Pulmonary Function Testing Solved
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pulmonary Function Testing is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, techniques, and clinical applications of tests used to assess lung function. Students will learn about various pulmonary function tests, including spirometry, lung volume measurement, diffusion capacity, and arterial blood gas analysis. The course covers the physiological basis of these tests, indications, interpretation of results, and their role in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases such as asthma, COPD, and restrictive lung disorders. Emphasis is placed on hands-on practice, quality control, and understanding sources of error to ensure accurate and reliable test outcomes in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Clinical Lab Competencies for Respiratory Care An Integrated Approach 5th Edition by Gary
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2
Chapter 1: Basics of Asepsis
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Q1) What is defined as a microorganism capable of causing disease in humans?
A) Pathogenic microorganism
B) Hospital-acquired infection
C) Virulent microorganism
D) Cross-contamination
Answer: A
Q2) What type of patient precautions should be employed for patients with mycobacterium tuberculosis,measles or varicella?
A) Contact precautions
B) Airborne precautions
C) Droplet precautions
D) Vectorborne precautions
Answer: B
Q3) What is the most frequent cause of needle sticks?
A) Attempting to recap a needle
B) Removing discarded needles or syringes from sharps containers
C) Attempting to force a needle into an already full container
D) Using puncture-proof containers
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Basic Patient Assessment: Vital Signs and Breath Sounds
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Q1) What are continuous abnormal breath sounds described low-pitched and thought to be produced by fluid or secretions vibrating in the airways?
A) Tracheal
B) Wheezes
C) Crackles
D) Rhonchi
Answer: D
Q2) What breath sound is described as a loud,higher pitched breath sound with the expiratory phase longer than the inspiratory phase,with a short pause between phases?
A) Vesicular
B) Tracheal
C) Bronchial
D) Bronchovesicular
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Advanced Patient Assessment: Inspection,
Palpation, and Percussion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is (are)the midaxillary line(s)located?
A) It is an imaginary line on the lateral chest extending downward from the posterior junction of the arm.
B) It is a line on the anterior chest descending vertically from the junction of the arm and torso (at the front of the armpit).
C) They are imaginary lines on the posterior chest bisecting the shoulder blades and descending vertically.
D) It is an imaginary line on the lateral chest extending downward from the center of the armpit.
Answer: D
Q2) What is defined as vibration felt on the palpation of the chest during phonation,or speech?
A) Pectus carinatum
B) Subcutaneous emphysema
C) Tactile fremitus
D) Hyperresonance
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Radiologic Assessment
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Q1) What is the presence of air in the soft tissues in an extrathoracic location called?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Hyperinflation
C) Subcutaneous emphysema
D) Atelectasis
Q2) At what level on a chest radiograph is the carina located?
A) First rib
B) Second rib
C) Third rib
D) Fourth rib
Q3) What is defined on a chest radiograph by describing the affected area by an increase in radiodensity that appears lighter than the surrounding regions (owing to less air density).?
A) Hyperinflation
B) Pneumomediastinum
C) Atelectasis
D) Subcutaneous emphysema
Q4) Air appears dark on the chest radiograph.What type(s)of pathology would appear dark on the chest x-ray?
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Q1) All pulmonary function testing is performed at _________ and then must be converted to reflect conditions of __________.
A) rest, exercise
B) ATPS, BTPS
C) BTPS, ATPS
D) maximum effort, rest
Q2) What device moves at different speeds to allow the measurement of slow and forced maneuvers?
A) Kymograph
B) Peak flowmeter
C) Respirometer
D) Spirometer
Q3) Patient cooperation must be elicited for the best pulmonary function test results.How would the technician elicit the best cooperation and test results from the patient?
Q4) Vt + IRV = ?
A) Inspiratory capacity (IC)
B) Vital capacity (VC)
C) Total lung capacity (TLC)
D) Functional residual capacity (FRC)
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Chapter 6: Electrocardiography
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Q1) A patient has a normal 'P-R' interval,followed by a normal 'QRS' complex,and then a 'P' wave follows the 'QRS' complex.This normal ECG pattern occurs at a rate of 46/minute.What is this ECG pattern called?
A) First-degree heart block
B) Normal sinus rhythm
C) Sinus bradycardia
D) Third degree heart block
Q2) What happens to the heart's atria when the ventricles contract?
A) They pump blood to the ventricles
B) They contract
C) They depolarize
D) They repolarize
Q3) When a stimulus only causes a small portion of the atria to contract in an unorganized pattern,then ____________ occurs.
A) atrial fibrillation
B) ventricular fibrillation
C) a normal sinus rhythm
D) a sinus tachycardia
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8
Chapter 7: Phlebotomy
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Q1) When will the therapist's blood test be repeated following the initial testing after an accidental needle stick?
A) Blood will be tested again at 1, 3, 6, and 12 months after the accidental needle stick.
B) Blood will be tested again at 6 and 12 years after the accidental needle stick.
C) Blood will be drawn after antibiotics are started.
D) There will be no need to draw any more blood.
Q2) If a needle stick occurs,what is the first step the needle stick victim should take?
A) Test the patient for communicable disease
B) Press hard enough on the stick site to increase perfusion
C) Notify the supervisor
D) Read the exposure control policy
Q3) A tourniquet can be used to enhance vein distension to ease the location of a good vein for a venous draw.What would happen if the tourniquet were left on too long?
Q4) How can the phlebotomist enhance sites to draw blood from a patient?
Q5) How does the phlebotomist gain the confidence of the patient for a blood draw?
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Arterial Blood Gas Sampling
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Q1) What is the maximum amount of time that a blood gas sample should be stored at room temperature in a plastic syringe when storing an arterial blood gas for a shunt study?
A) 5 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 30 seconds
D) 10 minutes
Q2) When an air bubble is present in a blood gas sample that was drawn on room air,what will happen to the PCO of the blood gas sample?
A) The PCO will remain the same.
B) The PCO will increase.
C) The PCO will decrease.
Q3) Possible complications of arterial puncture at any site are vessel trauma and occlusion,embolization,infection,and vessel spasm.How could these be prevented?
Q4) Why is the radial artery a commonly used site for arterial blood sampling?
A) Its location to the inside of the patient's arm
B) It is commonly used for taking a patient's pulse.
C) There is collateral circulation through the ulnar artery.
D) It is the largest artery used for arterial blood drawing.
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Chapter 9: Hemodynamic Monitoring
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Q1) The proximal lumen of the pulmonary artery catheter,when positioned properly,is positioned __________________
A) in the pulmonary artery.
B) in the aorta.
C) in the right atrium.
D) in the left ventricle.
Q2) Normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure is ______________.
A) 6-12 mmHg
B) 10-22 mmHg
C) 0-6 mmHg
D) 80-120 mmHg
Q3) The hemodynamic data are recorded from a pulmonary artery catheter on a patient who is being mechanically ventilated.
\( \begin{array}{lc}\text { Cardiac Output } & 2.5 \mathrm{~L} / \mathrm{min} \\ \text { PAP } & 22 / 10 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { PCWP } & 2 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { CVP } & 1 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { HR } & 125 / \mathrm{min}\end{array} \) How should the practitioner interpret this data and what treatment should be recommended?
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11
Chapter 10: Noninvasive Monitoring
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Q1) When assessment of acid-base status and/or PaO is not required,what is used to assess a patient's oxygenation?
A) End-tidal CO
B) SpO
C) Vital capacity
D) Tidal volume
Q2) What has greatly reduced the number of arterial blood gas (ABG)samples drawn in the acute care setting?
A) Capnography
B) Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring
C) Noninvasive monitoring
D) Transcutaneous P02 monitoring
Q3) Which electrode does the transcutaneous CO monitor incorporate into its design?
A) Clark electrode
B) Severinghaus electrode
C) Sanz electrode
D) Reference electrode
Q4) How does the pulse oximeter measure O saturation in the capillary bed?
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Documentation and Goals Assessment
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Q1) Vital signs,breath sounds,jugular venous distention,heart tones,SpO ,and bowel sounds are all examples of _________________.
A) objective data.
B) subjective data.
C) clinical goals.
D) graphic records.
Q2) How is the history of the patient obtained by the physician?
A) From the patient
B) From the physical examination
C) From the patient's family
D) a and c
Q3) Information provided to the physician by the patient is _______________________.
A) contained in the progress notes.
B) always confidential.
C) objective data.
D) subjective data
Q4) Upon entering a severe asthmatic's room to deliver bronchodilator therapy,the patient expresses displeasure with his physician and the hospital.What should the practitioner do at this time?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Oxygen Supply Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the contents of a cylinder be identified?
A) Verify the color code of the cylinder
B) Match the label to the color code
C) By the size of the cylinder
D) a and b
Q2) What is the color code for a helium and oxygen mixture?
A) White
B) Brown
C) Brown and green
D) Gray and green
Q3) What device takes air from the atmosphere and separates the oxygen from the other gases in the air,then delivers the oxygen to the patient at as high as 90% concentration?
A) Bourdon gauge
B) Multi-stage regulator
C) Liquid oxygen reservoir
D) Oxygen concentrator
Q4) You attach a pressure reducing valve to a 'M' sized gas cylinder.When you open the cylinder valve you hear gas leaking from of near the valve-cylinder connection.What should you do?
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Chapter 13: Oxygen Administration
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Q1) What is defined as a system that supplies oxygen-enriched gas as part of a patient's inspiratory flow needs?
A) High-flow oxygen delivery system
B) Low-flow oxygen delivery system
C) Partial rebreathing oxygen delivery system
D) Long-term oxygen therapy
Q2) The practitioner notes that a patient has been on a partial rebreathing mask for 4 days.The chest x-ray indicates bilateral atelectasis in both bases.What would be the most likely reason for this finding?
A) Oxygen tolerance
B) Absorption atelectasis
C) Oxygen induced hypoventilation
D) Retinopathy of prematurity
Q3) If the FIO is 50% or greater,all of the following hazards are possible EXCEPT
A) absorption atelectasis.
B) bacterial contamination.
C) depression of ciliary function.
D) oxygen toxicity.
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Chapter 14: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology
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Q1) Montelukast,Zarfirlukast,and Zileuton are all used as maintenance therapy for asthma.How do they work?
A) They stabilize the Mast cells.
B) The cause bronchodilation.
C) They are mucolytics.
D) They are leukotriene inhibitors.
Q2) Which of the following drugs stabilize mast cells?
A) Ipratropium
B) Cromolyn sodium
C) Albuterol
D) Fluticasone
Q3) One of the side effects of Acetylcysteine is bronchospasm.How can this side effect be avoided?
A) By giving Acetylcysteine with a bronchodilator.
B) By giving the patient a corticosteroid after the treatment.
C) By administering half of the therapy, allowing the patient to rest, then finishing the therapy.
D) By simultaneous use of sodium bicarbonate.
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Chapter 15: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy
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Q1) Which part of the ultrasonic nebulizer has the ability to convert electrical energy into mechanical energy?
A) Amplitude
B) Frequency
C) Piezoelectric crystal
D) Couplant
Q2) Back pressure exerted downstream from the nebulizer will cause
A) the aerosol output to increase.
B) the total flow output of the unit to increase.
C) the delivered FIO to increase.
D) the amount of air entrained through the entrainment ports to increase.
Q3) What is defined as is water in gaseous form,or vapor?
A) Humidity
B) Aerosol
C) Humidity deficit
D) Barometric pressure
Q4) Despite having the flowrate set on 15 LPM on a 30% aerosol to a T-piece,there is very little aerosol seen coming out of the aerosol tubing.What should the practitioner check?
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Chapter 16: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trendelenburg position is contraindicated for ___________________.
I.Intracranial pressure (ICP)of 30-mm Hg
II.Uncontrolled airway at risk for aspiration
III.Distended abdomen
IV.Recent gross hemoptysis associated with radiation therapy
A) I and II
B) III and IV
C) I, II, III, and IV
D) I, III, and IV
Q2) During bronchial hygiene therapy in the Trendelenburg position,the patient's SpO decreases from 92% on a 35% Venturi mask to 80% during the first 5 minutes of the therapy.What intervention would be the most correct for the Respiratory Care Practitioner to take at this time?
A) Administer 100% oxygen, stop therapy immediately, return the patient to original resting position, and consult the physician.
B) Administer 100% oxygen and consult the physician.
C) Administer 100% oxygen and continue the therapy with the patient flat in bed.
D) Stop therapy immediately and return patient to original resting position.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Hyperinflation Therapy
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Q1) When using flow measuring incentive spirometer,two balls are suspended for 4 seconds.One ball indicates 800 ml/second,two balls indicates 1000 ml/second,and three balls indicates 1200 ml/second.What is the volume the patient achieved?
A) 3200 ml
B) 4000 ml
C) 4800 ml
D) 1000 ml
Q2) During hyperinflation therapy,the patient complains of dizziness,light-headedness,and tingling in the fingers.How should you treat this patient feeling and concern?
A) Continue the therapy and have the patient breath more shallow.
B) Continue the therapy, reassure the patient that this is a normal feeling, and chart the adverse effect in the chart.
C) Stop the therapy, and allow the patient to rest, breathing spontaneously for a few minutes, then continue.
D) Stop the therapy, explain to the patient that this is normal with this type of therapy, and continue.
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Chapter 18: Bronchoscopy Assisting
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Q1) Patient monitoring should be done before,during,and after bronchoscopic procedures.Which of the following is important to monitor?
A) Patient's level of consciousness
B) Patient vital signs, including heart rhythm
C) Patient's subjective response to the procedure
D) a, b, and c
Q2) The need to retrieve a foreign object is done under most circumstances with
A) bronchoalveolar lavage.
B) a Wang needle.
C) a fiberoptic bronchoscope.
D) a rigid bronchoscope.
Q3) A patient is being prepared to undergo a diagnostic bronchoscopic procedure.During the preparation of the patient,a small volume nebulizer is used to aerosolize 2% lidocaine to the airway.Which of the following is NOT a hazard of the medication?
A) Vertigo
B) Dizziness
C) Respiratory depression
D) Difficulty focusing the eyes
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Chapter 19: Equipment Processing and Surveillance
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Q1) Tracheostomized patients in the medical intensive care unit have been developing infections from an unidentified source.What method would the respiratory therapist use to culture the aerosol tubing?
A) Rodac plate sampling
B) Gram staining
C) Rinse sampling
D) Aliquot culturing
Q2) What technique would be used to sample fluids from an aerosol?
A) Gram Staining
B) Rodac Plate Sampling
C) Aliquot Culturing
D) Rinse Sampling
Q3) The practitioner has just performed a bedside pulmonary function test on a patient who tests positive for tuberculosis.This is detected only 1 hour before the next test is to be performed.What should be done?
Q4) What types of vaccines should a health care worker undergo routinely?
Q5) A serious H1N1 influenza outbreak takes place in a skilled care facility.Outline the isolation methods and treatments that should be implemented to help prevent the spread of the virus.
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Chapter 20: Emergency Airway Management
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Q1) Why is a large endotracheal tube preferred to a small endotracheal tube as an airway for an intubated patient?
A) Decreased risk of vomiting
B) Decreased airway resistance
C) Decreased lung compliance
D) Increased oxygenation
Q2) What is the name of the cartilage that protects the trachea from foreign material entering the trachea during swallowing?
A) Vallecula
B) Vocal cords
C) Epiglottis
D) Arytenoid Cartilage
Q3) A patient requires an airway to prevent the tongue from occluding the airway.The patient lapses in and out of conscious periodically.Which airway would be best to use for the patient?
A) Oropharyngeal airway
B) Combitube airway
C) Nasopharyngeal airway
D) Laryngeal mask airway
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22
Chapter 21: Artificial Airway Care
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Q1) The patient has been decannulated.The chest radiograph indicates atelectasis in the right lower lobe caused by retained secretions.The patient's cough is weak and non-productive.Since the patient needs to be suctioned periodically,which of the following would be best to facilitate suctioning without reinserting the tracheostomy tube?
A) Use of a Bivona tube
B) Use of IPPB
C) Use a tracheostomy button
D) Use of a Silver Holinger tube
Q2) A patient has just been nasotracheally suctioned by the respiratory care practitioner.What improvements in the patient should occur after the procedure to indicate that the nasotracheal suctioning procedure was effective?
I.Improved breath sounds
II.Removal of secretions
III.Improved blood gas data or pulse oximetry
IV.Decreased work of breathing
A) I and II
B) III and IV
C) I only
D) I, II, III, IV
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Chest Tubes
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Q1) A chest radiograph reveals a massive pleural effusion in the patient's left thorax.How should the chest tube be positioned to drain the effusion?
A) Anteriorly near the apex of the lung
B) Posteriorly along the base of the lung
C) Medially toward the mediastinum
D) Laterally toward the periphery of the lung
Q2) What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicate?
A) A leak in the chest tube system
B) Active fluid drainage from the patient's chest
C) Active air drainage from the patient's chest
D) The chest tube is correctly positioned in the patient's chest
Q3) A patient is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident.A chest radiograph reveals a pneumothorax on the left side.What percussion note could the respiratory care practitioner expect to hear over the right chest?
A) Resonant
B) Flat
C) Hyperresonant
D) Dull
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Chapter 23: Insertion and Maintenance of Intravenous Lines
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Q1) What is the purpose of transparent dressings on a IV?
Q2) What is the advantage of an isotonic solution?
A) It will cause water to be drawn from inside the cell and into the vascular space
B) There is very little if any net movement of fluid into or out of the cells
C) It will result in a net movement of water from the vascular space to inside the cell
D) It will allow the IV fluids to be compatible for mixing with other medications
Q3) What is inflammation of the vein called?
A) Phlebitis
B) Cellulitis
C) Thrombosis
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q4) A 0.225% NaCl solution is classified as which type of solution?
A) Hypotonic solution
B) Hypertonic solution
C) Isotonic solution
D) Lactated Ringer's solution
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Chapter 24: Noninvasive Positive-Pressure Ventilation
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Q1) A respiratory care practitioner is asked to evaluate a patient for impending ventilatory failure.The practitioner measures a Vt of 350 ml with respiratory rate of 25/min on the patient.What should the practitioner report to the physician as the patient's actual RSBI value?
A) 1.4
B) 0.07
C) 14
D) 71.4
Q2) A patient on NPPV has an increase in lung compliance.If the set pressure remains the same what will happen to the delivered Vt?
A) It will remain the same.
B) It will increase.
C) It will decrease.
D) It will remain the same if the RAW decreases at the same time.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a nasal mask for NPPV?
A) Improved verbal communication
B) Decreased risk of aspiration
C) Ability to eat and drink
D) Improved humidification
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Chapter 25: Continuous Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) When considering types of ventilation,which of the following is NOT an advantage of invasive positive-pressure ventilation?
A) Better regulation of minute ventilation especially in volume modes
B) Improved delivery of oxygen therapy
C) Better accuracy in monitoring parameters
D) Enhanced ability to communicate
Q2) How does a practitioner measure airway resistance on a ventilator?
Q3) For the initial ventilator setting,the inspiratory flowrate is ___________________
A) set at 70 lpm.
B) tidal volume time respiratory rate.
C) adjusted to allow adequate expiratory emptying of the lungs.
D) to give a 1:2 I:E ratio.
Q4) Type I respiratory failure is which of the following?
A) PaCO greater than 50 mmHg and PaO within normal levels
B) PaCO greater than 50 mmHg and PaO less than 50 mmHg with pH below 7.35
C) High PaCO with a low PO but a normal pH
D) PaO of less than 59 mmHg with a normal PaCO
Q5) What is the difference in calculating dynamic compliance vs static compliance?
Q6) How does a practitioner perform a system leak test?
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Chapter 26: Advanced Modes of Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) Which primary control variable will result in flow and pressure being variable in the presence of changing airway resistance or lung compliance?
A) Pressure
B) Volume
C) Flow
D) Time
Q2) The goal of inverse ratio ventilation is to ____________________
A) decrease carbon dioxide by over inflation of the alveoli.
B) increase mean airway pressure to improve oxygenation in ARDS.
C) hyperextend alveoli to increase pulmonary vascular resistance.
D) increase air trapping by lengthening inspiration
Q3) The Nellcor Puritan Bennett 840 recommends an operational check of the BDU,sensors,resistance and compliance of the circuit prior to use.This is called
A) tubing compliance.
B) The short self test.
C) the power on self test
D) the user verification test
Q4) What is proportional assist ventilation?
Q5) What is the auto-set-point control?
28
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Chapter 27: Wave Form Analysis
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Questions
Q1) The respiratory care practitioner is assessing a pressure versus volume loop and notices that it starts at zero and moves upward and to the left in a clockwise direction.Which of the following statement is true?
A) This is normal for a positive pressure breath
B) This is normal for a spontaneous breath
C) This is abnormal. The therapist should manually ventilate the patient
D) This occurs when there is a leak in the endotracheal tube cuff
Q2) Wave form graphically displays which of the following?
I.Arterial blood gas values
II.Gas flowrates
III.Inspiratory and expiratory volumes
IV.Airway pressures
A) I, II, III and IV
B) I, II and III
C) II, III and IV
D) II and III
Q3) Which graphic displays can indicate adequacy of inspiratory flow during a ventilator inspiration and how are they used?
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Chapter 28: Weaning and Discontinuance of Mechanical Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to an SBT which of the following should the respiratory care practitioner assess?
I.Plateau Pressure
II.Breath sounds
III.Spontaneous tidal volume
IV.Mode of ventilation
A) I, II, III and IV
B) I, II and III
C) II, III and IV
D) II and III
Q2) According to the AARC Clinical Practice Guidelines which of the following identifies failure or intolerance in the spontaneous breathing trial?
A) Increasing or worsening of discomfort
B) Thorcoabdominal paradox
C) Use of accessory respiratory muscles
D) All of the above
Q3) How do neurological problems result in ventilator dependence?
Q4) How do cardiovascular problems result in ventilator dependence?
Q5) How do respiratory conditions result in ventilator dependence?
Q6) What should the respiratory therapist do if the patient does not pass the SBT?
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Chapter 29: Neonatal Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40363
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient of any age cannot adequately provide enough oxygen for the body and sufficiently eliminate carbon dioxide,the term used is ______________
A) ventilatory insufficiency.
B) apnea.
C) respiratory failure.
D) CO retainer.
Q2) The practitioner notes that an infant is not ventilating sufficiently with the spontaneous breaths during SIMV with PEEP since there are periods of apnea.It is evident the infant should be changed to a different mode.Which mode should the therapist use?
A) VS
B) A/C
C) PS
D) CPAP
Q3) Describe how the initial newborn ventilator alarm setting are determined.
Q4) Describe how the initial newborn ventilator setting are determined for mode,rate and flow rate.
Q5) Describe how the initial newborn ventilator setting are determined for inspiratory time,I:E ratio and peak inspiratory pressure.
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