Pulmonary Function Testing Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Pulmonary Function Testing is a course designed to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles, techniques, and clinical applications of assessing lung function. The course covers a range of diagnostic procedures, including spirometry, lung volume measurement, diffusion capacity tests, and arterial blood gases, while emphasizing the importance of accurate test performance and interpretation. Students learn to recognize normal versus abnormal results, understand the pathophysiology of common respiratory disorders, and apply testing outcomes to patient care decisions. Through a combination of lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on practice, participants gain proficiency in operating pulmonary function equipment and ensuring quality control for optimal patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry
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44 Chapters
673 Verified Questions
673 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/248
Page 2
Des Jardins
Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would NOT be found on a history form?
A) Age
B) Chief complaint
C) Present health
D) Family history
E) Health insurance provider
Answer: E
Q2) To have the most productive interviewing session, the respiratory therapist must avoid all of the following types of verbal messages EXCEPT:
A) confrontation.
B) giving advice.
C) using avoidance language.
D) distancing.
Answer: A
Q3) For there to be a successful interview, the respiratory therapist must:
A) provide leading questions to guide the patient.
B) be an active listener.
C) reassure the patient.
D) use medical terminology to show knowledge of the subject matter.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dull percussion note would be heard in all of the following situations EXCEPT: A) atelectasis.
B) pleural thickening.
C) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
D) consolidation.
Answer: C
Q2) A patient comes into the emergency department with a complaint of centrally located, constant chest pain. What is his most likely problem?
A) Pleurisy
B) Myocardial ischemia
C) Pneumothorax
D) Fractured rib
Answer: B
Q3) When would induced hypothermia be indicated?
A) During brain surgery
B) During bowel surgery
C) To break a fever
D) To treat carbon monoxide poisoning
Answer: A
4
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of the peak expiratory flow rate test EXCEPT it:
A) is effort dependent.
B) is taken from the FVC test results.
C) is taken from the MVV test results.
D) assesses large upper airways.
Answer: C
Q2) In response to a restrictive lung disorder, which of the following is typically found?
1) Decreased lung compliance
2) Increased ventilatory rate
3) Decreased tidal volume
4) Decreased lung rigidity
A) 1
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common causes of metabolic alkalosis include:
1) diuretic therapy.
2) vomiting.
3) excessive sodium bicarbonate administration.
4) gastric suctioning.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Mechanical ventilation is indicated for which of the following ABG results?
A) pH 7.56; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 27; HCO<sub>3</sub> 23; PaO<sub>2</sub> 63
B) pH 7.23; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 63; HCO<sub>3</sub> 26; PaO<sub>2</sub> 52
C) pH 7.36; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 79; HCO<sub>3</sub> 43; PaO<sub>2</sub> 61
D) pH 7.52; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 51; HCO<sub>3</sub> 40; PaO<sub>2</sub> 46
Q3) What causes stimulation of the peripheral chemoreceptors to increase the ventilatory rate?
A) Pain or anxiety
B) PaCO<sub>2</sub> of about 40 mm Hg
C) PaO<sub>2</sub> of about 60 mm Hg
D) Venous pH of 7.30 to 7.40
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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13 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is mildly hypoxemic. Which of the following signs would the respiratory therapist expect to find in this patient?
A) An increase in the patient's breathing rate and heart rate
B) A decrease in systemic blood pressure
C) Cardiac dysrhythmias on an EKG
D) Anemia
Q2) Polycythemia is:
1) a condition of too many red blood cells.
2) a condition of too few red blood cells.
3) caused by lack of iron in the diet.
4) the body's response to chronic hypoxemia.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 4
Q3) A condition that will cause hypoxic hypoxia is:
A) cyanosis.
B) decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C) hypoventilation from an overdose of a sedative medication.
D) carbon monoxide poisoning.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is found when a patient has sinus arrhythmia?
1) Rate decreases during expiration.
2) Rate decreases during inspiration.
3) Rate varies by more than 10% from beat to beat.
4) Rate increases during inspiration.
A) 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) The respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient in the medical ICU and notes multiple premature ventricular complexes (PVCs) on the cardiac monitor. The respiratory therapist elects to review the patient's medication administration record (MAR) for medications the patient is receiving to rule out medication toxicity as a cause of the PVCs. Which of the following medications should the therapist evaluate as a possibility of inducing PVCs?
A) Theophylline
B) Beta blockers
C) Vitamin D
D) Acetaminophen
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8
Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is called to evaluate a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolus. The respiratory therapist would MOST likely recommend which of the following diagnostic procedures to help determine if the patient has a pulmonary embolus?
A) CTPA
B) Fluoroscopy
C) PET scan
D) MRI scan
E) CT scan
Q2) For most chest x-ray studies, what is usually done?
A) There is a full exhalation.
B) There is a full inspiration.
C) Separate inspiratory and expiratory films are taken.
D) The patient is told to pant to provide a middle lung volume.
Q3) The chest radiograph shows blunting of the patient's costophrenic angles. What does this suggest?
A) The patient did not take a deep enough breath.
B) Lung cancer
C) Pleural fluid
D) Underpenetrated exposure on the film
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is reviewing the electronic medical record of a patient recently admitted to the medical floor. The therapist notes that a sputum sample was sent to the lab for an acid-fast smear and culture. How should the therapist interpret this information?
A) Suspect that the patient has Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia.
B) Suspect that the patient has Rickettsiae pneumonia.
C) Suspect that the patient has Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii) pneumonia.
D) Suspect that the patient has Mycobacterium tuberculosis pneumonia.
Q2) The respiratory therapist is called to evaluate a patient for arterial line placement needed for accessibility and repeated ABG sampling. In evaluating the risk of bleeding, the therapist should establish that the patient has a platelet count of at least ____/mm³ before recommending placement of the arterial line.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 20,000
D) 50,000
E) 100,000
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An obese patient had upper abdominal surgery 2 days earlier. He has a weak nonproductive cough and a pulse oximeter (SpO<sub>2 </sub> ) reading of 84% on room air. Which therapist-driven protocol(s) should be implemented?
1) Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy
2) Lung expansion
3) Oxygen therapy
4) Aerosolized medication therapy
A) 1
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following protocols would be indicated when a patient with increased alveolar-capillary membrane thickening has increased opacity on the chest radiograph, bronchial breath sounds, and a dull percussion note?
A) Aerosolized medication protocol
B) Lung expansion protocol
C) Oxygen therapy protocol
D) Bronchopulmonary hygiene protocol
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Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a critical value for the key clinical indicators in hypercapnic respiratory failure in an adult?
1) pH 7.25
2) Ventilatory rate 35 breaths/min
3) MIP -25 cm HVentilatory rate O
4) VD/VT 40%
A) 1
B) 2
C) 1, 2
D) 3, 4
Q2) All of the following are contraindications for noninvasive ventilation (NIV) EXCEPT: A) facial and head trauma.
B) community-acquired pneumonia.
C) copious, viscous sputum.
D) severe upper GI bleeding.
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for Data Collection,
Organization, Assessment Skill
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B) reimbursement by the insurance carrier.
C) respiratory care notes.
D) resuscitation status of the patient.
Q2) Computer-based records are commonly used for which of the following?
1) Retrieving pulmonary function studies
2) Storing treatment information
3) Storing admission data
4) Ordering patient supplies
A) 3, 4
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Which agency should be notified if violations of HIPAA regulations have occurred?
A) HHS
B) FDA
C) CDC
D) Joint Commission
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Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD),
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are pathologic alterations found with emphysema?
1) Air trapping and hyperinflation
2) Mucus plugs
3) Decreased surface area for gas exchange
4) Weakened respiratory bronchioles
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following statements accurately describe(s) emphysema?
1) It is characterized by alveolar wall destruction.
2) It is most closely associated with cystic fibrosis.
3) It is reversible and preventable.
4) It is characterized by thick secretions and mucus plugging.
A) 1
B) 3
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 4
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Chapter 13: Asthma
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sputum sample from a patient has been sent to the laboratory for analysis. Which of the following findings could help confirm the diagnosis of extrinsic asthma?
A) Increased IgE level
B) Increased erythrocyte count
C) Colonization of P. aeruginosa
D) Decreased IgE level
Q2) Which of the following factors are associated with intrinsic asthma?
1. Emotional stress
2) Cockroach allergen
3) GERD
4) Dust mites
A) 2, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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15
Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the main challenges in caring for a patient with bronchiectasis is:
A) contending with bronchospasm.
B) removing excessive bronchopulmonary secretions.
C) returning the FRC to within normal limits.
D) maximizing gas exchange across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
E) rehydrating dried secretions.
Q2) The preferred radiographic method to evaluate a patient's bronchiectasis is:
A) posterior-anterior radiograph (x-ray).
B) anterior-posterior radiograph (x-ray).
C) computed tomography (CT).
D) bronchogram.
Q3) Which of the following is the usual characteristic of the sputum of a patient with bronchiectasis?
A) It is usually sweet or musky smelling.
B) When examined microscopically there are Kirshman's spirals.
C) It contains eosinophils.
D) It is usually voluminous and tends to settle into several different layers.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common nonrespiratory clinical manifestation of cystic fibrosis is:
A) sinusitis.
B) hyperpigmentation.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) glaucoma.
Q2) If both the mother and the father are carriers for the cystic fibrosis gene, what are the chances that their child will be a cystic fibrosis carrier?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q3) Which ethnic group has the greatest number of people with cystic fibrosis?
A) African-Americans
B) Asians
C) Hispanics
D) Caucasians
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical assessment findings on a patient with pneumonia would include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) bradycardia.
B) whispered pectoriloquy.
C) dull percussion note.
D) increased vocal fremitus.
Q2) If a patient has pneumonia, which of the following can increase the risk of life-threatening illness or death?
1) Weakened immune system
2) COPD
3) Marfan's syndrome
4) Heart disease
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 4
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18
Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the recommended treatment for a lung abscess caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
A) Neomycin
B) Linezolid
C) Penicillin
D) Clindamycin
Q2) What is the standard treatment for a lung abscess caused by an anaerobic pathogen?
A) Clindamycin
B) Linezolid
C) Neomycin
D) Omalizumab
Q3) In the early stages of a lung abscess, a patient would most likely have a:
A) nonproductive, hacking cough.
B) productive cough with foul-smelling, grey sputum.
C) productive cough with hemoptysis.
D) productive cough with copious white sputum.
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Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a person has TB spread throughout the body, it is found in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) upper lobes.
B) kidneys.
C) brain.
D) lower lobes.
Q2) Pulmonary function testing results on a patient with an advanced case of TB will display all of the following EXCEPT:
A) increased RV.
B) decreased IRV.
C) decreased VC.
D) decreased TLC.
Q3) What medication is used to treat a person who has converted to a positive TB skin test but does not have active disease?
A) Virazole
B) Isoniazid
C) Rifampin
D) Tetracycline
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Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is considered to be the gold standard for the diagnosis of histoplasmosis?
A) Fungal stain
B) Blood serum antigen levels
C) Chest x-ray
D) Fungal culture
E) Skin test
Q2) Fungal infection of the lungs is closest in similarity to:
A) pleural disease.
B) interstitial lung disease.
C) tuberculosis.
D) bronchiectasis.
Q3) A patient has an Aspergillus niger infection. What should be used to treat it?
A) Fluconazole (Diflucan)
B) Ribavirin (Virazole)
C) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
D) Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is asked to evaluate a patient with suspected congestive heart failure. Which of the following laboratory tests should the respiratory therapist recommend to evaluate the patient for possible congestive heart failure?
A) Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
B) Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)
C) Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
D) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
Q2) All of the following are causes of cardiogenic pulmonary edema EXCEPT:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) mitral valve disease.
C) allergic reaction to drugs.
D) congenital heart defects.
Q3) What is the normal hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries?
A) 0 to 5 mm Hg
B) 5 to 10 mm Hg
C) 10 to 15 mm Hg
D) 15 to 20 mm Hg
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22
Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are associated with the formation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) EXCEPT:
A) blood vessel injury.
B) age greater than 40 years.
C) hypercoagulability.
D) venous stasis.
Q2) A pulmonary angiogram is usually ordered:
A) as the first test to identify a pulmonary embolism.
B) when other tests for a pulmonary embolism are inconclusive.
C) in conjunction with a magnetic resonance image to identify a pulmonary embolism.
D) in conjunction with an extremity venogram to identify a pulmonary embolism.
Q3) A patient's D-dimer blood test results show a value of 250 ng/mL. How should these results be interpreted?
A) The patient does not have a pulmonary embolism.
B) The patient's anticoagulant level is acceptable.
C) The patient has a pulmonary embolism.
D) The patient has a deep vein thrombosis.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding paradoxical chest movement?
A) With inspiration, the flail section moves outward.
B) The trachea deviates away from the flail side of the chest.
C) During inspiration, the flail section moves inward.
D) During exhalation, the flail area moves inward.
Q2) What is the term for abnormal gas movement from one lung to the other?
A) Paradoxical movement
B) Pendelluft
C) Palindromic breathing
D) Pneumatic shift
Q3) Which of the following accurately describes a flail chest?
A) Double fractures of 2 adjacent ribs
B) Double fractures of 3 adjacent ribs
C) Single fracture of 3 adjacent ribs
D) Triple fractures of 2 adjacent ribs
Q4) What is the primary cause of hypoxemia in a patient with a severe flail chest?
A) Myocardial contusion
B) Hemorrhage
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Alveolar atelectasis
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old patient requires placement of a thoracostomy chest tube. All of the following are recommended for the procedure EXCEPT:
A) application of -5-cm H<sub>2</sub>O pressure to the chest tube.
B) use of a No. 28 to 36 French gauge tube.
C) placement of the tube at the apex of the lung.
D) clamping and removing the tube within 24 hours of insertion.
Q2) An iatrogenic pneumothorax may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
B) pleural biopsy.
C) subclavian vein cannulation.
D) endotracheal intubation.
Q3) If the patient has a tension pneumothorax, all of the following chest radiograph findings would be expected EXCEPT:
A) elevated diaphragm.
B) mediastinal shift to the unaffected side.
C) increased translucency on the side of the pneumothorax.
D) atelectasis.
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Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has malignant mesothelioma related to chronic asbestos exposure. What would his pleural effusion fluid likely show on laboratory analysis?
1) Erythrocytes
2) Lymphocytes
3) Normal mesothelial cells
4) Malignant mesothelial cells
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) In the absence of surgery or trauma, what does the presence of blood in the pleural fluid most likely signify?
A) Malignant disease
B) Fungal disease
C) Chylothorax
D) Tuberculosis
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Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positive risk factor(s) for the development of kyphoscoliosis include:
1) male gender.
2) female gender.
3) taller person.
4) shorter person.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 4
Q2) Which of the following would be expected to appear on the chest radiograph of a patient with scoliosis?
A) Increased lung translucency
B) An S or C shape to the spine
C) Bullae
D) Pectus excavatum
Q3) Posterior curvature of the spine best describes:
A) kyphoscoliosis.
B) spina bifida.
C) scoliosis.
D) kyphosis.
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chest assessment findings in a patient with ILD would include:
1) pleural friction rub.
2) increased vocal fremitus.
3) vesicular breath sounds.
4) hyperresonant percussion note.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following organs are affected by systemic scleroderma?
1) Skin
2) Reproductive organs
3) Lungs
4) Brain
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with lung cancer has learned the cancer has metastasized to three other locations. What is the recommended treatment option?
A) Radiation therapy to all known tumors
B) Surgical removal of all known tumors
C) Chemotherapy
D) Needle aspiration of the tumors
Q2) Signs and symptoms associated with metastatic lung cancer include:
1) fatigue.
2) bone pain.
3) seizures.
4) weight loss.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) The most common cause of lung cancer is:
A) cigarette smoking.
B) air pollution.
C) exposure to asbestos.
D) exposure to radon gas.
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Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are causes of ARDS?
1) Liver failure
2) Heroin abuse
3) Septicemia
4) Goodpasture's syndrome
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following are recommended to treat alveolar consolidation and atelectasis associated with ARDS?
1) Aerosolized bronchodilator medications
2) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
3) Chest percussion and postural drainage
4) Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
A) 4
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 4
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Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome is based on all of the following EXCEPT:
A) urinalysis shows elevated blood urea nitrogen.
B) abnormal electromyography results.
C) cerebrospinal fluid shows elevated protein level.
D) clinical history.
Q2) Approximately what percentage of patients with GBS develop respiratory muscle paralysis?
A) <5%
B) 6% to 9%
C) 10% to 30%
D) 31% to 50%
Q3) In the United States and Europe, what is the most common subtype of GBS?
A) Miller Fisher syndrome (MFS)
B) Acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN)
C) Acute pandysautonomic neuropathy (APN)
D) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP)
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Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) The major pathologic or structural changes of the lungs associated with myasthenic crisis include:
1) alveolar consolidation.
2) airway obstruction.
3) mucus accumulation.
4) atelectasis.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) In which clinical classification of myasthenia gravis is intubation indicated?
A) Class I
B) Class 1IIb
C) Class V
D) Class II
Q3) What percentage of patients with only ocular myasthenia gravis are seropositive?
A) <10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 90%
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Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Q1) Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias is life threatening?
A) Atrioventricular block
B) Sinus bradycardia
C) Ventricular tachycardia
D) Premature ventricular contraction
Q2) Which of the following may be used in the management of a patient with central sleep apnea?
1) Acetazolamide
2) Oxygen therapy
3) Inhaled bronchodilator medications
4) Adaptive servo-ventilation (VPAP)
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) A CPAP titration polysomnogram is performed to:
A) find the maximum CPAP level for the functional residual capacity.
B) determine the lowest possible CPAP level.
C) find the CPAP level to maintain an open airway.
D) determine the pressure needed for negative-pressure ventilation.
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Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Q1) Early clinical manifestations of an infant with respiratory distress include: 1) cyanosis.
2) substernal retractions.
3) expiratory grunting.
4) apnea.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Apnea of prematurity can be defined as:
1) respiratory pause causing bradycardia.
2) cycles of short breathing pauses followed by faster breathing.
3) no breathing for >20 seconds.
4) sudden apnea and death (crib death).
A) 4
B) 2
C) 1, 3
D) 3, 4
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Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) Risk factors for the development of MAS include:
1) being postterm.
2) a mother who is hypertensive.
3) a mother who is toxemic.
4) being the first twin born.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) A patient has meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) and a chemical pneumonitis as a result. What effect(s) can this have?
1) Decreased surfactant production
2) Increased bacterial growth
3) Edema of bronchial mucosa
4) Excessive bronchial secretions
A) 3
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) Risk factors for the development of TTN include:
1) maternal diabetes.
2) male gender.
3) maternal bleeding.
4) breech delivery.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) What are the radiologic findings anticipated on a chest radiograph taken 2 hours after delivery in a newborn suspected of having TTN?
A) Normal lung fields
B) Hyperlucency
C) Flattened diaphragms
D) Bulging intercostal spaces
Q3) At what gestational age is TTN most common?
A) 26 to 28 weeks' gestational age
B) 28 to 30 weeks' gestational age
C) 34 to 36 weeks' gestational age
D) 38 to 40 weeks' gestational age
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) A mother is about to deliver a 25-weeks' gestation infant. What therapeutic intervention should the respiratory therapist be prepared to give to minimize the risk of RDS?
A) Mask CPAP
B) Airway suctioning
C) Exogenous surfactant
D) Mechanical ventilation
Q2) A patient with RDS has alveolar hypoxia and pulmonary vasoconstriction. How will this affect his blood flow?
1) Blood shunts through the foramen ovale
2) Increased systemic blood flow
3) Blood shunts through the ductus arteriosus
4) Decreased blood flow to the gut
A) 2, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) Following delivery, when do pulmonary air leak syndromes commonly occur in preterm neonates?
A) 1 to 4 hours after delivery
B) 5 to 8 hours after delivery
C) 12 to 24 hours after delivery
D) 24 to 48 hours after delivery
Q2) Which of the following conditions is described as dissection of gas into the fascial planes of the skin and neck?
A) ASIHD
B) Intravascular air embolism
C) PIE
D) Subcutaneous emphysema
Q3) A neonate on mechanical ventilation developed pulmonary air leak syndrome. What change should the respiratory therapist now recommend?
A) Initiate the bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy protocol.
B) Decrease the oxygen percentage.
C) Initiate high-frequency ventilation.
D) Insert bilateral pleural chest tubes.
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Q1) A patient with an RSV is hypoxemic. What could cause this?
1) Atelectasis
2) Excessive airway fluid
3) Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
4) Consolidation
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Several small children who attend the same day care facility have become sick with RSV. The owner of the day care can expect them to recover within:
A) 4 to 6 days.
B) 3 to 8 days.
C) 1 to 2 weeks.
D) greater than 3 weeks.
Q3) What can be given to a premature baby in order to prevent an RSV infection?
A) An inhaled corticosteroid agent
B) Ribavirin (Virazole)
C) Palivizumab (Synagis)
D) A sympathomimetic agent
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Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) What agent can be administered to a preterm infant to help reduce lung inflammation and the incidence of BPD?
A) Vitamin D
B) Bronchodilators
C) Ribavirin (VirazoleÒ)
D) Corticosteroids
Q2) Which of the following can increase an infant's likelihood of developing BPD?
A) Birth weight >3000 g
B) Overfeeding
C) Use of beta2-agonists
D) Bacterial sepsis
Q3) What is the most significant treatment of the neonate for the prevention of BPD?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Diuretic therapy
C) Vitamin E therapy
D) Exogenous surfactant
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) What additional procedures or treatments might be required for a patient with a CDH and significant pulmonary hypoplasia?
A) Plasmapheresis
B) ECMO
C) Cardiac pacemaker
D) Bronchoscopy
Q2) All of the following anatomic alterations may be found in a patient with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia EXCEPT:
A) lungs are compressed.
B) atelectasis.
C) hyperinflation.
D) complete lung collapse.
Q3) All of the following chest radiograph findings would be associated with a CDH EXCEPT:
A) steeple point sign.
B) complete lung collapse.
C) lungs do not meet the chest wall.
D) heart is shifted to the unaffected side.
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Q1) What is the most common cyanotic congenital cardiac defect in neonates?
A) ASD
B) VSD
C) TGA
D) TOF
Q2) What is the most common form of TGA?
A) a-TGA
B) b-TGA
C) c-TGA
D) d-TGA
Q3) According to the NHLBI, what is the most common type of birth defect?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Congenital heart defects
C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D) Cleft palate
Q4) All of the following are associated with tetralogy of Fallot EXCEPT:
A) pulmonary artery stenosis.
B) dextroposition of the aorta.
C) right ventricular hypertrophy.
D) atrial septal defect.
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Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) In evaluating a 16-month-old boy, the respiratory therapist finds him to be in mild respiratory distress, without a fever, but with a barking-type cough. A lateral neck x-ray taken in the emergency department shows a "steeple point" narrowing of the trachea. Based on this information, which of the following would the respiratory therapist conclude is the most probable diagnosis?
A) Acute bronchitis
B) Epiglottitis
C) Bronchiolitis
D) LTB
Q2) The medication racemic epinephrine (Micronefrin, Vaponefrin) is given to a patient with LTB because it:
A) is an effective bronchodilator.
B) causes mucosal vasoconstriction.
C) causes bradycardia.
D) has an appealing taste and smell.
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Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Q1) Hospital management of near-drowning victims includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) measurement of arterial blood gas values.
B) rewarming if the patient is hypothermic.
C) measurement of venous blood gas values.
D) chest radiography.
Q2) A 10-year-old girl was rescued from a school swimming pool, where she was found unconscious, and transported to a nearby hospital, where her lungs were discovered to be dry. What could cause dry lungs in this near drowning?
A) Her glottis spasmed and prevented pool water from entering her lungs.
B) Chlorinated pool water is quickly absorbed across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
C) Her young age and the cool pool water prevented serious pulmonary injury.
D) She swallowed the water.
Q3) After an extended time underwater, a near-drowning victim will most likely have:
A) tachypnea.
B) a normal respiratory rate.
C) bradypnea.
D) apnea.
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Q1) Clinical signs associated with acute upper airway obstruction due to thermal injury include:
1) pleural friction rub.
2) inspiratory stridor.
3) pulmonary edema.
4) painful swallowing.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) In an industrial accident, an adult incurred burns over his head and neck, both arms, and his anterior trunk. What percent of his BSA was burned?
A) 27%
B) 36%
C) 45%
D) 54%
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Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Q1) Examples of the types of surgical procedures that often result in atelectasis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) open heart surgery.
B) craniotomy.
C) gallbladder removal.
D) splenectomy.
Q2) All of the following would be found in a patient with atelectasis EXCEPT:
A) normal shunt fraction.
B) whispered pectoriloquy.
C) chest radiograph shows increased density in areas of atelectasis.
D) diminished breath sounds.
Q3) The respiratory therapist is performing chest assessment on a post-op cholecystectomy patient who has developed cough, fever, and tachypnea. Which of the following would the therapist expect to find confirming the suspicion of post-op atelectasis in this patient?
A) Decreased tactile and vocal fremitus
B) Hyperresonant percussion note
C) Bronchial breath sounds
D) Wheezes
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