Radiation Biology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Radiation Biology explores the fundamental principles and biological effects of ionizing and non-ionizing radiation on living organisms. The course covers topics such as the interaction of radiation with cells and tissues, molecular mechanisms of radiation damage, DNA repair, cellular response to radiation exposure, and the principles of radiation protection. It also examines the applications of radiation in medicine, including diagnostic imaging and cancer therapy, as well as the risks associated with occupational, environmental, and accidental exposures. Through this course, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the scientific basis for radiation safety and the implications of radiation in healthcare and biological research.
Recommended Textbook
Radiologic Science for Technologists Physics Biology and Protection 10th Edition by Stewart C. Bushong
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Chapter 1: Essential Concepts of Radiologic Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Matter is measured in _____.
A) kilograms
B) joules
C) electron volts
D) rems
Answer: A
Q2) In the United States,we are exposed to _____ mR/year of ionizing radiation from the natural environment.
A) 0-5
B) 5-20
C) 20-90
D) 100-300
Answer: C
Q3) Radio waves,light,and x-rays are all examples of _____ energy.
A) nuclear
B) thermal
C) electrical
D) electromagnetic
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Structure of Matter
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Q1) The periodic table of the elements was developed by _____ in the late 19th century.
A) Bohr
B) Rutherford
C) Mendeleev
D) Roentgen
Answer: C
Q2) The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter _____.
A) A
B) X
C) Z
D) n
Answer: C
Q3) The innermost electron shell is symbolized by the letter _____.
A) J
B) K
C) L
D) M
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Electromagnetic Energy
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Q1) Gamma rays are produced in the _____ of the atom.
A) outer electron shell
B) inner electron shell
C) nucleus
D) K-shell
Answer: C
Q2) X-rays are usually identified by their _____.
A) energy
B) velocity
C) wavelength
D) hertz
Answer: A
Q3) The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its _____.
A) amplitude
B) frequency
C) wavelength
D) velocity
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Electricity, Magnetism, and Electromagnetism
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Q1) An electric potential applied to a conductor produces _____.
A) an electric current
B) a magnetic field
C) an electric insulator
D) both A and B
Q2) Like magnetic poles _____ and unlike magnetic poles _____.
A) attract, attract
B) repel, repel
C) repel, attract
D) attract, repel
Q3) The charges on an electrified object are distributed _____.
A) in the center of the object
B) on the side nearest the charge
C) on the topside of the object
D) evenly throughout the object
Q4) What is the unit of electric potential?
A) watt
B) amp
C) volt
D) ohm
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Chapter 5: The X-ray Imaging System
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Q1) The autotransformer has _____ winding(s).
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q2) The most accurate type of timer is the _____ timer.
A) mechanical
B) electronic
C) synchronous
D) mAs
Q3) With half-wave rectification,the current flows through the x-ray tube during the _____ part of the cycle.
A) zero
B) positive or negative
C) positive
D) negative
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Chapter 6: The X-ray Tube
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Q1) The _____ is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube.
A) filament
B) focal spot
C) focusing cup
D) stator
Q2) Extrafocal or off-focus radiation is produced from _____.
A) overheated anodes
B) scattered x-rays
C) rebounding electrons
D) dual focus cathodes
Q3) The negative side of the x-ray tube holds the _____.
A) filament
B) anode
C) target
D) rotor
Q4) High capacity tube rotors revolve at _____ rpm.
A) 2000
B) 3600
C) 6000
D) 10,000
Page 8
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Chapter 7: X-ray Production
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Q1) Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced by _____ at the target.
A) outer shell excitation
B) slowing electrons
C) K-shell interactions
D) L-shell interactions
Q2) The efficiency of x-ray production increases as _____ increases.
A) mA
B) kVp
C) time
D) both A and B
Q3) Approximately _____ of the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is converted to x-rays at the target.
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 50%
D) 99%
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Chapter 8: X-ray Emission
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Q1) Beam quality is affected by _____.
A) mAs and distance
B) kVp and mAs
C) kVp and filtration
D) filtration and mAs
Q2) A compensating filter is used to create _____ optical density with a body part of _____ thickness.
A) uniform, non-uniform
B) non-uniform, non-uniform
C) non-uniform, uniform
D) uniform, uniform
Q3) Grays in air are the measurement for x-ray _____.
A) quantity
B) exposure
C) intensity
D) all of the above
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Chapter 9: X-ray Interaction with Matter
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Q1) At energies below 40 keV,the predominant x-ray interaction in soft tissue and bone is
A) coherent scatter
B) Compton scatter
C) photoelectric absorption
D) photodisintegration
Q2) The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are _____.
A) Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption
B) Compton scattering and pair production
C) photoelectric absorption and coherent scattering
D) coherent scattering and Thompson scattering
Q3) In _____,there is complete absorption of the incident x-ray photon
A) photoelectric interaction
B) Compton interaction
C) pair production
D) coherent scatter
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Chapter 10: Concepts of Radiographic Image Quality
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Q1) Radiographic _____ is random fluctuation in the optical density of a radiograph.
A) detail
B) contrast
C) noise
D) resolution
Q2) Spatial resolution improves with decreased _____ blur.
A) screen
B) motion
C) geometric
D) all of the above
Q3) The three primary geometric factors affecting image quality are _____.
A) distortion, subject contrast, and mAs
B) patient thickness, distortion, and magnification
C) magnification, distortion, and focal spot blur
D) kVp, focal spot blur, and contrast
Q4) In general radiography,the useful optical densities lie between _____ and _____.
A) 0.25, 2.25
B) 0.5, 1.0
C) 1.0, 1.5
D) 2.0, 3.0
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Chapter 11: Control of Scatter Radiation
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Q1) Which kVp selection would result in the most scattered x-rays in the image-forming beam?
A) 90 kVp
B) 75 kVp
C) 60 kVp
D) 50 kVp
Q2) The use of _____ improves contrast and reduces patient dose.
A) collimation
B) high kVp
C) low kVp
D) less filtration
Q3) The positive beam limiting device (PBL)assures that the x-ray beam is collimated to _____.
A) the exact part size
B) 1 cm inside image receptor size
C) the image receptor size
D) 1 cm outside image receptor size
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13
Chapter 12: Screen-Film Radiography
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Q1) The latent image is made up of _____ atoms.
A) bromide
B) silver
C) iodine
D) sulfide
Q2) A phosphorescent material emits light _____.
A) for a period of time after stimulation
B) only while it is stimulated
C) for less than a nanosecond
D) only from chemical stimulation
Q3) The main purpose of the gelatin emulsion in radiographic film is to _____.
A) resist chemical penetration
B) hold the silver halide crystals
C) maintain dimensional stability
D) protect the base
Q4) The overcoat on radiographic film is a protective covering of _____.
A) gelatin
B) polyester
C) adhesive
D) cellulose
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Chapter 13: Screen-Film Radiographic Technique
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Q1) A variable mAs technique chart has a set kVp and specific mAs settings for _____.
A) small, medium, and large parts
B) every 2 cm of thickness
C) every 6 cm of thickness
D) either A or B
Q2) Foreshortening is caused by a(n)_____.
A) angled beam when the body part is parallel the image receptor
B) angled body part when the beam is perpendicular to the image receptor
C) angled beam that is perpendicular to the body part
D) perpendicular beam and the body part parallel to the image receptor
Q3) Which medical condition may require a lower technique?
A) atelectasis
B) emphysema
C) pneumonia
D) pleural effusion
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15
Chapter 14: Computers in Medical Imaging
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Q1) _____ is a computer language used to write some applications programs.
A) Quicken
B) Word
C) Excel
D) QuickBASIC
Q2) A computer first uses its _____ program when it is turned on.
A) systems software
B) applications
C) bootstrap
D) C++
Q3) The following computer component temporarily stores data for processing.
A) hard disk drive
B) microprocessor
C) solid state drive
D) main memory
Q4) All of the below are examples of a type of computer storage except:
A) microprocessor
B) solid state drive
C) hard disk drive
D) flash drive
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Computed Radiography
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Q1) Computed radiography cassettes and film/screen cassettes can be used interchangeably with any x-ray imaging system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ is prevented by flooding the erased imaging plate with bright light.
A) Image fog
B) Noise
C) Overexposure
D) Ghosting
Q3) With computed radiography the contrast is _____.
A) controlled by kVp
B) controlled by mAs
C) constant regardless of radiation exposure
D) impossible to change
Q4) The computed radiography cassette is called a(n)_____ plate.
A) optical
B) imaging
C) laser
D) thermoluminescent
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Chapter 16: Digital Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Computed radiography uses (a)_____ for latent image formation.
A) thin film transistors
B) photosensitive silicon chips
C) photostimulable phosphor
D) semiconductor material
Q2) The dynamic range determines the degree of _____ in the image.
A) contrast resolution
B) spatial resolution
C) motion blur
D) all of the above
Q3) In digital radiography,the brightness of the image is determined by _____.
A) pixel values
B) Hounsfield units
C) automatic brightness control
D) film contrast
Q4) In digital fluoroscopy,each matrix pixel represents _____.
A) interface reflectivity
B) atomic number and mass density
C) proton density and spin relaxation
D) radionuclide uptake
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digital Radiographic Technique
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Q1) Image detail is also called _____.
A) spatial resolution
B) spatial frequency
C) signal to noise ratio
D) dynamic range
Q2) The number of gray shades that an imaging system can reproduce is called its
A) spatial frequency
B) contrast
C) spatial resolution
D) dynamic range
Q3) A _____ test tool is used to acquire data for an MTF curve.
A) bar pattern
B) post processing
C) signal-to-noise ratio
D) contrast-detail curve
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Viewing the Digital Radiographic Image
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Q1) An advantage to viewing the AMLCD screen is that the image quality is equally good viewed from any angle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Medical flat panel display devices are identified by the _____.
A) aperture ratio
B) depth of the monitor
C) size of the pixels
D) number of pixels
Q3) Reregistering an image to correct for patient motion is done with _____.
A) edge enhancement
B) offset images
C) pixel shift
D) image inversion
Q4) The decreasing luminous intensity with increasing distance from the source of light follows _____.
A) the law of gravity
B) Murphy's law
C) cosine law
D) the inverse square law
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Chapter 19: Screen-Film Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) Thin lines on the leading or trailing edge of a film are _____.
A) Pi lines
B) dichroic stains
C) guide-shoe marks
D) emulsion build-up
Q2) A streak of high optical density on the finished radiograph can be caused by _____.
A) film boxes stacked too high in storage
B) light leaks in the cassette or darkroom
C) inadequate washing in the processor
D) high humidity in the darkroom
Q3) Misalignment of the processor turnaround assembly can cause _____.
A) tree static
B) grid cut-off
C) Pi lines
D) guide-shoe marks
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21
Chapter 20: Screen-Film Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) Acceptance testing should never be done by a _____.
A) medical physicist
B) manufacturer's representative
C) QC technologist
D) radiologic engineer
Q2) Medical facilities have quality control programs in place in order to _____.
A) have JAHCO approval and accreditation
B) ensure quality patient care
C) receive payment from insurance carriers
D) do all of the above
Q3) A QC program should include _____,routine performance monitoring,and maintenance.
A) acceptance testing
B) outcome analysis
C) calibration
D) personnel monitoring
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22
Chapter 21: Digital Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) Lossy compression can be used for _____.
A) mammography
B) video recordings
C) chest radiographs
D) all of the above
Q2) A graph of the frequency of occurrence versus digital value intervals is called a(n)_____.
A) histogram
B) compression
C) digitization
D) algorithm
Q3) _____ is done during preprocessing to correct for an irregular pattern over the image.
A) Lossy compression
B) Signal erasure
C) Partitioning
D) Flatfielding
Q4) Artifacts are an acceptable part of digital imaging.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Digital Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) Digital display reflections and ambient light conditions are assessed with a(n)_____.
A) illuminance meter
B) near-range photometer
C) luminescence meter
D) TG-18 test device
Q2) Specular reflection can be tested with the _____.
I. TG 18-AD pattern
II. ambient light turned on
III. ambient light turned off
A) I only
B) I & II only
C) I & III only
D) I, II & III
Q3) The Task Group Report 18 is a procedure manual for _____.
A) evaluating the Gray Scale Display Function
B) testing digital display devices
C) evaluating the SMPTE pattern
D) testing doing CT exams
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Mammography
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Q1) It is recommended that women obtain their first baseline mammogram before the age of _____.
A) thirty
B) forty
C) fifty
D) sixty
Q2) Cassettes used in mammography are specially designed with _____.
A) tighter film-screen contact
B) high Z front covers
C) double screens
D) looser spring latches
Q3) Soft tissue radiography requires special techniques because of the low _____.
A) image receptor contrast
B) subject contrast
C) part thickness
D) spatial resolution
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Mammography Quality Control
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Q1) The first step in quality control is the daily _____.
A) darkroom cleaning
B) sensitometric strip
C) screen cleaning
D) phantom image
Q2) The _____ is responsible for measurement of the mammogram viewing conditions.
A) darkroom technologist
B) mammographer
C) medical physicist
D) radiologist
Q3) The purpose of a quality assurance program is to maintain the maximum _____ with the minimum _____.
A) equipment function, department costs
B) patient satisfaction, exam time
C) quality of mammograms, patient dose
D) patient care, exam time
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Chapter 25: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) Fluoroscopy for an air contrast barium enema is generally done at _____ kVp.
A) 65-75
B) 70-80
C) 80-90
D) 100-110
Q2) With image intensification the light level is raised to _____ vision.
A) photopic
B) scotopic
C) night
D) twilight
Q3) Fluoroscopy was developed so that radiologists could view _____ images.
A) static
B) dynamic
C) magnified
D) darkened
Q4) The input phosphor converts _____ to _____.
A) x-rays, electrons
B) light, electrons
C) electrons, light
D) x-rays, light
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Chapter 26: Digital Fluoroscopy
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Q1) Digital fluoroscopy uses at least _____ monitor(s).
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) The combination of temporal and energy subtraction techniques is called _____.
A) interlacing mode subtraction
B) hybrid subtraction
C) dual subtraction
D) superimposition
Q3) The time-interval delay mode is principally used in _____ imaging.
A) renal angiography
B) barium enema
C) cardiac
D) run-off
Q4) Remasking may be required due to _____.
A) noise artifacts
B) motion artifacts
C) technical factors
D) any of the above
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Chapter 27: Interventional Radiography
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Q1) The patient table is moved with a floor switch to maintain a _____.
A) better motion control
B) smooth movement
C) low exposure rate
D) sterile field
Q2) A patient must have _____ prior to having an angiography or interventional procedure.
A) a history and physical examination
B) orders for IV hydration
C) a diet of clear liquids
D) all of the above
Q3) The x-ray tube used for interventional radiologic procedures has a _____.
A) small diameter anode
B) small target angle
C) large focal spot
D) low power rating
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29
Chapter 28: Computed Tomography
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Q1) Filtered back projection in CT refers to _____.
A) spatial resolution
B) pre-patient collimation
C) beam filtration
D) image reconstruction
Q2) The _____ generation of CT scanners was the first to have the fan beam transect the entire patient at all times.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
Q3) Each pixel of information in the CT image contains numerical information in _____ units.
A) voxel
B) reconstruction
C) Hounsfield
D) pixel
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Human Biology
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Q1) The endocrine glands produce _____.
A) hormones
B) lipids
C) antigens
D) glycerol
Q2) The only principal molecules in the body which are simple molecules are _____ molecules.
A) carbohydrate
B) water
C) lipid
D) protein
Q3) A cell is in _____ when it is not undergoing mitosis or meiosis.
A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) interphase
D) telophase
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Fundamental Principles of Radiobiology
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Q1) Human cells cannot recover from radiation damage after there is _____.
A) cellular repair
B) cellular repopulation
C) interphase death
D) sublethal damage
Q2) Fractionation and protraction are used for radiation therapy because they allow the patient to _____.
A) recover between doses
B) have higher total doses
C) repair damaged tissues
D) all of the above
Q3) The LET of diagnostic x-rays is _____ keV/ m.
A) 0.2
B) 0.3
C) 3.0
D) 50
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32
Chapter 31: Molecular Radiobiology
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Q1) The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be
A) indirect effects
B) direct effects
C) DNA damage
D) cell destruction
Q2) The most radiosensitive macromolecule is _____.
A) protein
B) DNA
C) mRNA
D) tRNA
Q3) Two OH* free radicals can join to form _____ molecules.
A) organic free radical
B) hydroperoxyl
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) DNA
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Cellular Radiobiology
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Q1) The probability of a hit is increased with _____ oxygen and _____ LET radiation.
A) high, low
B) low, low
C) high, high
D) low, high
Q2) If oxygen is present during low-LET radiation the effect of radiation is?
A) reduced
B) minimal
C) maximal
D) the same
Q3) The DQ is the _____ dose for irradiation of human cells.
A) single-target
B) multi-hit
C) lethal
D) threshold
Q4) Which of the following types of radioactive particle has the highest LET?
A) Alpha particle
B) x-ray
C) gamma-ray
D) proton
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Deterministic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) The destruction of _____ cells in the intestinal lining causes death from GI syndrome.
A) muscle
B) stem
C) mature
D) blood
Q2) The central nervous system syndrome occurs following a whole body dose of _____ Gy or more.
A) 50
B) 20
C) 10
D) 5
Q3) A subject would not experience _____ following a dose high enough to cause CNS syndrome.
A) hematologic syndrome
B) gastrointestinal syndrome
C) prodromal syndrome
D) both A and B
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Stochastic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) A _____ effect increases in incidence but not severity as the dose increases.
A) non-stochastic
B) stochastic
C) deterministic
D) localized
Q2) Our information on the genetic effects of radiation has come from studies of _____.
A) mice
B) fruit flies
C) humans
D) both A and B
Q3) Chronic low doses of radiation have _____ effect on fertility.
A) no
B) an increasing
C) a strong
D) a weak
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Chapter 35: Health Physics
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15680
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best approach to occupational radiation exposure?
A) Maintain the annual dose limits.
B) Follow the concept of ALARA.
C) Reduce your exposure to half the NCRP dose limits.
D) Wear protective apparel at all times.
Q2) What is the NCRP?
A) National Council of Radiation Protection
B) National Council of Radiology Personnel
C) National Committee on Radiation Prevention
D) National Committee on Random Particles
Q3) If the HVL in a radiology department is 0.25 mm Pb,then how thick should a shield be to reduce the technologists' exposure to one fourth the incident scatter?
A) 0.125 mm Pb
B) 0.25 mm Pb
C) 0.5 mm Pb
D) 1.0 mm Pb
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Chapter 36: Designing for Radiation Protection
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25 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15681
Sample Questions
Q1) The source-to-skin distance must be no less than _____ cm on stationary fluoroscopes.
A) 30
B) 38
C) 42
D) 48
Q2) A controlled area is one occupied primarily by _____.
A) radiology personnel
B) patients
C) the general public
D) both A and B
Q3) The _____ is the primary protective barrier for the fluoroscopic x-ray tube.
A) ceiling
B) floor
C) image intensifier
D) table top
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Patient Radiation Dose Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient dose is usually estimated by conducting simulated x-ray examinations with
A) human subjects.
B) laboratory animals.
C) human phantoms and test objects.
D) all of the above
Q2) If the radiographic technique for a KUB calls for 40 mAs,what is the ESE when the output intensity is 0.075 mGy/mAs?
A) 0.40 mGy
B) 0.475 mGy
C) 3 mGy
D) 30 mGy
Q3) The period of major organogenesis is during the _____ of pregnancy.
A) first 2 weeks
B) second to tenth week
C) 2nd trimester
D) 3rd trimester
Q4) Digital mammography results in lower doses than screen/film mammography.
A)True
B)False
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Occupational Radiation Dose Management
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20 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15683
Sample Questions
Q1) The dose limit for a technologist during pregnancy is _____.
A) 0.05 mSv/mo (5 mrem/mo).
B) 0.5 mSv/mo (50 mrem/mo).
C) 5 mSv/mo (500 mrem/mo).
D) 50 mSv/mo (5000 mrem/mo).
Q2) During fluoroscopy the exposure to the collar is _____ times greater than exposure to the trunk of the body under a protective apron.
A) 50
B) 20
C) 10
D) 2
Q3) Dose limits are described as _____.
A) exposure dose
B) threshold dose
C) effective dose
D) dose equivalent
Q4) A protective apron with a thickness of 0.25 mm lead equivalent is the minimum required.
A)True
B)False
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