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Quality Management is a course designed to introduce students to the principles, tools, and practices essential for ensuring high-quality products and services in various industries. The course covers key concepts such as Total Quality Management (TQM), continuous improvement, Six Sigma, lean strategies, and quality control methodologies. Students will explore the development and implementation of quality standards, the role of leadership in driving a quality culture, and the use of statistical techniques to measure and improve process performance. Through case studies and practical examples, learners will develop an understanding of how quality management contributes to organizational efficiency, customer satisfaction, and competitive advantage in today's dynamic business environment.
Recommended Textbook
Operations and Supply Management 12th Edition by F. Robert Jacobs
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26 Chapters
1715 Verified Questions
1715 Flashcards
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/60109
Sample Questions
Q1) A business education is complete with an understanding of modern approaches to managing operations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) JIT is an integrated set of activities designed to achieve high-volume production using minimal inventories of parts that arrive at the workstation exactly when they are needed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Because the text states that "at the most fundamental level,operations and supply management is about getting work done quickly,efficiently,without error and at low cost" there is little in the field of operations management that relates to overall corporate strategy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) What United States National Quality Award was started in 1987?
Answer: The Baldridge Award
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a total measure of productivity?
A)Output/Materials
B)Output/(Labor + Capital + Energy)
C)Output/Labor
D)Output/Inputs
E)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Explain the role that "order qualifiers" and "order winners" play as the interface between marketing and operations?
Answer: The student's answer to this question should indicate the usefulness of articulating and differentiating between order winners and order qualifiers.In essence,these factors should indicate the essence of what is required to compete in the marketplace and the ways that the product or service,itself,differentiates itself from competing products and services.This topic is discussed in the text starting on page 25 under the heading "Order Winners and Qualifiers:The Marketing-Operations Link".
Q3) Productivity is a relative measure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) CPM is an abbreviation for Critical Path Method.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) PERT is an abbreviation for which of the following methodologies?
A)Product Evaluation Result and Treatment
B)Programming and Evaluation Realization Technology
C)Program Evaluation and Review Technique
D)Process Evaluation and Review Technology
E)It is a name,not an abbreviation for anything
Answer: C
Q3) An assumption of three-activity-time CPM analysis is that the activity time estimates conform to the beta distribution.Which of the following is a valid criticism of this assumption?
A)Project activities cannot always be networked
B)Project control doesn't focus enough on the critical path
C)Obtaining three valid time estimates to put into the formula is difficult
D)Beta distributions do not occur naturally
E)None of the above
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) In product development,what is the analysis called that works toward simplifying products and processes to achieve equivalent or better performance at lower cost?
Q2) The most basic categories of cash flow for a typical new product do not include:
A)Depreciation
B)Ramp-up cost
C)Development cost
D)Sales revenue
E)Marketing cost
Q3) Consumer electronics is an example of a product developed in which variant of the generic product development process?
A)Technology-push products
B)Customized products
C)Platform products
D)Quick-build products
E)Process-intensive products
Q4) Specialized design firms tend to have highly developed processes that support the needs of particular industries.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The capacity utilization rate is found by dividing best operating level by capacity used.
A)True B)False
Q2) In solving a decision tree problem,calculations start at the ends of the "branches" of the tree and work backwards to the base "trunk" of the tree.
A)True B)False
Q3) Economies of scale and the experience curve have opposite effects on capacity.
A)True B)False
Q4) A capacity cushion is the amount of capacity less than expected demand. A)True B)False
Q5) The frequency of additions to productive capacity should balance the costs of upgrading too frequently and the costs of upgrading too infrequently.
A)True B)False
Q6) What is a capacity cushion and why would a firm have one?
Page 7
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50 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A "process" is any part of an organization that takes inputs and transforms them into outputs that,hopefully,are of greater value to the organization than the original inputs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following terms describes the time a unit spends actually being worked on together with the time spent waiting in a queue?
A)Cycle time
B)Throughput time
C)Run time
D)Setup time
E)Efficiency
Q3) A diamond is conventionally used in a process flowchart to represent a storage area or queue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Utilization of a production process is the ratio of output to input.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that you are offered a new piece of equipment for $10,000.The equipment will produce 10,000 units per year with a margin of $6.00 per unit.Demand for the product being produced has been 2,000 units per year.Your current equipment is fully depreciated and can produce the 2,000 units per year at but at a margin of only $4.00 per unit.Under what conditions should you purchase the new equipment?
Q2) One methodology used to evaluate equipment investment decisions where the investment entails a large initial investment,fixed costs and variable costs is break-even analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The choice of which process structure to select is generally a function of the volume requirements for the product.
A)True B)False
Q4) A continuous process flow indicates production of discrete parts moving from workstation to workstation at a controlled rate.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Poka-Yoke is roughly translated from Japanese as "Quality Management".
A)True
B)False
Q2) Service guarantees can be used at the service design stage to focus the firm's delivery system on the things it must do well to satisfy the customer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Services often take the form of cycles of encounters involving face-to-face interactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Marketing is responsible for both the "service promise" and "fulfillment of service promise" elements of Services.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One characteristic of a well-designed service system is that it is cost-effective.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fundamental to any quality program is the determination of quality specifications and the costs of achieving (or not achieving)those specifications.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the cost of quality classification for costs such as scrap,rework or repair?
A)Appraisal costs
B)Prevention costs
C)External failure costs
D)Internal failure costs
E)Rework and wastage
Q3) A flow chart as part of a six-sigma quality improvement process might be found in which DMAIC category?
A)Define
B)Measure
C)Analyze
D)Improve
E)Control
Q4) Why were ISO-9000 standards developed?
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Hau Lee's uncertainty framework to classify supply chains,a supply chain that has functional products and an evolving supply process is called which of the following?
A)Efficient
B)Forward looking
C)Agile
D)Risk hedging
E)Responsive
Q2) In Hau Lee's uncertainty framework to classify supply chains,a supply chain that has functional products and a stable supply process is called which of the following?
A)Efficient
B)Forward looking
C)Agile
D)Risk hedging
E)Responsive
Q3) Outsourcing is the act of moving some of a firm's internal activities and decision responsibility to outside providers.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major problem in a plant location decision based on the factor-rating system is that simple point-rating schemes do not account for the wide variance of costs that may occur within each factor used in the analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a not criterion that influences manufacturing plant or warehouse facility location decisions?
A)Suppliers
B)Free trade zones
C)Political risk
D)Gross national product
E)Tariffs and customs duties
Q3) Which of the following is not a criterion that influences manufacturing plant or warehouse facility location decisions?
A)Government barriers
B)Trading blocs
C)Environmental regulation
D)Immigration rules
E)Local labor costs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are key inventory reduction targets under lean production?
A)FIFO inventory
B)Hidden inventory
C)Safety stock
D)Lost inventory
E)Ladder inventory
Q2) Respect for people is a key to the Japanese improvement ideas in manufacturing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One of the many JIT techniques that have been successfully applied in service firms is the eliminating of unnecessary activities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) "Kanban Squares" is an educational game played in Kanban training sessions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name Fujio Cho's seven prominent types of waste to be eliminated.
Q6) Explain why lean manufacturing requires a stable demand environment.
Q7) What seven design principles guide the design of lean supply chains?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The value chain provides a structure to capture the linkage of organizational activities that create value for the customer and profit for the firm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the principles of reengineering is which of the following?
A)Quality at the source
B)Have those who use the output of a process perform the process
C)Do not select suppliers on the basis of price alone
D)Leverage high cost employees with lower cost employees
E)Downsize your headcount while outsourcing non-essential activities
Q3) One of the cost impact and payoff analysis tools from the operations consulting tool kit is bottleneck analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List three managerial guidelines for implementation of reengineering.
Q5) Operations consulting deals with assisting clients in developing operations strategies and improving production processes.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following firms is not listed as a major developer of ERP software?
A)SCLogicx
B)Microsoft Corporation
C)I2Technologies
D)JDA
E)Oracle
Q2) SAP's Corporate Services segment includes the ability to manage all types of corporate assets including "human capital".
A)True
B)False
Q3) SAP AG sells an ERP product called R/2D-2.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following areas is not addressed by an SAP module?
A)Financial accounting
B)Marketing
C)Human resources
D)Manufacturing and logistics
E)Sales and distribution
Q5) What are the three tiers in the SAP Client/Server configuration?
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105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are using an exponential smoothing model for forecasting.The running sum of the forecast error statistics (RSFE)are calculated each time a forecast is generated.You find the last RSFE to be 34.Originally the forecasting model used was selected because it's relatively low MAD of 0.4.To determine when it is time to re-evaluate the usefulness of the exponential smoothing model you compute tracking signals.Which of the following is the resulting tracking system?
A)85
B)60
C)13.6
D)12.9
E)8
Q2) A company has had actual unit demand for four consecutive years of 100,110,125 and 150.The respective forecasts using exponential smoothing were 120 for each of those four years.What value of alpha,the smoothing constant,was the firm using?
Q3) Exponential smoothing is always the most accurate of all forecasting models.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Distinguish between "dependent" and "independent" demand?
Q5) Distinguish between errors in statistics and errors in forecasting?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The aggregate operations plan translates annual and quarterly business plans into broad labor and output plans for the intermediate term of 3 to 18 months.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Yield management is an effective tool that can be used to shape demand patterns.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The aggregate operations planning variable "workforce Level" refers to the number of workers needed to accomplish the planned production.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the five conditions named in the text that support yield management from an operational perspective?
Q5) What are the three basic production planning strategies?
Q6) The sales and operations planning process consists of a series of meetings. A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the aggregate sales and operations planning process?
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Sample Questions
Q1) A company wants to determine its reorder point (R).Demand is variable and they want to build a safety stock into R.If the average daily demand is 12,the lead time is 5 days,the desired "z" value is 1.96 and the standard deviation of usage during lead time is 3,which of the following is the desired value of R?
A)About 6
B)About 16
C)About 61
D)About 66
E)About 79
Q2) If a vendor has correctly used marginal analysis to select their stock Levels for the day (as in the newsperson problem)and the profit resulting from the last unit being sold (MP)is $120 and the loss resulting from that unit if it is not sold (ML)is $360,which of the following is the probability of the last unit being sold?
A)Greater than 0.10
B)Greater than 0.15
C)Greater than 0.25
D)Greater than 0.45
E)None of the above
Q3) What are the five purposes of inventory?
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Q1) Generally,determining lot sizes in MRP systems is simple.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The least total cost method (LTC)lot-sizing technique calculates the order quantity by comparing the carrying cost and the setup (or ordering)costs for various lot sizes and then selects the lot in which these are most nearly equal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the name given to the manufacturing software that combines MRP and JIT logic?
Q4) The economic order quantity (EOQ)lot sizing technique uses the "square root formula" to balance set-up cost,carrying cost and cost of stock-outs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a net change MRP system requirements and schedules are considered rigid and never updated.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the main difference between MRP and closed loop MRP?
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Sample Questions
Q1) MES and SES are acronyms for "Manufacturing Environment Scheduler" and "Service Environment Scheduler" systems,respectively.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The FCFS priority rule used in sequencing production jobs will always result in a better solution than the LCFS rule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Shop-floor control (or production activity control)can involve reviewing the status and controlling the progress of orders as they are being worked on.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A work center is a physical area of the business in which productive resources are organized and work is completed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the context of work assignment,what is infinite loading?
Q6) What is the difference between finite and infinite loading?
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Q1) Which of the following is one of Dr.Eli Goldratt's rules of production scheduling for optimized production technology?
A)If you lose an hour at a bottleneck it is better than making scrap
B)Do not balance capacity,balance the flow
C)Do not allow bottlenecks to govern the flow of the line
D)An hour saved at a bottleneck operation is a mirage
E)A the amount in a process batch should be fixed when the batch is begun and not changed over time or along its route
Q2) Buffer inventory in front of a bottleneck is called a time buffer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Smaller transfer batches give lower work-in-process inventory and faster product flow.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Departments within a firm often are at odds with each other because reward systems are often not synchronized with the basic goal of the firm: to make money.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In the formulation of a linear programming model we expect to see a requirement on all the decision variables to be either zero or some positive value.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Minimizing the amount of scrap material generated by cutting steel,leather or fabric from a roll or sheet of stock material is one kind of problem that cannot be solved by linear programming.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An objective function in a linear program can be which of the following?
A)A maximization function
B)A nonlinear maximization function
C)A quadratic maximization function
D)An uncertain quantity
E)A divisible additive function
Q4) The decision variables in a linear programming model must be non-negative.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the shadow price of a non-binding constraint? Why is this so?
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Q1) A company can produce a product the first time at a cost of $2,500.If their 85 percent Learning Curve allows them to reduce their costs on each product,what is the total cost of producing 400 units of the new product?
Q2) You time someone completing a single task the first time at 120 minutes and the second time they do the task it takes 108 minutes.You should use a 90 percent Learning Curve to estimate the length of time this worker will take to complete this task in the future.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is a learning curve?
Q4) If a person performing a task has been achieving a 75 percent learning curve and you know that the task will end after the 80<sup>th</sup> unit,the last unit produced will take 17.12 percent as much time as the first unit.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A learning curve shows the increase in time required for each successive unit completed.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In work sampling,which one of the following main issues must be decided before undertaking the study?
A)How much money will be saved
B)How many observations are necessary
C)What is the ratio of time to money savings
D)Whether a stop watch or video camera should be used
E)What data shall be collected
Q2) Job enrichment generally entails adjusting a specialized job to make it more interesting to the jobholder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the four reasons that time standards are necessary as given in the text?
Q4) Work groups can handle many production problems better than management if they are permitted to make their own decisions on scheduling and work allocation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the four basic methods for measuring work and setting standards?
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Q1) Arrival characteristics in a queuing problem include the length of the queue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a waiting line situation,multiple lines occur only when there are multiple servers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are the three major components of a queuing system?
A)The source population,how customers exit the system and the queuing discipline
B)The number of servers,the service speed and the waiting line
C)The source population,how the customer exits the system and the queue discipline
D)The source population and the way customers arrive at the system,the serving systems and how customers exit the system
E)The service speed,the queue discipline and the waiting line
Q4) The demand on a hospital's emergency medical services is considered an uncontrollable arrival pattern of the calling population.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) You want to determine the lower control line for a "p" chart for quality control purposes.You take several samples of a size of 50 items in your production process.From the samples you determine the fraction defective is 0.006 and the standard deviation is 0.001.If the desired confidence level is 99.7 percent,which of the following is the resulting LCL value for the line?
A)0.0
B)0.002
C)0.003
D)0.004
E)None of the above
Q2) The value for "z" used in quality control charts is based on the degree of confidence you want to have in the resulting UCL and LCL values.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Processes produce goods and services that have some measurable variation in attributes.What is the quality philosophy that companies which insist on design tolerances set six standard deviations of attribute variation away from the mean are operating under?
Q4) What is the symbol designating the capability index?
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Q1) General-Purpose Simulation Software (GPSS)is really a computer language that allows programmers to build their own simulation models.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the major phases of a simulation study?
Q3) In a simulation model time cannot be advanced by variable time increments. A)True
B)False
Q4) An empirical probability distribution used in a simulation study is one derived from a standard mathematical distribution like the normal or Poisson probability distributions. A)True
B)False
Q5) Having animation capabilities to graphically display product flows through a production system is not considered a desirable feature of simulation software systems. A)True
B)False
Q6) What are two ways that time is incremented in simulation models?
Q7) What is the role of judgment in simulation?
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