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Quantitative Methods in Marketing introduces students to the analytical techniques and statistical tools used to address marketing problems and inform decision-making.
Emphasizing data-driven approaches, the course covers topics such as market segmentation, forecasting, pricing strategies, and consumer behavior analysis. Students learn to apply methods including regression analysis, experimental design, conjoint analysis, and cluster analysis to real-world marketing data, fostering skills in interpreting quantitative results and translating them into actionable marketing insights. The course combines theoretical foundations with practical applications, preparing students for evidence-based marketing strategizing in diverse business contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Marketing Research Pearson New International Edition 4th Edition by Naresh K. Malhotra
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Q1) Which of the following is the more common of the forms of research and is undertaken by virtually all marketing firms?
A) problem-solving research
B) problem-identification research
C) problem-manipulation research
D) problem-correction research
E) problem exception
Answer: B
Q2) If an outside agency was brought in to conduct work for a research project after the first three steps in the marketing research process were completed, which step would the agency conduct?
A) define the problem
B) develop an approach to the problem
C) formulate the research design
D) correct the problem
E) doing fieldwork or collecting data
Answer: E
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Q1) An unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples intended to provide insight and understanding of the problem setting is called
A) quantitative research
B) qualitative research
C) descriptive research
D) causal research
E) secondary data
Answer: B
Q2) Secondary data are data collected for some purpose other than the problem at hand.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Determining the impact on sales and profits of various levels of price changes is an issue that would be addressed in a management decision problem.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Q1) According to the text, the objective of ________ is to test specific hypotheses and examine specific relationships.
A) conclusive research
B) subjective research
C) exploratory research
D) observational research
E) conditional research
Answer: A
Q2) Exploratory research is used in all of the following cases EXCEPT:
A) selecting the course of action to take in a given situation.
B) when you must define the problem more precisely.
C) when you must identify relevant causes of action.
D) when you must gain additional insights before an approach can be developed.
Answer: A
Q3) Determining how to make the research design error-free is a task a researcher must perform in formulating a research design.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Indexes and bibliographies are general business sources of external secondary data that provide brief descriptions of companies, organizations, or individuals.
A)True B)False
Q2) A focus group is an example of a general business source of external secondary data.
A)True B)False
Q3) Computer mapping is a product of Geographic Information Systems (GIS). A)True B)False
Q4) According to the text, bibliographies are organized alphabetically by topic. A)True B)False
Q5) According to the text, the governmental database is a major type of computerized database.
A)True B)False
Q6) In a short essay, explain the appeal of census data to marketers.
Page 6
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Q1) According to the text, ________ are the primary means of obtaining information about consumers' motives, attitudes, and preferences.
A) surveys
B) focus groups
C) secondary research
D) experiments
E) in-depth interviews
Q2) Scanner panels with cable TV are used primarily for all of the following purposes EXCEPT:
A) promotional mix analyses.
B) copy testing.
C) new product testing.
D) positioning.
E) distribution channel selection.
Q3) Nielsen's volume-tracking data service is called InfoScan.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a short essay, describe the uses of scanner data and list at least three advantages and three disadvantages of using scanner data.
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Q1) The main purpose of a focus group is to gain insights on issues of interest to the researcher by listening to a group of people from the appropriate target market.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A projective technique in which respondents are presented with a number of incomplete sentences and asked to complete them is called ________.
A) word association
B) sentence completion
C) story completion
D) role playing
E) evaluation technique
Q3) GlaxoSmithKline Consumer Healthcare used the picture response technique in social media to closely define the customer base for its new line of Alli weight-loss products.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a short essay, discuss the differences between qualitative research and quantitative research.
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Q1) An observational research strategy in which mechanical devices, rather than human observers, record the phenomenon being observed is called mechanical observation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A prepaid incentive is sent to only those respondents who complete the survey.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using mall intercept interviews to collect research data?
A) good for physical stimuli
B) good control of the environment
C) low cost
D) good response rate
E) complex questions can be asked
Q4) The advantages of using in-home interviewing to collect research data include very good sample control and the ability to collect a large quantity of data.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Extraneous variables represent alternative explanations of experimental results.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ is not exposed to the independent variable manipulation but provides a point of comparison when examining the effects of these manipulations on the dependent variable.
A) control group
B) hypothetical group
C) experimental group
D) extraneous group
E) caveat group
Q3) ________ are distinguished by the fact that the researcher can randomly assign test units to experimental groups and also randomly assign treatments to experimental groups.
A) Preexperimental designs
B) True experimental designs
C) Quasi-experimental designs
D) Statistical designs
E) Concurrent designs
Q4) In a short essay, list and discuss the three specific preexperimental designs.
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Q1) Common examples of ordinal scales include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) quality rankings.
B) ranking of teams in a tournament.
C) educational levels.
D) social security numbers.
E) C and D
Q2) An interval scale is a scale in which the numbers are used to rate objects such that numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal distances in the characteristic being measured.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Temperature scales such as Celsius and Fahrenheit are examples of interval scales.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A comparative scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two objects at a time and asked to select one object in the pair according to some criterion is called paired comparison scaling.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A measurement scale with five response categories ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree," which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus object, is called a Stapel scale.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Likert scale is also referred to as a summated scale.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A scale consisting of multiple items, in which an item is a single question or statement to be evaluated, is called a ________.
A) forced rating scale
B) systematic scale
C) multiple measurement scale
D) multi-item scale
E) single question scale
Q4) Explain how continuous rating scales can be easily implemented on the Internet.
Q5) In a short essay, discuss issues related to scale anchors in international research.
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Q1) Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should not be drawn from the same population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A well-designed questionnaire can motivate the respondents and increase the response rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the text, ________ direct respondents to different places in the questionnaire based on their response to the question at hand.
A) branching questions
B) leading questions
C) double-barreled questions
D) filter questions
E) break-out questions
Q4) Pretesting refers to the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents to identify and eliminate potential problems. Discuss what the researcher expects to gain from pretesting the questionnaire.
Q5) In a short essay, list the ten steps to designing the ideal questionnaire.
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Q1) Sampling techniques that do not use chance selection procedures and rely on the personal judgment of the researcher are called ________.
A) probability sampling techniques
B) nonprobability sampling techniques
C) stratified sampling
D) cluster sampling
E) semantic differential sampling
Q2) Every potential nonprobability sample needs to have the same probability of selection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sampling efficiency refers to the trade-off between sampling cost and precision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a great deal of the company's product would need to be consumed as part of the study, then a census would be appropriate.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following enables researchers to take into account anticipated refusals by people who qualify for a research study?
A) completion rate
B) standard rate
C) random rate
D) incidence rate
E) alarm rate
Q2) The rate of occurrence of persons eligible to participate in the study expressed as a percentage is called the completion rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the text, one of the biggest challenges in online research is the ability to ________.
A) generate quality responses
B) generate a truly random sample
C) generate sufficient responses
D) generate a convenience sample
E) generate analysis of variance
Q4) In a short essay, discuss the concept of the sampling distribution.
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Q1) ________ of fieldwork means verifying that field workers are submitting authentic interviews.
A) Verification
B) Validation
C) Pretesting
D) Coding
E) Selection
Q2) Researchers have one choice for collecting their data: hire a data collection agency.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Command is an interviewer characteristic described as "takes charge and can turn refusals around by conveying the purpose of the survey and its importance."
A)True
B)False
Q4) To understand the interviewers' problems, the supervisors should do some interviewing.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) ________ are statistical techniques suitable for analyzing data when there are two or more measurements on each element and the variables are analyzed simultaneously.
A) Univariate techniques
B) Multivariate techniques
C) Random techniques
D) Parallel techniques
E) Uniform techniques
Q2) All of the following computer packages can be programmed to identify out-of-range values for each variable and print out the respondent code, variable code, variable name, record number, column number, and out-of-range value EXCEPT:
A) MINITAB
B) EXCEL
C) SPSS
D) WORD
E) B and D
Q3) The data preparation process begins after the fieldwork is done.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The most common measures of variability are the range and variance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) 39. The chi-square statistic can be estimated on counts of data or on percentages.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the frequency in any cell of a contingency table is low, it is ________.
A) time to stop the analysis
B) OK to ignore this and move on to finish the analysis
C) OK to proceed if the phi coefficient is used
D) time to increase the size of the table
E) time to reduce the size of the table by combining categories
Q4) According to the text, accepting the alternative hypothesis will lead to changes in opinions or actions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the relationship between cross-tabulation and frequency distribution.
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Q6) In a short essay, list and discuss at least three statistics associated with cross-tabulation.

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Q1) Which of the following is the first step in hypothesis testing based on the t statistic?
A) Select the appropriate formula for the t statistic.
B) Take one or two samples and compute the mean.
C) Select a significance level for testing.
D) Refer to statistical tables.
E) Formulate the null (H ) and the alternative (H ) hypotheses.
Q2) The ________ is computed as the ratio of two sample variances.
A) F statistic
B) p statistic
C) t statistic
D) z statistic
E) chi-square statistic
Q3) Non-parametric tests are hypothesis testing procedures that assume the variables of interest are measured on at least an interval scale.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In its simplest form, ANOVA must have a dependent variable that is metric.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When determining the correlation coefficient, r, it does matter which variable is considered to be the dependent variable and which the independent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statistics indicates the degree to which the variation in one variable, X, is related to the variation in another variable, Y?
A) covariance correlation
B) inverse correlation
C) product moment correlation
D) bivariate correlation
E) F-statistic
Q3) All of the following are terms used in regression analysis that arise from the mathematical relationship between the variables EXCEPT:
A) dependent variables.
B) criterion variable.
C) predictor variables.
D) standard variables.
E) independent variables.
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Q1) A report prepared for top management should emphasize the operating details.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A graphical depiction that makes use of small pictures or symbols to display the data is called a pictograph.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the text, a pie chart is not useful for displaying relationships over time or relationships among several variables.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dots or hyphens that are used to impart uniformity and improve readability of a table are called ________.
A) stubs
B) footnotes
C) headings
D) leaders
E) brackets
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