?
A) Pancreas
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
Q2) Cancer of which of the following endocrine glands has the highest incidence rate?
A) Thyroid
B) Adrenal
C) Pituitary
D) Parathyroid
Q3) In adults, somatropin-secreting pituitary tumors can present as which of the following conditions?
A) Cushing's syndrome
B) Gigantism
C) Acromegaly
D) Diabetes insipidus
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Chapter 30: Respiratory System Tumors
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Q1) In what part of the lung are primary squamous cell carcinomas usually found?
A) Superior
B) Central
C) Lateral
D) Peripheral
Q2) The tolerance dose (TD)5/5 for the whole lung is approximately _____ Gy.
A) 20
B) 35
C) 45
D) 55
Q3) What is the most effective single-agent chemotherapy drug?
A) Cisplatin
B) Paclitaxel
C) Vinorelbine
D) Gemcitabine
Q4) What is the leading cause of non-small cell carcinoma of the lung?
A) Smoking
B) Asbestos
C) Radiation
D) Genetics
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Chapter 31: Head and Neck Cancers
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Q1) Bloody discharge from the nose would be a common symptom of a tumor located in the _____________________.
A) oropharynx
B) nasopharynx
C) hypopharynx
D) larynx
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for larynx cancer?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) Poor nutrition
C) Alcohol abuse
D) Human papillomavirus
Q3) What defines the superior radiation field border for the treatment of a low-staged larynx cancer?
A) Superior aspect of the hyoid
B) Cricoid cartilage
C) Inferior aspect of the mandible
D) Roof of the mouth
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Chapter 32: Central Nervous System Tumors
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Q1) What is the 5-year survival rate for all CNS tumors combined?
A) 20%
B) 35%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q2) From which cells to medulloblastomas arise?
A) Primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET)
B) Primitive neuroectodermal cells
C) Astrocytes
D) Lymphocytes
Q3) Which of the following is a late effect of brain irradiation in children?
A) Leukemia
B) Decreased IQ
C) Gigantism
D) Chronic fatigue
Q4) Which tumors spread through the cerebral spinal fluid?
A) Astrocytoma
B) Oligodendroglioma
C) Medulloblastoma
D) Schwannoma
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Digestive System Tumors
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Q1) Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)and hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal syndrome (HNPCC)are most closely associated with which type of cancer?
A) Esophageal
B) Pancreatic
C) Colorectal
D) Anal
Q2) At what age should a person of average risk have his or her first screening colonoscopy?
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
Q3) What condition is most closely associated with gastroesophageal reflux?
A) Barrett esophagus
B) Gardner syndrome
C) Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D) Tenesmus
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Chapter 34: Gynecological Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary peritoneal carcinomas are most closely associated with which cancer?
A) Ovarian
B) Cervical
C) Vaginal
D) Vulvar
Q2) Ovarian cancer is most closely related to which other cancer(s)?
I.Breast
II.Colon
III.Cervical
A) I only
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
Q3) Who has the most significant risk of developing ovarian cancer?
A) 35-year-old woman with one child
B) 35-year-old woman with five children
C) 65-year-old woman with one child
D) 65-year-old woman with five children
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Chapter 35: Male Reproductive and Genitourinary Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lymph node chains will be treated if a man is diagnosed with right-sided testicular cancer that has not spread outside the testicle?
I.Right SCV nodes
II.Para-aortic nodes
III.Right inguinal nodes
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
Q2) A total dose of 7200 cGy in fractions of 180 cGy is used to treat which male reproductive cancer?
A) Prostate
B) Testicle
C) Penis
D) All of the above
Q3) What is the most common symptom of testicular cancer?
A) Night sweats
B) Fever
C) Dysuria
D) Painless mass
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Chapter 36: Breast Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammatory breast cancer is always classified as which T stage?
A) T4a
B) T4b
C) T4c
D) T4d
Q2) What T stage is a breast cancer that is a 9-cm tumor with skin invasion?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
E) T4
Q3) What T stage is a breast cancer that is a 1-cm tumor in the upper outer quadrant?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
E) T4
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Pediatric Solid Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cancers would most likely be seen in a child?
A) Retinoblastoma
B) Primary brain
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Hodgkin's disease (HD)
Q2) Treatment of rhabdomyosarcoma with radiation therapy is most effective when the cancer is located in the _______________.
A) orbit
B) bladder
C) skeletal muscle
D) kidney
Q3) Wilms' tumors are cancers of which organ?
A) Kidney
B) Bone
C) Skeletal muscle
D) Smooth muscle
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Chapter 38: Skin Cancers and Melanoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the technique in which the tumor is removed and examined one layer at a time?
A) Curettage and electrodessication
B) Mohs surgery
C) Cryosurgery
D) Laser surgery
Q2) Which of the following factors contributes to the incidence of skin cancer?
I.Geographic location
II.Skin type
III.Previous skin cancers
IV)Gender
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I, II, and III
D) I, II, III, and IV
Q3) What is the most significant cause of skin cancer?
A) Radiation exposure
B) Sun exposure
C) Arsenic exposure
D) Human papillomavirus
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