Pulmonary Diagnostics Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Pulmonary Diagnostics is a course designed to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles, techniques, and interpretation of tests used to assess lung function and respiratory health. The curriculum covers topics such as spirometry, lung volume measurement, diffusion capacity, arterial blood gas analysis, and exercise testing, as well as specialized diagnostic tools for detecting pulmonary diseases. Students will gain practical experience with modern diagnostic equipment and learn to analyze and interpret test results in the context of various respiratory conditions. Emphasis is placed on clinical application, patient safety, and the role of diagnostics in the management and treatment of pulmonary disorders.
Recommended Textbook
Egans Fundamentals of Respiratory Care 11th Edition by Robert M. Kacmarek
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56 Chapters
3426 Verified Questions
3426 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History of Respiratory Care
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who was the first scientist in 1865 to suggest that microorganisms caused many diseases?
A) Thomas Young
B) Louis Pasteur
C) Henry Graham
D) Robert Koch
Answer: B
Q2) When was positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) first introduced to treat patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome?
A) 1935
B) 1946
C) 1958
D) 1967
Answer: D
Q3) When did the designation "respiratory therapist" become standard?
A) 1954
B) 1964
C) 1974
D) 1984
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quality in the practice of respiratory care encompasses which of the following?
1) Personnel performing care
2) Equipment used
3) Method or manner in which care is provided
4) Level of experience of respiratory care providers
A)1 and 2 only
B)3 only
C)1, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D
Q2) What organization is responsible for credentialing respiratory therapists?
A) AARC
B) ATS
C) NBRC
D) ACCP
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping
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Sample Questions
Q1) To find out what drugs or intravenous fluids a patient has received recently, you would go to which section of the medical record?
A) Progress sheet
B) Nurses' notes
C) Physician's orders
D) Medication record
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following factors are most critical in determining when a patient can be ambulated?
1) Willingness of patient
2) Stability of vital signs
3) Absence of severe pain
A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1, 2, and 3
D)1 and 3 only
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common route of pathogen transmission in the hospital setting?
A) Indirect contact
B) Droplet transmission
C) Airborne transmission
D) Surgical transmission
Q2) What solution should be used to disinfect the surfaces of the room of a patient who was infected with C. difficile?
A) 70% ethyl alcohol
B) 5.25% sodium hypochlorite
C) 1% sodium benzoate
D) 5% iodine solution
Q3) Which of the following are categories under Expanded Precautions?
1) Contact Precautions
2) Droplet Precautions
3) Standard Precautions
4) Airborne Infection Isolation
A)1 and 2 only
B)1, 2, and 4 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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Chapter 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) What conditions are necessary to incur liability under the doctrine of respondeat superior?
1) The injury caused must be the result of an act of negligence.
2) The act must occur within the subordinate's scope of employment.
3) The act must involve willful intent on the part of the subordinate.
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 3
D)1 and 3 only
Q2) Which of the following are legitimate defenses against an intentional tort?
1) Lack of intent to harm the patient
2) Performance of ordinary procedures
3) Informed consent given by patient
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 3
D)1 and 3 only
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Chapter 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the change in state of a substance from liquid to gaseous form occurring below its boiling point?
A) Evaporation
B) Sublimation
C) Boiling
D) Vaporization
Q2) Which of the following design components of an air injector would result in entraining the greatest amount of air?
1) Small orifice jet
2) Large entrainment ports
3) Low-velocity gas flow
A)1, 2, and 3
B)1 and 2 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)3 only
Q3) Which of the following would be the worst heat conductor?
A) Water
B) Glass
C) Air
D) Copper
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Chapter 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hospital-based applications for clinical decision support include:
1) Cardiac ischemia
2) Decreasing fluid given in resuscitation efforts
3) Appropriate tidal volume and plateau pressure monitoring in acute respiratory distress syndrome
4) Decreasing exacerbations in asthma patients
A)1 and 2
B)1, 2 and 3
C)1, 3, and 4
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Which of the following is included in the purposes of Telemedicine?
A) e-mailing test results to patients.
B) Support health care at a geographically different location from the patient to increase access to specialty care.
C) Allow access to patient's family members remotely.
D) Acquire patient assessment information in order to skip a patient home care visit.
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Chapter 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research
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Sample Questions
Q1) What Web site is known for well-respected rigorously conducted systematic evidence-based reviews and provides free access to abstracts and summaries pertaining to relevant clinical questions?
A) Cochrane.org
B) Medsearch.org
C) Wikepedia.com
D) Systemview.org
Q2) In what section of a paper are you likely to find exactly what was done to answer the research question?
A) Introduction
B) Discussion
C) Methods
D) Results
Q3) In what section of a paper are you likely to find the definitions of the general concepts discussed?
A) Introduction
B) Discussion
C) Methods
D) Results
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abnormalities of the placenta that can cause intrauterine growth retardation or fetal asphyxia include which of the following?
1) Abnormal implantation of the placenta
2) Separation of the placenta from the uterine wall
3) Decreased placental blood flow
A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q2) What results in partial or total obstruction of the airway in an unconscious patient?
A) Closed mouth coexistent with nasal congestion.
B) Epiglottis relaxes and occludes the laryngeal opening.
C) Relaxation of tongue and hypopharyngeal muscles.
D) The uvula occluding the airway.
Q3) What is normal amount of anatomic dead space found in a healthy lung?
A) 1 ml/kg predicted body weight
B) 2 ml/kg predicted body weight
C) 3 ml/kg predicted body weight
D) 4 ml/kg predicted body weight
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opening of the semilunar valves occurs when which of the following occurs?
A) The pressures in the arteries exceed those in the ventricles.
B) The pressures in the atria exceed those in the ventricles.
C) The pressures in the ventricles exceed those in the aorta and pulmonary artery.
D) The pressures in the ventricles exceed those in the atria.
Q2) What are the major branches of the left coronary artery?
1) Anterior descending
2) Circumflex
3) Coronary sinus
4) Posterior descending
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1 and 2 only
D)2 and 3 only
Q3) What circulatory system is referred to as a low-pressure, low-resistance system?
A) Left heart
B) Pulmonary vascular bed
C) Right heart
D) Systemic vascular bed
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under resting metabolic conditions, how much carbon dioxide does a normal adult produce per minute?
A) 150 ml/min
B) 200 ml/min
C) 250 ml/min
D) 300 ml/min
Q2) In traditional physical terms, how is work defined?
A) Force \(\times\) distance
B) Force \(\times\) time
C) Mass \(\times\) acceleration
D) Mass \(\times\) force
Q3) What happens during normal inspiration?
1) The P<sub>pl</sub> increases further below atmospheric pressure.
2) The transpulmonary pressure gradient widens.
3) P<sub>alv</sub> drops below that at the airway opening.
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 only
D)1 and 3 only
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under what conditions will the alveolar PACO<sub>2</sub> rise above normal?
A) If both metabolic rate and ventilation increase (e.g., through exercise)
B) If carbon dioxide production decreases relative to V<sub>A</sub>
C) If V<sub>A</sub> decreases relative to carbon dioxide production
D) When the patient is febrile
Q2) What is the approximate normal level of carbon dioxide production (CO<sub>2</sub>) for an adult?
A) 200 ml/min
B) 250 ml/min
C) 4200 ml/min
D) 6000 ml/min
Q3) When using therapeutic agents that can cause methemoglobinemia (methHb), which of the following is important to prevent adverse effects?
A) Checking the frequency of ventilation
B) Frequent monitoring for methHb to weigh the risk against the benefit
C) Occasional monitoring for sickle cell anemia
D) Frequent monitoring for abnormal body temperature (high or low)
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are major extracellular electrolytes?
1) Cl<sup>-</sup>
2) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
3) K<sup>+</sup>
4) Na<sup>+</sup>
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2, 3, and 4 only
C)1, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, and 4 only
Q2) Hyponatremia can lead to which of the following problems?
1) Impaired cognitive function
2) Negative effects on gait stability
3) Renal insufficiency
4) Cerebral edema
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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15
Chapter 14: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, determine the accuracy of the gas below. To be considered accurate, it must be within 0.03 pH unit. pH = 7.35, PCO<sub>2</sub> = 77 mm Hg, HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> = 41 mEq/L
A) This gas is completely accurate.
B) This gas is accurate as the calculated pH is 7.32.
C) This gas is accurate as the calculated pH is 7.38.
D) This gas is inaccurate according to the H-H equation.
Q2) What condition or treatment could cause iatrogenic respiratory alkalosis?
A) Central nervous system stimulation
B) Mechanical hyperventilation
C) Severe hypoxemia
D) Vagal stimulation
Q3) Using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, determine the accuracy of the gas below. To be considered accurate, it must be within 0.03 pH unit. pH = 7.22, PCO<sub>2</sub> = 49 mm Hg, HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> = 20 mEq/L
A) This gas is completely accurate.
B) This gas is accurate as the calculated pH is 7.23.
C) This gas is accurate as the calculated pH is 7.20.
D) This gas is inaccurate according to the H-H equation.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Regulation of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) To which anatomic structures do the ventral respiratory centers send motor signals during inspiration?
1) Diaphragm
2) Larynx
3) Pharynx
4) Sternocleidomastoids
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1 only
D)1, 2, and 4
Q2) Why does splashing cold water on the skin stimulate ventilation?
A) It decreases medullary inspiratory activity causing hyperpnea.
B) Hering-Breuer inflation reflex.
C) It increases medullary inspiratory activity causing hyperpnea.
D) J receptor.
Q3) What is the effect when the deflation reflex is stimulated?
A) A strong inspiratory effort
B) Expiration is initiated
C) Cuts off all inspiratory signals
D) Stimulates the termination of expiration
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Chapter 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should the respiratory therapist perform a blood pressure assessment fairly quickly?
A) The procedure is expensive.
B) The procedure cuts off blood flow to the forearm temporarily.
C) The respiratory therapist has other procedures to do.
D) The procedure is billed by the time involved.
Q2) Which of the following can cause decreased breath sounds?
1) Air or fluid in the pleural space
2) Hyperinflation of lung tissue
3) Mucus plugging of the airways
4) Shallow or slow breathing
A)2 and 4 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)1, 2, 3, and 4
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q3) Which of the following would cause an increase in tactile fremitus?
A) Pleural effusion
B) Pneumonia
C) Emphysema
D) Pneumothorax
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Chapter 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following values represents a normal serum potassium level?
A) 137 to 147 mEq/L
B) 98 to 105 mEq/L
C) 7 to 20 mEq/L
D) 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L
Q2) What term is used to describe a result significantly outside the reference range that may represent a pathophysiologic condition?
A) Reference range
B) Biological reference intervals
C) Expected value
D) Critical test value
Q3) What term is used to describe a sodium concentration that is below normal in the blood serum?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypochloremia
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19
Chapter 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of medications may lead to first-degree heart block?
A) Bronchodilators
B) Corticosteroids
C) Beta blockers
D) Xanthines
Q2) While a patient is receiving an albuterol treatment, the nurse performs an ECG. The ECG shows the patient's heart rate had increased from 98 to 120 beats/min with narrow QRS complexes preceded by a P wave. What is the appropriate course of treatment for this patient?
A) Atropine.
B) Activate the rapid response team.
C) Lidocaine.
D) Discontinue the treatment.
Q3) What is the normal period of time for the PR interval?
A) Not longer than 0.20 sec
B) Not longer than 0.30 sec
C) Not longer than 0.45 sec
D) Not longer than 0.50 sec
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Chapter 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors contributing to imprecision (random) errors during blood gas analysis?
A) Sample contamination
B) Contaminated buffers
C) Statistical probability
D) Sample mishandling
Q2) How does the Clark polarographic O<sub>2</sub> electrode function?
A) It measures the magnetic properties of O<sub>2</sub> versus N<sub>2.</sub>
B) It measures the electrical potential across a Wheatstone bridge.
C) It uses O<sub>2</sub> to produce a reduction-oxidation reaction.
D) It measures the comparative cooling effect on a heated wire.
Q3) After obtaining an arterial blood sample from an arterial line, you would do all of the following except:
A) flush the line and stopcock with the heparinized intravenous solution.
B) aspirate at least 5 ml of fluid or blood (dead space or waste).
C) confirm stopcock port open to intravenous bag solution and catheter.
D) confirm undamped pulse pressure waveform on monitor.
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have just given your patient a 0.03 mg/ml dose of methacholine to assess for asthma. The subsequent forced vital capacity (FVC) shows no change. What should you do next?
A) Report to the physician that the patient does not have asthma.
B) Wait 1 hr and repeat the test at the same dose.
C) Have the patient return tomorrow to repeat the test.
D) Double the dose and repeat the FVC maneuver.
Q2) What would you use to determine the accuracy of a water-sealed spirometer in measuring lung volumes?
A) Calibrated high-flow flowmeter
B) Computer-generated flow patterns
C) Calibrated 3-L syringe
D) Standard subject with known volumes
Q3) To ensure validity of the forced vital capacity (FVC) measurement, how many attempts should the patient perform?
A) Just one good one
B) Two that are nearly the same
C) Three that are acceptable
D) At least four
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a major limitation of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the chest?
A) Cannot visualize large vessels.
B) Cannot be used in patients with pacemakers.
C) Cannot be used to examine hilar structures.
D) Interpretation is difficult.
Q2) Which of the following is not a typical cause of atelectasis?
A) Abdominal surgery
B) Rib fracture
C) Hepatomegaly
D) Pleurisy
Q3) What problem exists when interpreting an overexposed chest film?
A) There is difficulty in seeing the peripheral blood vessels.
B) The ribs appear wider than normal.
C) The heart shadow is blurred.
D) The lymph nodes in the mediastinum cannot be seen.
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Chapter 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major challenge of ultrathin bronchoscopy?
A) Bronchoscopy kinking during procedure
B) The equipment is expensive
C) Issues with CT guidance equipment
D) Maintaining proper anatomical orientation in the peripheral airways
Q2) Which of the following must be continuously monitored during a bronchoscopy?
1) Cardiac monitoring
2) Blood pressure
3) Oximetry
4) MetHb levels
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4 only
Q3) During thermal ablation, how are endobronchial ignitions prevented?
A) The FiO<sub>2</sub> should always be maintained at 21%.
B) The FiO<sub>2</sub> should always be maintained below 40%.
C) The procedure is only performed for 3 sec at a time.
D) The patient's airway is cooled with cryotherapy prior to the procedure.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Nutrition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is associated with acute cardiac muscle weakness and potential cardiopulmonary failure?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypophosphatemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Low folic acid levels
Q2) In which of the following patients would indirect calorimetry be indicated?
1) Patients who are difficult to wean from mechanical ventilation
2) Patients with morbid obesity
3) Patients with a high level of stress
A)1 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)3 only
Q3) When is the basal metabolic rate (BMR) best obtained?
A) After 10 hr of fasting
B) While walking on a treadmill
C) On rising in the morning
D) 1 hr after lunch
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Chapter 24: Pulmonary Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms is associated with a poor prognosis in the patient with ventilator-related pneumonia despite optimal therapy?
A) C. pneumoniae
B) Klebsiella
C) P. aeruginosa
D) S. pneumoniae
Q2) For a patient with pneumonia with coexisting cardiopulmonary disease, according to the ATS guidelines, what single antibiotic could be given as empiric treatment?
A) Intravenous beta-lactam
B) Intravenous doxycycline
C) Intravenous fluoroquinolone
D) Intravenous macrolide
Q3) What is the most common identified cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Legionella pneumophila
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Chapter 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following symptoms is not a typical symptom of asthma?
A) Cough
B) Shortness of breath
C) Chest tightness
D) Chest pain
Q2) Bronchiectasis characterized by progressive, distal enlargement of the airways, resulting in sac-like dilatations is classified as:
A) cylindrical bronchiectasis.
B) varicose bronchiectasis.
C) cystic bronchiectasis.
D) obstructive bronchiectasis.
Q3) Your patient has bronchiectasis. Which of the following therapies is most needed?
A) Antibiotics
B) Bronchodilators
C) Incentive spirometry
D) Oxygen
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) In simple coal worker's pneumoconiosis, a chest radiograph that is characterized by multiple small nodular opacities on the chest x-ray film is most likely to be associated with what clinical presentation?
A) Asymptomatic
B) Cough
C) Crackles
D) Shortness of breath
Q2) Which of the following is found almost universally in patients with interstitial lung disease (ILD)?
A) Airway dilation
B) Bronchoconstriction
C) Compensatory cytokine release
D) Decreased compliance
Q3) What use, other than prognostic value, can serial pulmonary function tests provide for the management of interstitial lung disease patients?
A) Determine the degree of refractory hypoxemia.
B) Establish the need for lung transplantation.
C) Guide the type of oxygen therapy delivered.
D) Guide the type of medication therapy delivered.
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Chapter 27: Pleural Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much pleural fluid does a normal healthy adult have in each hemithorax?
A) 5 ml
B) 8 ml
C) 12 ml
D) 16 ml
Q2) Which of the following statements about pleural fluid is false?
A) Fluid can move easily between each hemithorax.
B) Normal protein concentration is between 1.3 and 1.4 g/dl.
C) The total volume is approximately 16 ml.
D) Total protein concentration is similar to that of interstitial fluid elsewhere in the body.
Q3) What is a common cause of persistent fever in intensive care unit (ICU) patients with pneumonia?
A) Congestive heart failure
B) Most exudative effusions
C) Parapneumonic effusions
D) Transudative effusions
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Chapter 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What therapy has been proven to improve survival in patients with COPD and pulmonary hypertension?
A) Bronchodilators
B) Oral vasodilators
C) Oxygen
D) Prostanoids
Q2) What are the two most common symptoms associated with primary pulmonary hypertension?
A) Dry cough and dyspnea
B) Dyspnea and angina
C) Hemoptysis and dyspnea
D) Syncope and chest pain
Q3) How does impedance plethysmography determine the presence or absence of deep vein thrombosis?
A) Notes resistance to electrical current associated with blood flow.
B) Radioactive isotopes target clots and show "hot" on gamma cameras.
C) Uses ultrasonic waves to delineate the presence of clot or clots.
D) Uses radiographic technique to spot the clots.
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the likely cause of nonhydrostatic pulmonary edema?
A) Injury to the vascular endothelium and/or alveolar epithelium
B) Abnormalities in intravascular hydrostatic pressures
C) An influx of polymorphonuclear neutrophils
D) Medication overdose
Q2) Which of the following complications has been associated with the use of PEEP in patients with ARDS?
A) Lung infection
B) Reduced cardiac output
C) Hepatic failure
D) Myocardial infarction
Q3) Which of the following risk factors for ARDS is classified as a nonpulmonary cause?
A) Toxic inhalation
B) Gastric aspiration
C) Near drowning
D) Sepsis
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Chapter 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following precautions should be immediately taken in a patient with blunt trauma?
A) Securing the airway with an endotracheal tube
B) Immobilization of the cervical spine
C) IV placement and aggressive fluid replacement therapy
D) CT scanning to determine occult internal bleeding
Q2) Over two-thirds of obese patients also suffer from what pathology?
A) Diabetes
B) Sleep apnea
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Peripheral vascular disease
Q3) From 2005 to 2009 in the United States, approximately how many deaths were due to drowning?
A) 4000
B) 6000
C) 8000
D) 10000
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32
Chapter 31: Lung Cancer
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pulmonary function tests are frequently used to determine tolerance to resectional surgery?
1) FEV<sub>1</sub>
2) FEF<sub>25% to 75%</sub>
3) FVC
4) DLCO
A)1 only
B)1 and 4 only
C)2 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) On a chest radiograph, large-cell carcinoma is commonly seen as what type of lesion?
A) Central lesion
B) Well-defined mass
C) Bilateral nodules
D) Unilateral nodules
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Chapter 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest
Wall
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What respiratory dysfunction is commonly seen in myotonic dystrophy?
A) Sleep-related disorders
B) Pulmonary fibrosis
C) Obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Pulmonary edema
Q2) What is the most common peripheral neuropathy causing respiratory insufficiency?
A) Lambert-Eaton syndrome
B) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C) Guillain-Barré syndrome
D) Myasthenia gravis
Q3) Respiratory muscle weakness is associated with which of the following abnormalities?
1) Pulmonary embolism
2) Ventilatory insufficiency
3) Hypoxemia
4) Atelectasis
A)4 only
B)2, 3, and 4 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 33: Disorders of Sleep
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When differentiating between central and obstructive sleep apnea, which of the following "channels" or parameters would reflect vastly different results during an apneic episode or event?
A) SpO<sub>2</sub>
B) Heart rate
C) Chest wall and abdominal effort
D) Nasal airflow
Q2) Why should the patient with obstructive sleep apnea not use alcohol?
A) Alcohol decreases the arousal threshold.
B) Alcohol increases upper airway muscle tone.
C) Alcohol increases the arousal threshold.
D) Alcohol reduces the cardiovascular compensatory mechanisms.
Q3) What is believed to be the cause of systemic hypertension in patients with sleep apnea?
A) Hypervolemia
B) Increased sympathetic tone
C) Elevated CO<sub>2</sub>
D) Tachycardia
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Chapter 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What therapy has been shown to reduce the incidence of bronchiectatic exacerbations in the patient with cystic fibrosis?
A) Autogenic lung drainage
B) Inhaled tobramycin
C) Chest physical therapy
D) Bronchodilator therapy
Q2) What is the leading cause of death among patients with cystic fibrosis?
A) Pancreatic disease
B) Lung disease
C) Gastrointestinal disease
D) Diabetes
Q3) What therapy has been shown to reduce the rate of loss of lung function in patients with cystic fibrosis?
A) High doses of ibuprofen
B) Continuous oxygen therapy
C) Corticosteroids
D) Inhaled DNase
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36
Chapter 35: Airway Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zileuton belongs to which of the following categories?
A) Cromolyn-like agents
B) Leukotriene modifiers
C) Anti-IgE agents
D) Anti-IgA agents
Q2) Which of the following terms is used to describe a drug that stimulates a receptor responding to norepinephrine?
A) Sympatholytic
B) Anticholinergic
C) Cholinergic
D) Adrenergic
Q3) Which phase describes the mechanism of drug action by which a drug causes its effects within the body through drug-receptor interactions?
A) Pharmaceutical
B) Pharmacognosy
C) Pharmacokinetic
D) Pharmacodynamic
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Chapter 36: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Therapeutic indications for fiberoptic bronchoscopy include which of the following?
1) Inspect the airways.
2) Retrieve foreign bodies.
3) Obtain specimens for analysis.
4) Aid endotracheal intubation.
A)2 and 4 only
B)3 and 4 only
C)1, 2, and 3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) To minimize the problems associated with pharyngeal aspiration in intubated patients, which of the following could you recommend?
1) Position patients in semi-recumbent position.
2) Insert the feeding tube into the duodenum.
3) Suction above the tracheal tube cuff.
4) Provide continuous aspiration of subglottic secretions.
A)1 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1, 2, 3, and 4
D)2, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During properly performed external chest compression on infants, how much should the sternum be compressed?
A) 0.5 in
B) 1.0 in
C) 1.5 in
D) 2.0 in
Q2) Which of the following is false about oropharyngeal airways?
A) Incorrect placement can worsen airway obstruction.
B) They all consist of a flange, body, and channel(s).
C) They should only be used by trained personnel.
D) They are contraindicated in children and infants.
Q3) After successive abdominal thrusts, the patient becomes unconscious and the airway still appears obstructed. What is the next appropriate action?
A) Rescuer should move the patient to the ground, activate EMS system, and begin CPR.
B) Halt efforts to clear the airway and decompress the stomach.
C) Try to remove the obstructing material manually (finger sweep).
D) Immediately apply a series of strong back blows to the patient.
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Chapter 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy
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109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are true about humidification and contact time?
1) The longer a gas is exposed to water, the greater is the amount of evaporation.
2) The rate of gas flow through a humidifier determines contact time.
3) Low flows decrease and high flows increase relative humidity output.
4) Bubble humidifier contact time depends on the water column depth.
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 4 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) What is the primary goal of humidity therapy?
A) Decrease airway reactivity to cold.
B) Maintain normal physiologic conditions.
C) Deliver drugs to the airway.
D) Reduce upper airway inflammation.
Q3) What is the total water output of unheated large-volume jet nebulizers?
A) 10 to 16 mg H<sub>2</sub>O/L
B) 16 to 25 mg H<sub>2</sub>O/L
C) 26 to 35 mg H<sub>2</sub>O/L
D) 33 to 55 mg H<sub>2</sub>O/L
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy
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116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a dose-response assessment of a patient's response to a metered dose inhaler bronchodilator, when would you stop increasing the dose?
1) When the peak expiratory flow rate improves less than 10% to 15%
2) When tachycardia occurs
3) When tremors are evident
4) When 6 to 8 puffs are delivered
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)1, 3, and 4 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) After initially conducting a pre- and postbronchodilator assessment on a stable asthmatic patient admitted to the hospital, how often would you recommend reassessment of peak expiratory flow rate/forced expiratory volume in 1 second?
A) With each treatment
B) Twice daily
C) Once per day
D) Every other day
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Chapter 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases
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78 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Helium must always be combined with at least how much O<sub>2</sub>?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Q2) To accurately determine the remaining contents of a liquid-filled CO<sub>2</sub> cylinder, what would you do?
A) Multiply the pressure by the cylinder factor.
B) Divide the pressure by the cylinder factor.
C) Weigh the contents of the cylinder.
D) Empty the cylinder while timing its flow.
Q3) By what means is O<sub>2</sub> for medical use in a hospital most commonly produced?
A) Chemical decomposition
B) Electrolysis
C) Fractional distillation
D) Physical separation
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Chapter 41: Medical Gas Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are giving a 80% He:20% O<sub>2</sub> mixture to an asthmatic patient through a nonrebreathing mask with a compensated Thorpe tube O<sub>2</sub> flowmeter set at 8 L/min. What is the actual flow being delivered to the patient?
A) 10 L/min
B) 12 L/min
C) 14 L/min
D) 18 L/min
Q2) To ensure a stable FiO<sub>2</sub> under varying patient demands, what must an O<sub>2</sub> delivery system do?
A) It must have a reservoir system at least equal to the V<sub>T.</sub>
B) It must provide all the gas needed by the patient during inspiration.
C) It must maintain flows that are at least equal to the patient's peak flows.
D) It must be able to deliver any O<sub>2</sub> concentration from 21% to 100%.
Q3) Physiologic effects of hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy include all of the following except:
A) neovascularization.
B) bubble reduction.
C) enhanced immune function.
D) systemic vasodilation.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Lung Expansion Therapy
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63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the outcomes would indicate improvement in a patient previously diagnosed with atelectasis who has been receiving incentive spirometry?
1) Improved PaO<sub>2</sub>
2) Decreased respiratory rate
3) Improved chest radiograph
4) Decreased forced vital capacity (FVC)
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)1, 3, and 4 only
C)1 and 2 only
D)4 only
Q2) Which of the following are appropriate volume goals for intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) therapy?
1) 10 to 15 ml/kg ideal body weight
2) At least 30% of the inspiratory capacity (IC)
3) Pressure level as high as 30 to 35 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
A)1 and 3 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)1 only
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44
Chapter 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician orders postural drainage for a patient with an abscess in the right middle lobe. Which of the following positions would you recommend for this patient?
A) Head down, patient prone with a pillow under abdomen
B) Head down, patient supine with a pillow under knees
C) Patient supine with a pillow under knees, bed flat
D) Head down, patient half-rotated to left, right lung up
Q2) What is the ideal patient position for directed coughing?
A) Sitting with one shoulder rotated inward, the head and spine slightly flexed
B) Supine, with knees slightly flexed and feet braced
C) Prone, with the head and spine slightly flexed
D) Supine, with forearms relaxed and feet supported
Q3) A patient with a neuromuscular disorder causing generalized muscle weakness is having difficulty developing an effective cough. Which of the following cough phases are primarily affected in this patient?
A) Irritation
B) Inspiration
C) Compression
D) Expulsion
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Chapter 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for
Ventilatory
Support
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common bedside measures used to assess the adequacy of lung expansion include which of the following?
1) VC
2) Respiratory rate
3) V<sub>T</sub>
4) V<sub>D</sub>/V<sub>T</sub>
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Which of the following is the normal alveolar-to-arterial difference for a 56-year-old female in the emergency department?
A) 12 mm Hg
B) 14 mm Hg
C) 16 mm Hg
D) 18 mm Hg
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Chapter 45: Mechanical Ventilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving continuous mandatory ventilation in the control mode has an inspiratory time of 1.5 sec and an expiratory time of 2.5 sec. What is the frequency of breathing?
A) 10/min
B) 12/min
C) 15/min
D) 18/min
Q2) Which of the closed-loop controllers is used by all ventilators?
A) Set point
B) Auto set point
C) Adaptive
D) Servo
Q3) What is the application of pressure above atmospheric at the airway throughout expiration during mechanical ventilation?
A) Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP)
B) Pressure support ventilation
C) Continuous mandatory ventilation (CMV)
D) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
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Chapter 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following gastrointestinal conditions are commonly associated with long-term positive-pressure ventilation (PPV)?
1) Bleeding
2) Ulceration
3) Diarrhea
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q2) What factor primarily determines the effect of positive-pressure ventilation (PPV) on the cardiac output?
A) Peak airway pressure
B) Mean pleural pressure
C) CO<sub>2</sub>
D) Expiratory time
Q3) What is traumatic injury to lung tissue caused by excessive pressure called?
A) Pulmonary barotrauma
B) Pulmonary hemorrhage
C) Pulmonary infarction
D) Pulmonary embolism
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Chapter 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately how deep should an endotracheal tube be placed on an adult male?
A) 23 cm at the teeth
B) 21 cm at the teeth
C) 19 cm at the teeth
D) 17 cm at the teeth
Q2) What is the normal trigger delay?
A) Less than 100 msec
B) Less than 150 msec
C) Less than 200 msec
D) Less than 250 msec
Q3) Possible ways to correct flow asynchrony in volume ventilation include which of the following?
1) Change to decelerating flow.
2) Increase peak flow to be greater than 60 L/min.
3) Match ventilator's inspiratory time to the patient's inspiratory time.
4) Decrease peak flow to be less than 60 L/min.
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) After setting up a patient on a ventilatory support device, which of the following supplementary equipment would you require to be available at the bedside?
1) Suction source and catheters
2) Backup artificial airway
3) Manual resuscitator with O<sub>2</sub>
A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1, 2, and 3
D)1 and 3 only
Q2) Which of the following is the least frequent cause of acute respiratory failure needing mechanical ventilation?
A) Sepsis
B) Postoperative respiratory failure
C) Heart failure
D) Aspiration
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Noninvasive Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are a required ventilator alarm for noninvasive ventilation (NIV)?
1) Loss of power
2) Circuit disconnect
3) Battery failure
4) Blender alarm
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Which of the following are contraindications for the use of noninvasive ventilation (NIV)?
1) Nonsupportive family
2) Lack of financial resources
3) Copious amounts of secretions
4) Uncooperative behavior on the part of the patient
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1, 2, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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Chapter 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are absolute contraindications for the use of ECMO?
1) Lethal congenital anomalies
2) Grade III or higher intracranial hemorrhage
3) Mechanical ventilation with 100% O<sub>2</sub> for greater than 13 days
4) Gestational age less than 34 weeks
A)1 and 2 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)2 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) During ECMO what is the primary test for anticoagulation measurement at the bedside?
A) ACT
B) PT
C) PTT
D) INR
Q3) During VA ECMO, where is the arterial cannula typically inserted?
A) Aorta
B) Right atrium
C) Pulmonary artery
D) Radial artery
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Chapter 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following lead to an increased end-tidal PCO<sub>2</sub>?
1) Decreased effective ventilation
2) Increased metabolic rate
3) Decreased minute ventilation
4) Exercise
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Which of the following are causes of increased airway resistance?
1) Small endotracheal tube
2) High gas flow
3) Increased secretions
4) Frequent suctioning
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cardiovascular changes would you consider a bad sign during weaning a patient from ventilatory support?
A) Development of chest pain
B) Increase in both stroke volume and cardiac index
C) Increase in heart rate from 95 to 110/min
D) Fall in blood pressure from 143/95 to 126/88 mm Hg
Q2) A physician has selected a pressure support protocol to wean a patient off ventilatory support. Which of the following pressure levels would you recommend to begin the weaning process?
A) Pressure sufficient to obtain a V<sub>T</sub> of 3 to 5 ml/kg of predicted body weight (PBW)
B) Pressure sufficient to overcome the imposed workload
C) Pressure sufficient to obtain a V<sub>T</sub> of 4 to 8 ml/kg PBW
D) Pressure equal to 30% of the volume-cycled peak inspiratory pressure
Q3) What is the least reliable weaning index?
A) Vital capacity (VC)
B) Maximum inspiratory capacity (MIP)
C) Minute ventilation (V<sub>E</sub>)
D) Rapid-shallow breathing index (f/V<sub>T</sub>)
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions affect placental blood flow during pregnancy?
1) Previous miscarriage
2) Smoking abstinence
3) Previous pregnancy complications
4) History of diabetes
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 3, and 4 only
Q2) During resuscitation of a newborn, after 15 to 30 sec of positive-pressure ventilation, what should the clinician do?
A) Evaluate the heart rate.
B) Suction the mouth, then the nose.
C) Begin chest compressions.
D) Initiate medications.
Q3) What is the normal arterial PO<sub>2</sub> in healthy infants?
A) Greater than 50 mm Hg
B) Greater than 60 mm Hg
C) Greater than 70 mm Hg
D) Greater than 80 mm Hg
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Chapter 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may be necessary with children before learning can take place?
A) Television shows
B) Patience
C) Games
D) Reward system
Q2) Which of the following are among the top common causes of death in the United States?
1) Heart disease
2) Cerebrovascular disease
3) Chronic obstructive lung disease
4) Cystic fibrosis
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In preparing an outpatient for a cardiopulmonary stress test to be conducted the next day, which of the following instructions would you provide?
1) The patient should fast for at least 8 hr before testing.
2) The patient should wear loose-fitting clothing and sneakers.
3) The patient should stop all medications at once.
4) The patient should review the drugs with the physician.
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1, 2, 3, and 4
D)1, 2, and 4 only
Q2) What is the first step in evaluating patients for participation in a pulmonary rehabilitation program?
A) Complete blood gas analysis
B) Complete patient history
C) Cardiopulmonary stress test
D) Pulmonary function testing
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Chapter 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Providing necessary home care equipment and supplies and handling any emergency situations involving delivery or equipment operation is the responsibility of which member of the respiratory home care team?
A) Social services representative
B) Respiratory care practitioner
C) Nurse
D) Durable medical equipment (DME) company representative
Q2) Making necessary contacts with outside agencies that can help with home care is the responsibility of which member of the respiratory home care team?
A) Attending physician
B) Social services representative
C) Respiratory care practitioner
D) Nurse
Q3) One cubic foot (1 cu/ft) of liquid O<sub>2</sub> equals how many cu/ft of gaseous O<sub>2</sub>?
A) 22.80
B) 7.48
C) 860.00
D) 3.14
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Page 58