Radiation Biology Exam
Bank
Course Introduction
Radiation Biology explores the fundamental principles and biological effects of ionizing and non-ionizing radiation on living systems. The course covers the interaction of radiation with cells and tissues, mechanisms of DNA damage and repair, cell survival curves, mutagenesis, carcinogenesis, and the implications for human health. Additionally, the course addresses applications in medicine, industry, and research, as well as strategies for radiation protection and risk assessment. Through the study of molecular and cellular responses, students gain an understanding of both the beneficial and detrimental impacts of radiation exposure.
Recommended Textbook
Radiologic Science for Technologists Physics Biology and Protection 11th Edition by Stewart C. Bushong
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Chapter 1: Essential Concepts of Radiologic Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does ALARA mean?
A) All Level Alert Radiation Accident
B) As Low As Reasonably Achievable
C) Always Leave A Restricted Area
D) As Low As Regulations Allow
Answer: B
Q2) Filtration is used to ____________________.
A) absorb low-energy x-rays
B) remove high-energy x-rays
C) restrict the useful beam to the body part imaged
D) fabricate gonadal shields
Answer: A
Q3) Today, radiology is considered to be a(n) ___________ occupation.
A) safe
B) unsafe
C) dangerous
D) high-risk
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Structure of Matter
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Q1) When atoms of various elements combine, they form __________.
A) isotopes
B) compounds
C) molecules
D) ions
Answer: C
Q2) A chemical compound is any quantity of _______________.
A) one type of atom
B) one type of molecule
C) two types of molecules
D) two or more types of atoms
Answer: B
Q3) The chemical element is determined by the number of __________ in the atom.
A) protons
B) electrons
C) neutrons
D) nucleons
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Electromagnetic Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reduction of radiation intensity due to scattering and absorption is called
A) reflection
B) refraction
C) attenuation
D) dispersion
Answer: C
Q2) The mass equivalent of a 100 KeV photon of radiation can be calculated using the
A) inverse square formula
B) equivalent Planck equation
C) relativity formula
D) Planck quantum equation
Answer: C
Q3) What is the electromagnetic wave equation?
A) c = fl
B) c = f/l
C) c = fv
D) c = f-l
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Electricity, Magnetism, and Electromagnetism
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Q1) A _________ is a source of direct current.
A) wall socket
B) battery
C) generator
D) spark
Q2) Rubber and glass are ___________.
A) semiconductors
B) conductors
C) insulators
D) superconductors
Q3) What is the unit of electric potential?
A) Watt
B) Amp
C) Volt
D) Ohm
Q4) Water is a ___________ material.
A) paramagnetic
B) magnetic
C) diamagnetic
D) ferromagnetic
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Chapter 5: The X-ray Imaging System
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Q1) Most mammography units operate with ___________ generators.
A) capacitor discharge
B) high frequency
C) single-phase
D) three-phase
Q2) The x-ray generator with the lowest power rating is the _____________ imaging system.
A) high frequency
B) three-phase, twelve-pulse
C) three-phase, six-pulse
D) single-phase
Q3) In modern imaging systems, the components for rectification are ____________.
A) capacitor discharge generators
B) high frequency transformers
C) vacuum tubes
D) solid state semiconductors
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Chapter 6: The X-ray Tube
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Q1) The ___________ is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube.
A) filament
B) focal spot
C) focusing cup
D) stator
Q2) The rotating anode is turned by a ____________.
A) thermal cushion
B) rotating belt
C) magnetic field
D) mechanical pulley
Q3) The most widely used support structure for the x-ray tube is the ______________.
A) C-arm
B) floor-to-ceiling mount
C) ceiling support system
D) floor support system
Q4) The effective focal spot size is _____________ the actual focal spot size.
A) equal to
B) larger than
C) equal to or larger than
D) smaller than
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Chapter 7: X-ray Production
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Q1) The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to _________.
A) rotor speed
B) filament current
C) kVp
D) tube current
Q2) The efficiency of x-ray production is ___________ the tube current.
A) indirectly proportional to
B) directly proportional to C) not affected by
D) strongly affected by
Q3) The efficiency of x-ray production increases as ______ increases.
A) mA
B) kVp
C) time
D) Both A and B
Q4) A 15% increase in kVp is equivalent to ___________________.
A) increasing the mAs 15%
B) doubling the mAs
C) increasing the mAs 1 1/2 times
D) tripling the mAs
Page 9
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Chapter 8: X-ray Emission
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Q1) The number of x-rays in the useful beam defines x-ray ________.
A) kVp
B) quality
C) quantity
D) mAs
Q2) If the quantity of electrons hitting the target are doubled, the x-ray quantity is __________.
A) reduced by half
B) just slightly increased
C) increased by a factor of two
D) increased by a factor of four
Q3) X-ray quantity increases in direct proportion to increases in __________.
A) mAs
B) kVp
C) distance
D) filtration
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Chapter 9: X-ray Interaction with Matter
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Q1) Compton interactions, photoelectric absorption, and transmitted x-rays all contribute to _________________.
A) image fog
B) differential absorption
C) patient dose
D) attenuation
Q2) X-rays transmitted without interaction contribute to ___________________.
A) photoelectric absorption
B) the radiographic image
C) the image fog
D) beam attenuation
Q3) An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized during _____________.
A) photoelectric interactions
B) Compton interactions
C) coherent scattering
D) pair production
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Chapter 10: Radiographic Image Quality
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Q1) Focal spot blur can be reduced by using __________.
A) a small focal spot
B) a shorter SID
C) a larger OID
D) All of the above
Q2) An image receptor with ____________ can be used over a greater range of exposures.
A) wide latitude
B) high contrast
C) narrow latitude
D) high average gradient
Q3) The technologist primarily controls radiographic contrast by varying the
A) image receptor
B) kilovoltage
C) voltage ripple
D) milliamperage
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12
Chapter 11: Control of Scatter Radiation
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Q1) How can you improve image contrast with a heavy patient without increasing patient dose?
A) Lower kVp and raise mAs.
B) Use tight collimation.
C) Raise kVp and lower mAs.
D) Do both A and B.
Q2) The most commonly used beam restricting device is the ____________.
A) extension cone
B) variable collimator
C) aperture diaphragm
D) compression device
Q3) The x-rays that are transmitted through the patient without interaction contribute to ______________.
A) useful information
B) film fog
C) image noise
D) All of the above
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Chapter 12: Screen-Film Radiography
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Q1) An intensifying screen is an example of __________________.
A) luminescence
B) fluorescence
C) phosphorescence
D) Both A and B
Q2) Which of the following lists the steps of automatic processing in the correct order?
A) Wetting, fixing, developing, washing, drying
B) Wetting, developing, fixing, washing, drying
C) Developing, fixing, wetting, washing, drying
D) Fixing, wetting, developing, washing, drying
Q3) The two basic components of radiographic film are the _______ and the ___________.
A) base, adhesive layer
B) base, emulsion
C) emulsion, gelatin
D) emulsion, silver halide
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14
Chapter 13: Screen-Film Radiographic Technique
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Q1) Changes in kVp affect _____________.
A) optical density
B) image contrast
C) image noise
D) All of the above
Q2) Which medical condition may require a lower technique?
A) Atelectasis
B) Emphysema
C) Pneumonia
D) Pleural effusion
Q3) With automatic exposure control the exposure is terminated when the optimum _____ is reached.
A) OD
B) time
C) mAs
D) kVp
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Medical Imaging Computer Science
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Q1) The ________, developed in 1951, was the first commercially successful general-purpose stored-program electronic digital computer.
A) ENIAC
B) UNIVAC
C) VLSI
D) LSI
Q2) The __________________ controls data transfer between the main memory and the input and output hardware
A) flat panel display
B) central processing unit
C) disk drive
D) RAM chip
Q3) What is the form of radiology that allows for the transfer of images to remote sites for interpretation.
A) Neuroradiology.
B) Interventional radiology.
C) Long distance radiology.
D) Teleradiology.
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Chapter 15: Computed Radiography
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Q1) The principal source of noise in computed radiography is ____________________.
A) scatter radiation
B) background radiation
C) computer noise
D) phosphor scatter
Q2) Optical filters are used to filter out the _______ light and allow the _______ light to reach the photodetector.
A) stimulating, emitted
B) emitted, stimulated
C) emitted, monochromatic
D) stimulating, monochromatic
Q3) The digital imaging plate can sit for some time after the erase cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Europium is the ______________ of the photostimulable phosphor.
A) image buffer
B) scintillator
C) phosphor
D) activator
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Chapter 16: Digital Radiography
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Q1) In digital radiography, the brightness of the image is determined by
A) pixel values
B) Hounsfield units
C) automatic brightness control
D) film contrast
Q2) Computed radiography developed in the 1970s with the use of ___________ as the image receptor.
A) phosphor
B) selenium
C) silicon
D) film
Q3) In digital radiography, the latent image is formed on the _______________.
A) radiographic film
B) image matrix
C) radiation detector
D) computer screen
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Chapter 17: Digital Radiographic Technique
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Q1) The use of an image receptor with _____ DQE can result in _____ patient doses. I. low, lower II) high, lower III) high, higher IV) low, higher
A) I
B) II
C) I, III
D) II, IV
Q2) If a digital radiography imaging system has a spatial resolution of 10 lp/mm, what is the pixel size of that system?
A) 0.05 mm
B) 0.5 mm
C) 0.1 mm
D) 0.01 mm
Q3) The ________________ digital imaging system uses the highest dynamic range. A) computed tomography
B) mammography
C) magnetic resonance
D) angiography
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Chapter 18: Viewing the Digital Image
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Q1) Text data and email are generated at a _____________________________ workstation in PACS.
A) Radiology Information System (RIS)
B) DICOM
C) image acquisition
D) archive retrieval
Q2) A liquid crystal is a material in a ______________________ state.
A) solid
B) state between a liquid and a solid
C) liquid
D) state between a liquid and a gaseous
Q3) Preprocessing the digital image is done _____________, and post-processing is done ______________.
A) automatically, manually
B) manually, manually
C) manually, automatically
D) automatically, automatically
Q4) A digital display device with higher megapixels has better spatial resolution.
A)True
B)False
20
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Chapter 19: Screen-Film Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) What can cause image blur on the finished radiograph?
A) Patient motion
B) Chemical imbalance
C) High humidity
D) Any of the above
Q2) A bi-color chemical stain on a radiograph is called _____________________.
A) a curtain effect
B) a dichroic stain
C) hypo retention
D) Both A and B
Q3) A greasy appearance of a film is usually caused by _______________________.
A) inadequate washing
B) excess hardener chemicals
C) improper developer heat
D) inadequate processing chemistry
Q4) A __________________ is an example of an exposure artifact.
A) foreign object
B) Pi line
C) pressure mark
D) dichroic stain
21
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Chapter 20: Screen-Film Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) Comparing the mR output at 50 mA at 0.2 sec, 100 mA at 0.1 sec, and 200 mA at 0.05 sec is part of a test for ________________.
A) reciprocity
B) reproducibility
C) linearity
D) uniformity
Q2) Following a good processor QC program reduces the need for __________ maintenance.
A) daily
B) unscheduled
C) scheduled
D) preventive
Q3) Filtration is measured with _____________ measurements.
A) caliper
B) photometer
C) slit camera
D) half-value layer
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Chapter 21: Digital Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) Object artifacts in digital imaging can occur from errors in ___________________. I. x-ray beam collimation
II) histogram selection
III) patient positioning
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II
D) I, II, and III
Q2) During preprocessing the digital output of the image receptor may need to be manipulated to correct for _________________.
A) dead pixels
B) image blur
C) ghost images
D) radiation fatigue
Q3) The three classifications of digital imaging artifacts are _______________________.
A) processing, exposure, and handling/storage
B) processing, image receptor, and exposure
C) image receptor, software, and object
D) software, object, and exposure
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Chapter 22: Digital Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) Specular reflection can be assessed by only turning off the monitor in ambient light.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Digital display reflections and ambient light conditions are assessed with a(n) ________________.
A) illuminance meter
B) near-range photometer
C) luminescence meter
D) TG18 test device
Q3) SMPTE stands for the _____________________________________.
A) Standards of Medical Practice and Television Electronics
B) Standards of Medical Practice and Technical Electronics
C) Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers
D) Society of Medical Physicians and Technical Engineers
Q4) There are _______ types of photometers commonly used.
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight
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Chapter 23: Mammography
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Q1) Breast compression is used to _______ patient dose and ________ focal spot blur.
A) lower, reduce
B) lower, increase
C) raise, reduce
D) raise, increase
Q2) Every dedicated mammography unit is equipped with a ________________.
A) low ratio grid
B) high ratio grid
C) three-phase voltage generator
D) tungsten filter
Q3) Screening mammography requires _____ view(s) of each breast, whereas diagnostic mammography requires _____ views.
A) one, two or more
B) two, two or more
C) three, three or more
D) four, four or more
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Chapter 24: Mammography Quality Control
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Q1) The team of _______________ is responsible for mammography quality control.
A) mammographer and QC technologist
B) mammographer, radiologist, and medical physicist
C) medical physicist, staff manager, and chief radiologist
D) staff manager and medical physicist
Q2) A quality assurance program includes measures of __________________.
A) patient satisfaction
B) processor quality control
C) equipment function
D) All of the above
Q3) Once control values are set, the daily speed index (mid density) and contrast index (density difference) should not vary more than _____ from the control.
A) 0.10
B) 0.15
C) 0.20
D) 0.25
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26
Chapter 25: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) The input phosphor converts _________ to _________.
A) x-rays, electrons
B) light, electrons
C) electrons, light
D) x-rays, light
Q2) The number of light photons emitted within the image intensifier is
to the amount of x-ray photons exiting the patient.
A) equal
B) unrelated
C) inversely proportional
D) directly proportional
Q3) Visual acuity in the eye is greatest at the ___________, where _____ are concentrated.
A) retinal periphery, cones
B) fovea centralis, cones
C) retinal periphery, rods
D) fovea centralis, rods
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Chapter 26: Digital Fluoroscopy
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Q1) Remasking may be required due to __________________.
A) noise artifacts
B) motion artifacts
C) technical factors
D) Any of the above
Q2) Hybrid imaging can produce the highest-quality digital fluoroscopy images only if _________________.
A) remasking is employed
B) energy subtraction is used
C) patient motion is controlled
D) remasking is completed
Q3) Digital fluoroscopy systems with hybrid capabilities use both _____________________________.
A) interlace and progressive modes
B) high mAs and low mass techniques
C) temporal and energy subtraction
D) charge coupled devices and TV monitors
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Chapter 27: Interventional Radiology
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Q1) During an interventional procedure, ____________ must be maintained on the patient.
A) pulse oximetry
B) blood pressure measurement
C) electrocardiography
D) All of the above
Q2) The x-ray tube used for interventional radiologic procedures has a _____________.
A) small diameter anode
B) small target angle
C) large focal spot
D) low power rating
Q3) When imaging a flow of contrast from the abdomen to the feet, a ___________ is used.
A) tilting table
B) stepping table
C) sliding tube
D) cine camera
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29
Chapter 28: Computed Tomography
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Q1) Filtered back projection in CT refers to ___________________.
A) spatial resolution
B) prepatient collimation
C) beam filtration
D) image reconstruction
Q2) The time from the end of CT imaging to image appearance is called the ______ time.
A) reconstruction
B) translation
C) projection
D) Hounsfield
Q3) Each CT projection is ______________________.
A) displayed on the monitor
B) stored on the computer
C) printed on film
D) All of the above
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Human Biology
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Q1) The process of cell meiosis results in cells with _______ chromosomes each.
A) 22
B) 23
C) 46
D) 48
Q2) The cell "engines" are the _________________.
A) ribosomes
B) lysosomes
C) mitochondria
D) nucleoli
Q3) The most radiosensitive target molecule in the human cell is the _________.
A) protein
B) DNA
C) hormone
D) glucose
Q4) The _______________ in the cell are nucleic acids.
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) lipids
D) Both A and B
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Fundamental Principles of Radiobiology
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Q1) Studies of the effects of radiation show that low doses may ________________.
A) stimulate the immune system
B) extend the life span
C) stimulate hormonal responses
D) All of the above
Q2) Which dose-response relationship can follow a sigmoid curve?
A) Linear-nonthreshold
B) Linear-threshold
C) Nonlinear-nonthreshold
D) Nonlinear-threshold
Q3) Fractionation and protraction are used for radiation therapy because they allow the patient to ______________.
A) recover between doses
B) have higher total doses
C) repair damaged tissues
D) All of the above
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Chapter 31: Molecular Radiobiology
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Q1) An indirect effect from ionizing radiation occurs on a ___________ molecule.
A) target
B) DNA
C) water
D) free radical
Q2) Molecular lesions of DNA are called ________________.
A) point mutations
B) broken side rails
C) cross-linking
D) rung breaks
Q3) The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be ________________.
A) indirect effects
B) direct effects
C) DNA damage
D) cell destruction
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Cellular Radiobiology
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Q1) The x-intercept of a low LET cell-survival curve is _______ than a similar high LET cell-survival curve.
A) the same
B) larger
C) smaller
D) None of the above
Q2) A target molecule that is __________________ will always cause cell death.
A) inactivated
B) damaged
C) hit
D) ionized
Q3) According to target theory, the target molecule of a cell is _____________________.
A) any molecule in the cell
B) the DNA in the nucleus
C) a water molecule
D) a protein macromolecule
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34
Chapter 33: Deterministic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Immediately following a whole body dose of 10 Gy the victim would experience (a)
A) sudden death
B) latent period
C) prodromal symptoms
D) hair loss
Q2) _____________ are among the most radioresistive species.
A) Birds
B) Dogs
C) Humans
D) Cockroaches
Q3) Some radiation victims of _______________ syndrome(s) may recover completely.
A) central nervous system
B) gastrointestinal
C) hematologic
D) All of the above
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Stochastic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Relative risk is _________________.
A) expected cases/observed cases
B) observed cases/expected cases
C) observed cases - expected cases
D) expected cases - observed cases
Q2) A __________ effect increases in incidence but not severity as the dose increases.
A) non-stochastic
B) stochastic
C) deterministic
D) localized
Q3) The theory of radiation hormesis suggests that radiation doses below 0.1 mGy are _____________.
A) carcinogenic
B) beneficial
C) lethal
D) harmful
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Chapter 35: Health Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three cardinal principals of radiation protection involve ____________________.
A) dose, shielding, and exposure
B) exposure, shielding, and ALARA
C) time, distance, and shielding
D) ALARA, time, and distance
Q2) The first radiation health physicists worked with ___________________.
A) the atom bomb
B) x-ray tubes
C) CT scanners
D) nuclear medicine
Q3) If a technologist is exposed to 4 mGyt/hr for 45 minutes during a fluoroscopy exam, what will be her total exposure?
A) 1 mGyt
B) 2 mGyt
C) 3 mGyt
D) 4 mGyt
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Chapter 36: Designing for Radiation Protection
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The design of an uncontrolled area in radiology is based on the NCRP recommended limit of _____ mGy/yr for the public.
A) 50
B) 10
C) 1
D) 0.5
Q2) The fluoroscopic exposure control switch is always a(n) ___________ type.
A) rheostat
B) automatic
C) deadman
D) on-off
Q3) A Geiger-Muller counter is a(n) ________________________.
A) scintillation detector
B) optically stimulated dosimeter
C) gas-filled detector
D) thermoluminescent dosimeter
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Chapter 37: Radiography/Fluoroscopy Patient Radiation
Dose
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The radiation dose monitor most frequently used to measure patient exposure is the
A) film badge
B) G-M meter
C) nomogram
D) thermoluminescent dosimeter
Q2) Mean marrow dose (MMD) is defined as:
A) the average radiation dose to the entire active bone marrow.
B) the average radiation dose to the entire body.
C) the average radiation dose to the extremities.
D) the average radiation dose to the trunk.
Q3) Bone marrow dose is measured ______________________.
A) directly from bone marrow
B) as an estimate from ESE
C) as an estimate from gonadal dose
D) directly from the beam
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Chapter 38: Computed Tomography Patient Radiation
Dose
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Sample Questions
Q1) The collimator that improves image contrast by limiting the amount of scatter radiation that reaches the detector is the ____________________.
A) prepatient collimator
B) postpatient collimator
C) A and B
D) None of the above
Q2) The combination of output radiation intensity and volume of tissue imaged is called ________________________.
A) computed tomography dose index
B) dose modulation
C) dose length product
D) effective diameter
Q3) Overranging occurs because of ___________________.
A) irradiated tissue overlapping
B) the pitch is one
C) the x-ray beam dose tail
D) All of the above
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Patient Radiation Dose Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the only acceptable techniques for mammography?
I.Screen/film
II.Digital
III.Xerography
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II
D) I, II, and III
Q2) CT is considered a low-dose procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which exam does not have one of the highest repeat rates?
A) Lumbar spine
B) KUB
C) Chest x-ray
D) Thoracic spine
Q4) The dose in CT is lower if the multislice number is higher.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Occupational Radiation Dose Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Every radiology department should provide a radiation safety program that includes
A) training new employees
B) periodic in-services for all employees
C) counseling during pregnancy
D) All of the above
Q2) Personnel working in interventional radiography should be provided with ______________________.
A) collar monitoring only
B) waist monitoring under the apron
C) extremity monitoring
D) gonadal monitoring
Q3) Occupational radiation monitoring is required if the individual may get _____ of the recommended dose limit.
A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 10%
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