Pulmonary Function Testing Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Pulmonary Function Testing is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the principles, techniques, and clinical significance of assessing lung function in patients. The course covers the physiological basis of pulmonary function tests (PFTs), including spirometry, lung volume measurement, diffusion capacity, and bronchial provocation testing. Emphasis is placed on the interpretation of test results, recognition of normal and abnormal patterns, and the role of PFTs in diagnosing and monitoring respiratory diseases such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and restrictive lung disorders. Students will also learn about quality control, test standardization, and the practical aspects of conducting pulmonary function assessments in clinical and laboratory settings.
Recommended Textbook
Wilkins Clinical Assessment in Respiratory Care 7th Edition by Al Heuer PhD
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773 Verified Questions
773 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Preparing for the Patient Encounter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following behaviors is not consistent with resistive behavior of a patient?
A)Crossed arms
B)Minimal eye contact
C)Brief answers to questions
D)Asking the purpose of the treatment
Answer: D
Q2) In which stage of patient-clinician interaction is the patient identification bracelet checked?
A)Introductory stage
B)Preinteraction stage
C)Initial assessment stage
D)Treatment stage
Answer: A
Q3) In 1996, Congress passed the HIPAA.What does the letter "P" stand for?
A)Patient
B)Payment
C)Portability
D)Personal
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Medical History and the Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient being interviewed says that he wakes up nearly every night feeling very hot and with his body bathed in sweat.This fact, along with his hemoptysis, is a very strong indication that he may have tuberculosis.The night sweats would be an example of:
A)Objective data (a sign).
B)Objective data (a symptom).
C)Subjective data (a sign).
D)Subjective data (a symptom).
Answer: D
Q2) Monday fever is:
A)The term describing workers who habitually do not want to return to work after the weekend.
B)The tendency of workers to have poor levels of concentration in the workplace after the weekend.
C)An example of a hypersensitivity reaction to a toxic inhaled substance that is worst after the initial exposure but becomes progressively less pronounced as the exposure continues.
D)None of the above.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Cardiopulmonary Symptoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common manifestation of infection in a patient with pulmonary disease?
A)Fever
B)Cough
C)Diaphoresis
D)Increased sputum production
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following definitions is consistent with massive hemoptysis?
A)400 mL in 3 hours
B)400 mL in 12 hours
C)600 mL in 48 hours
D)600 mL in 72 hours
Answer: A
Q3) Gastroesophageal reflux is caused by:
A)High activity levels in gastric muscles.
B)Blockage of the duodenum.
C)Abnormal opening of the pyloric sphincter.
D)Abnormal opening of the cardiac (lower esophageal) sphincter.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) In postoperative patients, the degree of tachypnea typically is related to the degree of:
A)anesthetic received during surgery.
B)pain medication received.
C)pneumonia.
D)atelectasis.
Q2) An RT is taking the blood pressure in the arm of a 12-year-old girl.The only sphygmomanometer available has a cuff in which the ends overlap slightly when it is inflated.The pressure that the RT records:
A)should be accurate if the measurement is otherwise done properly.
B)is likely to be in error, showing a value that is too low.
C)is likely to be in error, showing a value that is too high.
D)will have a value that cannot be predicted to be either too high or too low.
Q3) Which of the following organs is not at risk for disease in the presence of systemic hypertension?
A)Heart
B)Kidneys
C)Blood vessels
D)Pancreas
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Fundamentals of Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is used to describe double vision?
A)Miosis
B)Diplopia
C)Nystagmus
D)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following clinical conditions is associated with central cyanosis?
A)Hypercarbia
B)Renal failure
C)Poor circulation
D)Respiratory failure
Q3) Which of the following breathing patterns is associated with fatigue of the diaphragm?
A)Bradypnea
B)Deep and fast breathing
C)Biot breathing
D)Abdominal paradox
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Chapter 6: Neurologic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most important part of the neurologic examination?
A)Sensory examination
B)Motor examination
C)Level of consciousness
D)Gait examination
Q2) Which of the following respiratory patterns consists of phases of hyperpnea that regularly alternate with episodes of apnea?
A)Biot breathing
B)Ataxic breathing
C)Apneustic breathing
D)Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Q3) Which of the following is not an important factor in determining the needed frequency of the neurologic assessment?
A)Patient's diagnosis
B)Acuity of the condition
C)How rapidly changes are occurring or are expected to occur
D)Shift change
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8
Chapter 7: Clinical Laboratory Studies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elevation of troponin is associated with what disorder?
A)Acute myocardial infarction
B)Hepatitis
C)Pulmonary embolism
D)Trauma
Q2) Which of the following terms describes an increase in white blood cell count associated with a shift of cells from the marginated pool to the circulating pool?
A)Pseudoneutrophilia
B)Pseudoneutropenia
C)Neutropenia
D)Lymphocytosis
Q3) Which of the following terms describes an abnormal increase in the proportion of circulating immature neutrophils?
A)Neutrophilia
B)Left shift
C)Leukopenia
D)Leukocytosis
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9
Chapter 8: Interpretation of Blood Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a correct representation of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation?
A)pK = pH - log (PaCO × 0.03)/ HCO -
B)pK = pH - log HCO - /(PaCO × 0.03)
C)pH = pK + log HCO - /(PaCO × 0.03)
D)-pH = pK - log HCO - /(PaCO × 0.03)
Q2) Which of the following is the best indicator of metabolic acid-base status?
A)Plasma HCO -
B)Base excess
C)Standard HCO -
D)T40 HCO -
Q3) What is the primary method of transporting oxygen in the blood?
A)Dissolved in plasma
B)Bound to plasma proteins
C)In the form of HCO -
D)Bound to hemoglobin
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following diseases will the open-circuit nitrogen washout method tend to underestimate the total lung volume?
A)Asthma
B)Emphysema
C)Cystic fibrosis
D)Chronic bronchitis
Q2) Obstructive lung disorders are characterized by a reduction in:
A)Lung capacities.
B)Lung volumes.
C)Expiratory flows.
D)Inspiratory flows.
Q3) In a patient with an exacerbation of asthma, airway resistance will be:
A)normal.
B)increased.
C)decreased.
D)impossible to measure.
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Chapter 10: Chest Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiographic signs of consolidation include all of the following except:
A)lobar distribution.
B)minimal loss of volume.
C)homogenous density late in the process.
D)a low shift of the diaphragm.
Q2) Which of the following forms of radiologic assessment is most useful for studying the distribution of ventilation and perfusion and the effects that diseases may have on these two important functions?
A)MRI
B)CT scanning
C)Lung scanning
D)Pulmonary angiography
Q3) A lateral decubitus view is able to detect as little as _____ mL of the pleural fluid.
A)200 to 300
B)100 to 200
C)50 to 100
D)25 to 50
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12
Chapter 11: Interpretation of Electrocardiogram Tracings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important for a respiratory therapist (RT) to be able to identify cardiac dysrhythmias?
A)It is likely that the RT will observe the onset of the initial event.
B)The RT is primarily responsible for management of the dysrhythmia.
C)The RT must be able to confirm the physician's initial diagnosis.
D)RTs are always the first responders for complaints of a cardiac nature.
Q2) What is considered to be the normal position of the axis in a healthy patient's heart?
A)0 to -90 degrees
B)0 to 90 degrees
C)60 to 120 degrees
D)120 to 180 degrees
Q3) What is represented by the P wave on the ECG tracing?
A)Repolarization of the atria
B)Depolarization of the atria
C)Repolarization of the ventricles
D)Depolarization of the ventricles
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Chapter 12: Neonatal and Pediatric Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the upper limit for normal systolic blood pressure in the term newborn?
A)60 mm Hg
B)70 mm Hg
C)80 mm Hg
D)90 mm Hg
Q2) What do the L/S ratio and phosphatidylinositol (PI) and phosphatidylglycerol (PG) levels assess?
A)Cardiovascular maturation
B)Lung maturation
C)Renal system maturation
D)Overall level of fetal maturation
Q3) A child presents at the emergency department with difficulty breathing and a harsh, barking cough.The history reveals a runny nose over the past few days.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A)Croup
B)Epiglottitis
C)Asthma
D)Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
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14
Chapter 13: Older Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the impact of aging on the body's immune system?
A)A higher white blood cell (WBC) count
B)Higher fevers in response to bacterial infections
C)Diminished response to vaccines
D)Decreased occurrence of reactivation tuberculosis (TB)
Q2) By age 79 years, about what percentage of older patients have hearing impairment?
A)30%
B)40%
C)50%
D)60%
Q3) Ageism in the healthcare setting can lead to:
A)practitioners spending more time with older patients.
B)practitioners listening to older patients less carefully.
C)practitioners treating older patients with compassion.
D)better communication with elderly patients.
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Chapter 14: Respiratory Monitoring in Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) If auto-PEEP is present, it is most likely to be detected if the expiratory limb of the patient circuit is occluded at what point in the cycle?
A)At the end of exhalation
B)In the middle of inhalation
C)In maximal inhalation
D)At the middle of exhalation
Q2) Which level of a PaO /FIO ratio is consistent with a definition of acute lung injury (ALI)?
A)50
B)100 to 200
C)150
D)200 to 300
Q3) The cardiac output will increase to compensate for a decrease in oxygen tension when the PaO falls to below _____ mm Hg.
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
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Chapter 15: Vascular Pressure Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in pulmonary artery systolic pressure is seen in patients with all of the following conditions except:
A)pulmonary embolus.
B)mitral valve stenosis.
C)right ventricular failure.
D)hypoxia and hypoxemia.
Q2) The pulse pressure is important hemodynamically because it is an indication of:
A)central venous pressure (CVP).
B)mean arterial pressure (MAP).
C)right ventricular stroke volume.
D)left ventricular stroke volume.
Q3) When vasodilators such as sodium nitroprusside are administered, it is important to monitor the fall in blood pressure because low blood pressure can:
A)cause arterial spasm.
B)cause a stroke in obese adult patients.
C)decrease blood flow to the coronary arteries.
D)increase the likelihood that pulmonary edema may develop.
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Chapter 16: Cardiac Output Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following may cause a decrease in ventricular compliance except:
A)inotropic drugs.
B)vasodilator drugs.
C)myocardial infarction.
D)positive end-expiratory pressure.
Q2) All of the following can be used to assess cardiac output noninvasively except:
A)the pulse pressure.
B)echocardiography.
C)Doppler ultrasound.
D)transthoracic electrical bioimpedance.
Q3) All the following make up the peripheral component of afterload except:
A)the radius of the vessels.
B)the length of the vessels.
C)the viscosity of the blood.
D)the elasticity or compliance of the vessels.
Q4) Bradycardia in an adult is defined as a heart rate less than _____ beats/min.
A)50
B)60
C)100
D)120
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bronchoscopy technique that flushes 100 mL of normal saline through the scope's suction channel in four or five increments of 20 to 30 mL to distend the distal bronchioles and fill the alveoli, thereby washing out samples of any microorganisms, is which of the following?
A)Rigid bronchoscopy
B)Bronchoalveolar lavage
C)Bronchial fluoroscopy
D)Transbronchial biopsy
Q2) What is the advantage of using fluoroscopy during bronchoscopy for peripheral lesions?
A)Less contamination of samples
B)Increased diagnostic yield
C)Increased sample size
D)Less tissue destruction
Q3) What aerosolized medication is administered to most patients before the bronchoscopic procedure is begun?
A)Albuterol
B)Racemic epinephrine
C)Fentanyl
D)Lidolocaine
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Chapter 18: Nutrition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What test is most useful for screening a patient for protein malnutrition?
A)Serum albumin level
B)Triceps skinfold
C)Creatinine-height index
D)BMI
Q2) Which of the following is a pulmonary effect of starvation?
A)Increased diffusing capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide (DLCO)
B)Increased forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
C)Increased risk of pneumonia
D)Increased functional residual capacity (FRC)
Q3) What mineral plays a very important role in oxygen transport?
A)Calcium
B)Iron
C)Zinc
D)Magnesium
Q4) What gas is required for optimum production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
A)Argon
B)Carbon dioxide
C)Nitrous oxide
D)Oxygen
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Chapter 19: Sleep and Breathing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) To meet the definitive criteria for sleep apnea, how many seconds of air flow cessation during sleep must be documented?
A)4 seconds
B)6 seconds
C)8 seconds
D)10 seconds
Q2) A patient comment regarding the lack of dreaming could mean that the patient is not spending a significant period of sleep in which stage?
A)Stage 1 NREM
B)Stage 2 NREM
C)Stage 3 NREM
D)REM
Q3) Which of the following will assist the RT in predicting sleep apnea?
A)Epworth Sleepiness Scale (ESS)
B)Berlin Questionnaire
C)Inspection of the chest
D)Electrocardiogram (ECG)
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21
Chapter 20: Home Care Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should the RT assess during environmental evaluation of the home care patient's living place?
A)The presence of smoke detectors
B)An emergency exit route
C)Sources for triggers of bronchospasm
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following should be identified by an RT during the initial home care interview of the patient and caregivers?
A)Patient smoking history
B)Current list of medications
C)Pulmonary risk factors
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following should be done only with a physician's order?
A)Chest auscultation
B)Pulse oximetry
C)Check of blood pressure
D)Check of body temperature
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Chapter 21: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary goal of The Joint Commission?
A)Monitor financial reimbursement of hospitals
B)Review healthcare organizations to improve the quality of healthcare and patient safety
C)Provide healthcare workers with a safe work environment
D)Monitor the ethical practice of medicine at healthcare organizations
Q2) The major purpose of the electronic medical record (EMR) includes which of the following?
A)Increase efficiencies in the healthcare system
B)Improve the quality of patient care
C)Increase patient safety
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following sections of the patient assessment or procedures should be charted immediately?
A)Date and time of test or treatment
B)Vital signs
C)Result of or response to treatment, including adverse reactions
D)Drugs and their dosages
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