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Pulmonary Rehabilitation Pre-Test Questions - 861 Verified Questions

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Pulmonary Rehabilitation Pre-Test

Questions

Course Introduction

Pulmonary Rehabilitation is an interdisciplinary course designed to provide students with comprehensive knowledge and skills in the management and rehabilitation of patients with chronic respiratory diseases. The course covers the physiological basis of pulmonary conditions, the principles and components of pulmonary rehabilitation programs, and the integration of exercise, education, psychosocial support, and behavior modification. Emphasis is placed on patient assessment, treatment planning, evaluation of outcomes, and the role of a multidisciplinary team in optimizing respiratory health and enhancing patients' quality of life. Students will also explore current research, guidelines, and case studies to prepare for effective clinical practice in various healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Evidence to Practice 5th Edition by

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861 Verified Questions

861 Flashcards

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Page 2

Donna Frownfelter

Chapter 1: Epidemiology As a Basis for Informing Contemporary

Physical Therapy Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) The World Health Organization definition of health encompasses which of the following dimensions?

A) Physical and emotional well-being and home environment

B) Emotional, physical, and educational well-being

C) Physical, emotional, and social well-being

D) Emotional, physical, and cultural well-being

Answer: C

Q2) One of the concepts of the health belief model is self-efficacy,which is defined as:

A) confidence in one's ability to take action.

B) one's belief in the seriousness of a condition.

C) strategies to activate "readiness."

D) one's belief of the chances of getting a condition.

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Oxygen Transport: the Basis of Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The diaphragm is the primary muscle of respiration.All of the following factors or conditions have the potential to impede diaphragmatic excursion except:

A) size of the diaphragm muscle.

B) space-occupying lesion.

C) gastrointestinal obstruction.

D) increased abdominal pressure.

Answer: A

Q2) When considering the implementation of a wellness program for individuals with oxygen transportation conditions,it is important to minimize the other factors that can perturb the system in healthy individuals.All of the following are such perturbations except:

A) decreased mobility.

B) gravitational stress.

C) exercise stress.

D) emotional stress.

Answer: A

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4

Chapter 3: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Anatomy

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Q1) The accessory action of the internal intercostal muscles is said to be:

A) inspiration.

B) expiration.

C) both inspiration and expiration.

D) neither inspiration nor expiration.

Answer: C

Q2) The sternocleidomastoid (SCM)muscle is considered an accessory muscle of respiration.When the head is fixed,the SCM muscle creates an increase in the anteroposterior diameter of the thorax.However,this is not the primary function of this muscle.What does the SCM do when not serving as an accessory respiratory muscle?

A) When one contracts, the head flexes.

B) When one contracts, the head side bends toward the shoulder of the same side and the face rotates opposite.

C) When one contracts, the head rotates and side bends toward the shoulder of the same side.

D) When both contract, the head extends.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) There are four common heart sounds.Two of the sounds are identified as normal and two as abnormal.The normal high-pitched sound is which of the following?

A) S1

B) S2

C) S3

D) S4

Q2) A patient with a history of smoking has a recent decrease in oxygen saturation and is seen for a wellness program.The physical therapist determines that the PCO level is normal but the PO level is decreased.All other measures of the pulmonary system taken that day appear normal; this patient likely has a problem with:

A) perfusion.

B) diffusion.

C) ventilation.

D) none of the above.

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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Pathophysiology

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Q1) A patient who survives a complicate myocardial infarction is at a direct risk of developing:

A) type II diabetes mellitus.

B) heart failure.

C) sarcoidosis.

D) athletic heart syndrome.

Q2) A patient recovering from cardiac surgery is at risk for developing which type of dysrhythmia?

A) Sinus tachycardia

B) Ventricular tachycardia

C) Conduction block

D) Atrial fibrillation

Q3) To distinguish between right- and left-sided heart failure,the health care practitioner should likely have the patient undergo which diagnostic imaging procedure?

A) Computed tomography

B) Magnetic resonance imaging

C) Fluoroscopy with contrast medium

D) Doppler echocardiography

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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Manifestations of Systemic Conditions

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Q1) A patient with a diagnosis of HIV is complaining of dyspnea and hemoptysis.The patient describes the presence of a cough,and plain radiographs demonstrate diffuse pulmonary infiltrates.This patient has had several bouts of pneumonia within the past year; he has sought treatment but finds it difficult to stay on a regimen given his travel (the patient resides abroad).He is likely to be diagnosed with which condition?

A) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

B) Tuberculosis

C) Klebsiella pneumonia

D) Legionella pneumonia

Q2) A patient seen by a physical therapist after a stroke with the clinical presentation of abdominal muscle weakness and pharyngeal weakness is at risk for:

A) diaphragmatic excursion.

B) aspiration.

C) unilateral posture.

D) impaired biomechanics.

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Chapter 7: Measurement and Documentation

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Q1) What is required from a clinician to create a patient-identified problem?

A) Final outcomes of treatment at patient discharge from therapy

B) Only the initial diagnosis

C) Only the objective data collective during the evaluation

D) All data collected in the patient evaluation

Q2) Which of the following is not an objective measurement?

A) Heart rate measured by a computerized ECG system

B) Assessment of a patient's breath sounds

C) Blood pressure measured with an intraarterial catheter

D) Oxygen consumption measured with a metabolic system

Q3) What is the purpose of the physical therapy diagnosis?

A) It eliminates the problem list.

B) It ignores the physician's diagnosis.

C) It has no purpose.

D) It serves to drive the selection of interventions.

Q4) Which is the best example of a nominal measurement?

A) A classification of heart failure

B) Grade 1 angina

C) 0° Celsius

D) 0° Kelvin

Page 9

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Chapter 8: History

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Q1) Which is not a cause of coughing?

A) Congestive heart failure

B) Aortic aneurysms decreasing pressure on the bronchi

C) A large left atrium displacing the left mainstem bronchus upward

D) Acute left-side heart failure

Q2) Which is not true regarding dyspnea in cardiopulmonary patients?

A) Is not usually related to metabolic acidosis-induced hydrogen ion stimulus.

B) Increased pressure in the right side of the heart and pulmonary circulation during exertion may stimulate mechanoreceptors that increase ventilation and induce dyspnea.

C) A recent onset of dyspnea is more characteristic of heart failure than of chronic lung disease, which has a longer, more insidious onset.

D) Acute pulmonary problems such as pneumothorax, atelectasis, pneumonia, and other conditions superimposed on chronic lung disease can also explain a recent intensi cation of symptoms.

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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Tests

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true?

A) Additional contributing factors, such as morbid obesity, pregnancy, an enlarged heart, and pulmonary effusion, may involve increase of expansion of the lungs.

B) Residual volume (RV) is the volume of gas that remains in the lungs at the beginning of a maximum expiration.

C) A decrease in vital capacity (VC) may also be seen without primary lung disease or airway obstruction.

D) Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of air remaining in the lungs at the resting expiratory level. It contains the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) and the inspiration capacity (IC).

Q2) Which best describes a restrictive condition of the lungs?

A) A condition that relates to restrictions in exhalation airflow

B) A condition that limits the amount of volume coming into the lungs

C) A condition that increases air volume coming into the lungs

D) A condition that increases the volume in exhalation

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Chapter 10: Arterial Blood Gases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which best describes Dalton's law?

A) In a mixture of gases, the partial pressure is equal to the sum of the total pressures of the separate gases.

B) In a mixture of gases, the total pressure is unequal to the sum of the partial pressures of the separate gases.

C) In a solitary gas, the total pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the separate gases.

D) In a mixture of gases, the total pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the separate gases.

Q2) What do the gradients of gases across a semipermeable membrane show?

A) Gradients from higher concentrations to lower concentrations

B) Gradients from lower concentrations to higher concentrations

C) No change in gradients

D) Gradients from equal concentrations to higher concentrations

Q3) What is the main route for the body to expel normal metabolic acids?

A) The skin

B) The lungs

C) The kidneys

D) The gastrointestinal tract

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Chapter 11: Imaging of the Chest

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Sample Questions

Q1) What general anatomy should be identified in a chest radiograph?

A) Spine, sternum, and pelvis

B) Mediastinum and great vessels

C) Heart and esophagus

D) Main bronchi and femoral artery

Q2) Which of the following is considered the standard views for chest radiographs?

A) A superoanterior (PA) and a left lateral view

B) A posteroanterior (PA) and a left lateral view

C) A posteroanterior (PA) and a right lateral view

D) A superoanterior (PA) and a right lateral view

Q3) Which of the following is not an initial step when evaluating a radiograph?

A) Check that the information identifying the patient has been properly provided on the image and that the image is indeed of the patient in question.

B) Check that the part of the body in question is the part that was imaged.

C) Check that there are three images, one for each plane of movement.

D) Check the overall exposure of the film.

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Chapter 12: Electrocardiogram Identification

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the 10th electrode on a standard 12 lead ECG is used for?

A) To monitor the frontal plane

B) To monitor the transverse plane

C) To monitor the sagittal plane

D) To stabilize the baseline

Q2) With regard to a patient's readiness for activity or participation in a cardiac rehabilitation program,which of the following does not need to be able to be answered by the rehabilitation professional?

A) Recognition of heart rhythms and their associated variations

B) Implications of a rhythms systemic and hemodynamic effects

C) Benign heart rhythms

D) All of the above

Q3) When considering a third-degree heart block,which of the following is true?

A) Third-degree block is considered an incomplete heart block.

B) Third-degree block has a 1:1 ratio of P wave to QRS complexes.

C) Third-degree block have a progressively longer P-R interval until a P wave is fails to conduct to the ventricles.

D) Third-degree block is treated with implantation of a pacemaker.

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Chapter 13: Multisystem Assessment and Laboratory Investigations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following acts on renal tubules to result in the reabsorption of water and more concentrated urine?

A) ADH

B) BUN

C) creatinine

D) None of the above

Q2) What is a normal total cholesterol level for a man younger than the age of 40 years?

A) 50 mg/dL

B) 100 mg/dL

C) 150 mg/dL

D) 300 mg/dL

Q3) Which test is used to assess bleeding capacity?

A) Thrombin time

B) Capillary filling time

C) CBC

D) BUN

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Chapter 14: Special Tests

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Q1) Which of the following-the modality of choice for pericardium evaluation-also allows the measurement of right and left ventricular volumes,ejection fraction,and cardiac output?

A) CT

B) MRI

C) Radiography

D) Echocardiography

Q2) Which test for the cardiovascular system would be most appropriate for a patient with an irregular heart beat who has difficulty exercising?

A) Treadmill stress test

B) First-pass study

C) Gated equilibrium scan

D) Pharmacologic stress study

Q3) What type of imaging is valuable in delineating myocardial areas with reversible and irreversible injury and uses short scanning times of 5" to 35"?

A) SPECT

B) PET

C) Planar

D) TEE

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Clinical Evaluation and Assessment of the Cardiovascular

and Pulmonary

Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which breathing pattern exists when respiration is slowed to less than 12 breaths/min?

A) Tachypnea

B) Bradypnea

C) Eupnea

D) Kussmaul breathing

Q2) Which heart sound is normal in children and young adults but abnormal in individuals older than age 40 years?

A) S1

B) S2

C) S3

D) S4

Q3) Which structural chest deformity describes a depressed lower sternum that usually causes restriction only when it is severe?

A) Flail chest

B) Pigeon chest

C) Pectus carinatum

D) Pectus excavatum

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Chapter 16: Monitoring Systems, catheters, and Devices in the Intensive Care Unit

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following provides information about the adequacy of right heart function given that it is measured using a catheter advanced into the right atrium?

A) CVP

B) PAP

C) LAP

D) LVP

Q2) Which of the following factors contribute to an individual's overall stress,leading to possible complication in the form of acute distress disorder?

A) Pain management

B) Length of ICU stay

C) ICU experience

D) All of the above

Q3) Which of the following is an indicator of fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance?

A) Hypertension

B) Sinus tachycardia

C) Jugular pulse visible at a 45-degree sitting angle

D) Atrial dysrhythmias

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Maximizing Outcomes: Relating Interventions to an Individuals Needs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The position of optimal physiological function is:

A) being upright and moving.

B) lying horizontal.

C) sitting with legs at a 90-degree angle.

D) being in a standing position.

Q2) Health has been defined by the World Health Organization as:

A) the absence of pathology.

B) a person's capacity to live a life consistent with his or her needs and wants.

C) emotional, spiritual, intellectual, and physical well-being.

D) a and

Q3) Physical therapists often require the results of invasive tests such as:

A) bronchoscopy.

B) blood work.

C) invasive hemodynamic monitoring.

D) b and

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Chapter 18: Mobilization and Exercise: Physiological Basis for Assessment,

evaluation, and Training

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Q1) Return to work is often related to oxygen transport capacity in terms of:

A) aerobic and muscle power.

B) mobilization and exercise.

C) stress level and social contact.

D) capacity for activity and participation.

Q2) The goals of mobilization and exercise are directed at:

A) correcting impairments and enhancing the patient's capacity for activity and participation.

B) estimating the limits of a patient's physiological tolerance for mobilization.

C) identifying the specific effects of exercise required and define the optimal therapeutic stimulus.

D) adapting the prescription based on the patient's needs.

Q3) An intervention-related factor that contributes to increased metabolic demand and oxygen consumption is:

A) fever.

B) noise.

C) anxiety.

D) range of motion exercises.

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Chapter 19: Mobilization and Exercise: Testing and Training

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Sample Questions

Q1) The head-down position augments oxygen transport in some patients by:

A) improving pulmonary mechanics.

B) inhibiting pulmonary mechanics.

C) improving cardiac mechanics.

D) inhibiting cardiac mechanics.

Q2) Frequent body position changes are used by physical therapists to stimulate:

A) circulation and increase blood flow to the extremities.

B) the patient and increase arousal to a more alert and wakeful state.

C) the patient's awareness of their therapy session.

D) the patient's hand-eye coordination.

Q3) In the mid-1800s,the use of immobilization to heal bones and injuries was extended to the:

A) management of other conditions.

B) treatment of hypotension.

C) treatment of hypertension.

D) kidney stones.

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21

Chapter 20: Body Positioning

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Q1) Shaking consists of a bouncing maneuver in a rhythmic fashion throughout exhalation:

A) over the xyphoid process.

B) along the sternum.

C) against the thoracic wall.

D) between the ribs.

Q2) ACT is the acronym for:

A) advanced cardiac treatment.

B) avascular coronary treatment.

C) airway clearance techniques.

D) always clear trachea.

Q3) Contraindications for postural drainage are:

A) empyema and large pleural effusions.

B) empyema, large pleural effusions, and pulmonary embolism.

C) large pleural effusions and pulmonary embolism.

D) empyema and pulmonary embolism.

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22

Chapter 21: Airway Clearance Techniques

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Q1) Inhalation of prescribed bronchodilator medications should take placed before:

A) administration of supplemental oxygen to improve alveolar respiration.

B) airway clearance maneuvers to improve secretion removal by opening the airways.

C) determining the patients resting vital signs.

D) after airway clearance maneuvers to maintain open airways.

Q2) Shaking involves:

A) a gentle high-frequency force.

B) a more vigorous force.

C) a rhythmic oscillatory force.

D) a gentle low-frequency force.

Q3) Light percussion,_______ and ________ are used in conjunction with postural drainage positioning:

A) vibration, clapping

B) clapping, shaking

C) vibration, shaking

D) soft clapping, shaking

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Chapter 22: Facilitating Airway Clearance With Coughing Techniques

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Q1) For both assisted and self-assisted coughs,initial positioning and ventilator strategies are of utmost importance to the:

A) success of insufflation technique.

B) success of exsufflation technique.

C) success of the airway clearance technique.

D) success of upper respiratory therapies.

Q2) A complete lack of glottal closure will not produce any cough or sound because:

A) pulmonary function has been compromised.

B) the vocal folds are not approximating (adducting).

C) respiratory function has been compromised.

D) the focal folds are not separating (abducting).

Q3) Patients with emphysema have overdistended lungs and:

A) difficulty in exhalation.

B) difficulty in inhalation.

C) difficulty in mobilization.

D) difficulty clearing their airway.

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24

Chapter 23: Facilitating Ventilation Patterns and Breathing Strategies

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Q1) Normal breathing,repeated rhythmic inspiratory-expiratory cycles,is known as: A) eupnea.

B) hyperpnea.

C) apnea.

D) Cheyne-Stokes respiration

Q2) Inhalation promotes trunk extension,and exhalation promotes: A) trunk side flexion (right).

B) trunk elongation.

C) trunk flexion.

D) trunk side flexion (left).

Q3) Positioning the patient for respiratory success is important before beginning the patient's therapy or daily-living activities.All of the following positions are associated with the respiratory pattern EXCEPT:

A) trunk flexion.

B) trunk extension.

C) shoulder adduction, internal rotation.

D) shoulder abduction, external rotation.

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Exercise Testing and Training: Primary

Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction

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Q1) Without training postoperatively,exercise tolerance remains severely limited over the first:

A) 10 months.

B) 12 months.

C) 16 months.

D) 18 months.

Q2) Noninvasive cardiac and pulmonary rehabilitation is more cost effective than medical and surgical treatments.All of the following are considered noninvasive EXCEPT:

A) smoking cessation.

B) angioplasty.

C) nutrition and weight control.

D) self-management training.

Q3) Patients with severe chronic heart failure often have high ventilatory demands during exercise,and they have:

A) metabolic acidosis.

B) respiratory acidosis.

C) metabolic alkalosis.

D) respiratory alkalosis.

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Chapter 25: Exercise Testing and Training: Secondary

Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction

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Q1) Which of the following complicates the clinical picture within weeks after a stroke?

A) Pulmonary deconditioning

B) Aerobic training

C) Cardiorespiratory deconditioning

D) Strength training

Q2) Compared with the general population,what two things are more common in persons with Down syndrome?

A) Cardiac defects and sleep apnea

B) Cardiac defects and diabetes

C) Pulmonary dysfunction and sleep apnea

D) Pulmonary dysfunction and anemia

Q3) Crohn disease is characterized by disturbed homeostasis in which body system?

A) Neurologic

B) Pulmonary

C) Cardiovascular

D) Intestinal

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Chapter 26: Respiratory Muscle Training

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Q1) Abnormal respiratory muscle function plays an important role in people with chronic heart failure (CHF)in:

A) extended exercise sessions.

B) extended periods of rest.

C) premature exercise termination.

D) exertional dyspnea.

Q2) To prevent chest wall and lung recoil pressures from contributing to the pressure generated by the inspiratory muscles,measurements are recorded for:

A) residual capacity (RC).

B) total lung capacity (TLC).

C) inspiratory reserve (IR).

D) functional residual capacity (FRC).

Q3) All of the following characteristics are aims of training the respiratory muscles to improve EXCEPT:

A) expiratory muscle contraction force.

B) velocity.

C) inspiratory muscle contraction force

D) compliance.

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Chapter 27: Complementary Therapies As

Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy Interventions

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Q1) Rolfing is an approach that uses a:

A) light touch to balance energy flow, partly by balancing the flow of cerebral spinal fluid during its circulation around the meninges of the cranium and down the spinal column

B) deep connective tissue massage to loosen fascial restrictions and line up the structure of bones, muscles and organs so the body has a more vertical relation to gravity

C) form of hands-on therapy with the goal being to enhance relaxation and emotional awareness

D) manipulation of tissue through the skin with the intention of bringing about a change in the present condition of the mind/body

Q2) Chinese medicine focuses on:

A) enhancing the flow of chi along body pathways or meridians

B) movement awareness techniques

C) acupressure

D) acupuncture

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Chapter 28: Patient Education

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Q1) _______ can be useful in implementing the behavior approach.

A) Patient education objectives

B) Learning needs assessments

C) Health care contacts

D) Cardiopulmonary patient education

Q2) Physical therapists believe that:

A) patient-clinician rapport is the most important education objective.

B) meditation should always be included in patient education.

C) patient education is an important part of patient care.

D) relaxation and emotional awareness should be a main focus in patient education.

Q3) The primary mode of transmission of culture is:

A) friendship.

B) spirituality.

C) education.

D) language.

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Chapter 29: Individuals With Acute Medical Conditions

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Q1) You have been consulted to evaluate and treat a patient in the cardiac step-down unit.The patient is 2 days post acute myocardial infarction.Upon meeting the patient,you assess the vital signs and objectively get the following measures: blood pressure (BP),134/65 mm Hg; heart rate (HR),99 beats/min; and pulse oximeter reading,98%.Which of the following treatment decisions would be MOST appropriate?

A) Ten minutes of ambulation in the hallway with a HR of 119 beats/min

B) Ten minutes of biking with a HR of 135 beats/min

C) Ten minutes of running on treadmill with a HR of 165 beats/min

D) All of the above are contraindicated

Q2) A patient with acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis:

A) is cachectic and red or pink in color.

B) has increased vital capacity.

C) uses less accessory muscles.

D) intermittently exhibits sternal retractions.

Q3) Emphysema is characterized by:

A) productive cough.

B) bronchial breath sounds in peripheral lobes.

C) decreased lung elastic recoil.

D) absence of bullae.

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Page 31

Chapter 30: Individuals With Acute Surgical Conditions

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Q1) The most common incision(s)used for thoracic surgery is/are ___________________?

A) posterolateral thoracotomy

B) median sternotomy

C) supraclavicular thoracotomy

D) a and b

Q2) Which of the following would be considered an extrinsic factor contributing to cardiovascular and pulmonary function in the postoperative period?

A) Surgical procedure

B) Patient's conditioning level

C) Hydration

D) Stress level

Q3) All of the following are true about the immediate postoperative period EXCEPT:

A) rest is as important as activity.

B) patients may be using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA).

C) therapists should determine the benefits of nonpharmacologic interventions.

D) oversedation results in an increased respiratory rate.

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Chapter 31: Individuals With Chronic Primary

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary

Dysfunction

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Q1) All of the following are true regarding health-related quality of life in individuals with chronic heart failure EXCEPT:

A) it is associated with ejection fraction.

B) it is associated with function.

C) it is associated with exercise capacity.

D) it provides important nonphysiologic information.

Q2) Which of the following is TRUE about antianginal medication?

A) It should be used before treatment sessions.

B) It should be used any time the patient becomes symptomatic during therapy.

C) It can cause a decrease in blood pressure.

D) All of the above

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a principal external causative factor of chronic airflow limitation?

A) Inhaled irritants

B) Alcoholism

C) Allergens

D) Infections

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Individuals With Chronic Secondary

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary

Dysfunction

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Q1) Patients with scleroderma may present with esophageal involvement.All of the following would be precautions to take with these patients EXCEPT:

A) avoid recumbency.

B) do not have patients exercise immediately after a meal.

C) educate patient to have well-spaced larger meals.

D) all of the above are precautions.

Q2) Which of the following contributes to pulmonary compromise in a patient with Parkinson disease?

A) Spasticity

B) Chest wall rigidity

C) Hypotonicity

D) Hypervigilance

Q3) Which of the following should be monitored when working with a patient with muscular dystrophy?

A) Rate pressure product

B) Rate of perceived exertion

C) Blood pressure

D) All of the above

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Chapter 33: Comprehensive Management of Individuals in the Intensive Care Unit

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Q1) What is the primary intervention choice to maximize oxygen transport?

A) Acute mobilization and upright positioning

B) Ventilation and mobilization

C) Acute mobilization only

D) Positioning with restricted mobility

Q2) What would be the best way to wean an obese patient from the use of a mechanical ventilator?

A) Wean in a semirecumbent position.

B) Wean in a supine position.

C) Wean in a 90-degree upright position.

D) Wean in a prone position.

Q3) What change in an ICU patient is associated with reduced cardiac output,reduced blood pressure,hypoxemia,hypercapnia,and increased cranial pressure?

A) Impairment of neuromuscular status

B) Length of stay

C) Maximized oxygen transport

D) Mechanical ventilation will be necessary

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Intensive Care Management of Individuals

With Primary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction

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Q1) Which of the following is not a common complication related to a patient's premorbid status before open heart surgery?

A) Lung collapse

B) Deep vein thrombosis

C) Stroke

D) Pulmonary emboli

Q2) What pathophysiological deficits are present with advanced chronic airflow limitation caused by acute respiratory failure?

A) Decreased compliance of alveolar tissue

B) Increased diffusing capacity

C) Hyperinflated chest wall

D) Rounded hemidiaphragms

Q3) What body position has been shown to have the greatest benefit for the patient with acute respiratory failure?

A) Sitting upright in a chair at the bedside

B) Scheduled four point turning

C) Randomized positioning

D) High Fowler position

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Chapter 35: Intensive Care Management of Individuals

With Secondary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction

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Q1) Which of the following body positions will reduce respiratory distress to the greatest extent in a patient with neuromuscular dysfunction?

A) Supine in bed with the feet elevated

B) Sitting in bed with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees

C) Upright and leaning forward

D) Sitting in a chair at the bedside

Q2) Which of the following does not contribute to impaired mucociliary transport and secretion accumulation?

A) Bronchospasm

B) Increased airway diameter

C) Impaired mobility

D) Inability to cough effectively

Q3) In treating a trauma patient,both active and passive relaxation techniques should be used.Which of the following is not a method of passive relaxation?

A) Use of physical supports

B) Use of body positioning

C) Talking slowly

D) All of these are passive techniques

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Chapter 36: Intensive Care Management of Medical and Surgical Complications

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Q1) In what manner is a cardiac dysrhythmia in the presence of respiratory failure and absence of cardiac disease usually managed?

A) Use of Swan-Ganz catheter

B) Mechanical ventilation

C) Electrocardiographic monitoring

D) Correction of blood-gas abnormalities

Q2) A patient with acute lung injury presents with atelectasis and loss of lung compliance because of the impairment of the production of surfactant and pulmonary fluid that covers the alveolar epithelium.Which type(s)of alveolar cell is/are damaged?

A) Type I

B) Type II

C) Types I and II

D) Type III

Q3) Which of the following is a not a condition that predisposes a patient to multiorgan system failure (MOSF)?

A) Sepsis

B) Overwhelming infection

C) Shock

D) Tissue perfusion deficits

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Chapter 37: Infants and Children With Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Concerns

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Q1) Which of the following conditions is associated with Arnold-Chiari type II malformation?

A) Cerebral palsy

B) Myelomeningocele

C) Down syndrome

D) Muscular dystrophy

Q2) Which of the following features may not be a potential source of upper airway obstruction in children?

A) Lymphatic tissues

B) Tonsils

C) Rib angulation

D) Adenoids

Q3) In the partial form of endocardial cushion defects (ECD),which structures present with defects?

A) Atrial septal defect and tricuspid valve cleft

B) Ventricular septal defect and mitral valve cleft

C) Atrial septal defect and mitral valve cleft

D) Ventricular septal defect and tricuspid valve cleft

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Chapter 38: The Aging Patient

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Sample Questions

Q1) The decrease in VO max is approximately what percent per decade for men and women?

A) 5%

B) 10%

C) 15%

D) 20%

Q2) The increase in the work of breathing becomes greater as most people age.For a 70-year-old man,what is the percentage of the total oxygen consumption needed for the respiratory muscles?

A) 5% to 7%

B) 10% to 12%

C) 8% to 15%

D) 10% to 20%

Q3) Which of the following is not a suspected mechanism of VO max reduction?

A) Decrease in maximum heart rate

B) Decrease in cardiac output

C) Decrease in blood pressure

D) Decrease in stroke volume

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Chapter 39: Multisystem Clinical Implications of Impaired

Breathing Mechanics and Postural Control

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Q1) Why is pectus excavatum is the end result of continued function of the upper respiratory and diaphragm breathing?

A) The abdominal pressure is greater than that of the thoracic pressure because of the strength of the abdominals and weakness of the intercostals.

B) The pull of the upper respiratory accessory muscles is unopposed.

C) The intercostal do not sufficiently oppose the pull of the negative pressure in the thorax, causing a collapse.

D) The pull of the diaphragm is less than that of the intercostals.

Q2) A child with pronounced muscle imbalance from lying in the recumbent position does not have which of the following?

A) Triangular-shaped thorax or chest wall

B) Ability to meet ventilation needs

C) Anteriorly flared lower ribs

D) Posteriorly flared ribs

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Chapter 40: The Transplant Patient

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Q1) Oxygen saturation during a 6-minute walk test must stay above what level for a patient with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A) 88%

B) 90%

C) 92%

D) 94%

Q2) What time frame is provided for weaning of patients from mechanical ventilation after heart transplant surgery?

A) 12 to 24 hours

B) 24 to 36 hours

C) 12 to 36 hours

D) 24 to 48 hours

Q3) What is the cause of the ineffective cough and decrease in ciliary function after a lung transplant?

A) Impaired air flow

B) Hypertension

C) Denervation of the lung tissue

D) Increased cardiac output

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Chapter 41: The Patient in the Community

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Q1) Positive self-management involves the combination of which of the following?

A) Positive emotional outlook

B) Active involvement in decision making

C) Maintenance of a lifestyle that is as optimal as possible

D) All of the above

Q2) When patients are discharged to home care,which of the following is not a priority for recovering cardiac or pulmonary patients?

A) Continuity of care

B) Availability of caregivers

C) Meal planning

D) Education about plan of therapy, exercise, and disease state

Q3) Why is it important for home health physical therapists to be familiar with acute care conditions?

A) Some patients may be discharged from the hospital directly to their homes.

B) Because of third-party payer cutbacks, patients are now discharged from the acute setting in a more acute stage of their pathology.

C) Patients are more likely to have a relapse in their homes.

D) The therapist is solely responsible for the care of patients after they return home.

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Chapter 42: Body Mechanics: Positioning and Moving Patients

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Q1) To what level should a patient's bed be adjusted to facilitate a lift by a practitioner?

A) The lifter's mid-thigh level

B) The lifter's hip level

C) The lifter's thoracic level

D) The lifter's elbow level

Q2) Which shoulder position is recommended to increase upper chest wall movement and thoracic extension?

A) Glenohumeral internal rotation and scapular protraction

B) Glenohumeral abduction and scapular elevation

C) Glenohumeral external rotation and scapular retraction

D) Glenohumeral flexion and scapular elevation

Q3) Which of the following is an appropriate lifting tip?

A) Lift with your legs.

B) Do not attempt to lift solely with your arms and back.

C) Avoid rotation of the spine when lifting.

D) All of the above

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Chapter 43: Respiratory Care Practice Review

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is a serious concern when portable oxygen is prescribed?

A) Cooking with a gas stove

B) Smoking or having others smoke nearby

C) The patient's understanding about his or her prescribed level of oxygen

D) All of the above

Q2) Which is an appropriate purpose of oxygen therapy?

A) Treat and prevent hypoxemia.

B) Treat and prevent excessive work of breathing.

C) Treat and prevent excessive myocardial work.

D) All of the above

Q3) Which location is included in the scope of a respiratory therapist?

A) Hospitals

B) Long-term care

C) Patients' homes

D) All of the above

Q4) Which should be avoided with patients on mechanical ventilation?

A) Passive range of motion

B) Active range of motion

C) Strong resistance exercise

D) All of the above

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the recommended pressure for a tracheostomy tube cuff?

A) 5 to 15 mm Hg

B) 15 to 25 mm Hg

C) 25 to 35 mm Hg

D) 35 to 45 mm Hg

Q2) Which is a potential complication from tracheal suctioning?

A) Hypoxemia

B) Cardiac dysrhythmia

C) Bronchospasm

D) All of the above

Q3) Which is uncommon after extubation?

A) Skin edges are taped together with butterfly strips.

B) Air may escape through the wound.

C) Noise from the partially closed trachea is normal.

D) Dressings over the wound are discouraged.

Q4) How is the size of the suctioning catheter determined?

A) Doubling the size of the tracheostomy tube

B) Tripling the size of the tracheostomy tube

C) Doubling the size of the tracheostomy tube and adding 2

D) Adding 2 to the size of the tracheostomy tube

Page 46

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Chapter 45: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Drug Actions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which drug is an anticholinergic with bronchodilatory effects useful in patients with asthma?

A) Ipratropium

B) Carbachol

C) Pilocarpine

D) None of the above

Q2) Which of the following affects the firing rate of carotid baroreceptors?

A) Blood pressure

B) Heart rate

C) Respiration rate

D) Temperature

Q3) Which is a cholinergic blocking drug that is useful as an antiulcer and antispasmodic agent?

A) Donepezil

B) Acetylcholine

C) Atropine

D) Clonidine

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