Pulmonary Assessment Question Bank
Course Introduction
Pulmonary Assessment is a course designed to equip students with the knowledge and practical skills necessary to evaluate respiratory function and diagnose pulmonary disorders. The course covers key topics such as the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system, patient history taking, physical examination techniques, chest auscultation, interpretation of arterial blood gases, spirometry, and other pulmonary function tests. Students will learn to recognize signs and symptoms of common respiratory conditions, perform comprehensive assessments, and utilize appropriate diagnostic tools to support clinical decision-making in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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44 Chapters
673 Verified Questions
673 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/248
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/3919
Sample Questions
Q1) The physical setting for the interview should provide for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) minimize or prevent interruptions.
B) ensure privacy during discussions.
C) interviewer is the same sex as the patient to prevent bias.
D) be comfortable for the patient and interviewer.
Answer: C
Q2) The respiratory therapist is conducting a patient interview and recording responses in the patient's electronic health record. The respiratory therapist should take which of the following into account regarding the use of the computer to record responses?
A) The therapist's attention may be shifted from the patient to the computer.
B) The patient will feel more important than if the information is recorded on paper.
C) The therapist will be less likely to make spelling errors if using a spell-check program.
D) The environment will be more professional and the patient will be more likely to open up if the interview is conducted with paper.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/3920
Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is examining a patient in the medical ward and notes that the trachea is deviated to the left. All of the following may be causing the tracheal deviation to the left EXCEPT:
A) a right-sided tension pneumothorax.
B) a right-sided pleural effusion.
C) a tumor mass on the right.
D) atelectasis of the right upper lobe.
Answer: D
Q2) Coarse crackles are associated with:
1) inspiration typically.
2) air passing through an airway intermittently occluded by mucus.
3) bronchial asthma.
4) expiration typically.
A) 2, 4
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/3921
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has restrictive lung disease. In response to this, which of the following are typically found?
1) Decreased lung compliance
2) Increased ventilatory rate
3) Increased tidal volume
4) Decreased ventilatory rate
A) 3, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2
D) 1, 3, 4
Answer: C
Q2) The FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub> is used to evaluate:
A) flow in large airways.
B) restrictive lung disease.
C) maximum breathing effort.
D) flow in medium-size to small airways.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mechanical ventilation is indicated for which of the following ABG results?
A) pH 7.56; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 27; HCO<sub>3</sub> 23; PaO<sub>2</sub> 63
B) pH 7.23; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 63; HCO<sub>3</sub> 26; PaO<sub>2</sub> 52
C) pH 7.36; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 79; HCO<sub>3</sub> 43; PaO<sub>2</sub> 61
D) pH 7.52; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 51; HCO<sub>3</sub> 40; PaO<sub>2</sub> 46
Q2) What causes stimulation of the peripheral chemoreceptors to increase the ventilatory rate?
A) Pain or anxiety
B) PaCO<sub>2</sub> of about 40 mm Hg
C) PaO<sub>2</sub> of about 60 mm Hg
D) Venous pH of 7.30 to 7.40
Q3) The most common cause of acute alveolar hyperventilation is:
A) hypoxemia.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) tachycardia.
D) supplemental oxygen administration.
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6
Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sample of blood has been taken from a patient's pulmonary artery. What mixed venous oxygen saturation value (SvO<sub>2</sub>) would indicate that the patient is normal?
A) 40 mm Hg
B) 95 mm Hg
C) 75%
D) 97%
Q2) Oxygen consumption:
1) increases with exercise.
2) is the amount of oxygen used by the body.
3) is inversely related to carbon dioxide production.
4) is about 250 mL/min in the resting adult.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be identified by which of the following?
1) There is no P wave.
2) The QRS is wide.
3) The QRS looks normal.
4) The heart rate is altered.
A) 1
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) A central venous pressure (CVP) catheter is used to:
A) measure left atrial pressure.
B) measure left ventricular work.
C) monitor right ventricular function.
D) monitor left ventricular function.
Q3) The T wave represents:
A) depolarization of the ventricles.
B) repolarization of the ventricles.
C) depolarization of the atria.
D) repolarization of the atria.
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is called to evaluate a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolus. The respiratory therapist would MOST likely recommend which of the following diagnostic procedures to help determine if the patient has a pulmonary embolus?
A) CTPA
B) Fluoroscopy
C) PET scan
D) MRI scan
E) CT scan
Q2) Which of the following are evaluated on a chest radiograph?
1) The bony structures
2) Exposure quality
3) The heart shadow
4) The tracheobronchial tree
A) 4
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 14-year-old patient has had a serious asthma attack. Her white blood cell count can be expected to show:
A) decreased neutrophils.
B) decreased erythrocytes.
C) increased eosinophils.
D) increased monocytes.
Q2) The respiratory therapist is called to evaluate a patient for arterial line placement needed for accessibility and repeated ABG sampling. In evaluating the risk of bleeding, the therapist should establish that the patient has a platelet count of at least ____/mm³ before recommending placement of the arterial line.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 20,000
D) 50,000
E) 100,000
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10
Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration are part of what TDP?
A) Lung expansion protocol
B) Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy protocol
C) Aerosolized medication therapy protocol
D) Oxygen therapy protocol
Q2) Which of the following is (are) associated with the alveolar consolidation clinical scenario?
1) Increased opacity on the chest radiograph
2) Decreased FRC
3) Bronchial breath sounds
4) Hyperresonant percussion note
A) 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) A TDP can be started after:
A) the nurse finishes his or her assessment.
B) the treatment option is selected.
C) a physician's order for the TDP is received.
Page 11
D) authorization is received from the patient's insurance carrier.
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Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are clinical indicators of Type I respiratory failure?
1) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>
2) Increased P(A-a)O<sub>2</sub>
3) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>/FIO<sub>2</sub>
4) Decreased ÓS/ÓT
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following are contraindications for noninvasive ventilation (NIV) EXCEPT:
A) facial and head trauma.
B) community-acquired pneumonia.
C) copious, viscous sputum.
D) severe upper GI bleeding.
Q3) What effect would a pulmonary embolism have on the VD/VT and the /Ó ratio?
A) The VD/VT would increase and the /Ó would decrease.
B) The VD/VT would decrease and the /Ó would increase.
C) The VD/VT and the /Ó ratios would both increase.
D) The VD/VT and the /Ó ratios would both decrease.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for Data Collection,
Organization, Assessment Skill
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/3929
Sample Questions
Q1) A problem-oriented medical record is used by health-care practitioners to:
1) systemically gather the patient's data.
2) communicate with the patient's family.
3) develop an assessment.
4) formulate a treatment plan.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following statements are true regarding a patient's chart EXCEPT:
A) the patient's chart is a legal record and can be used in court.
B) accreditation agencies may access a patient's chart to assess appropriateness of care.
C) the patient's insurance company may review the patient's chart before providing reimbursement.
D) the patient's spouse may access the patient's chart without authorization by the patient.
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13
Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
(COPD), Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the inward movement of the lateral chest wall during inspiration?
A) Truman's sign
B) Burton's sign
C) Carr's sign
D) Hoover's sign
Q2) Which of the following are clinical findings associated with chronic bronchitis?
1) Cyanosis
2) Purulent sputum
3) Right heart failure
4) Elevated CO<sub>2</sub> level
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Emphysema may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) inhaling asbestos fibers.
B) a1-antitrypsin deficiency.
C) secondhand cigarette smoke.
D) air pollution.
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Chapter 13: Asthma
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/3931
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be expected when a chest assessment is performed on a patient during an asthmatic episode?
1) Inverse I:E ratio
2) Decreased vocal fremitus
3) Increased vesicular breath sounds
4) Hyperresonant percussion note
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following are associated with extrinsic asthma?
1) Animal dander
2) Mold
3) Emotional stress
4) Male gender
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
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Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Irregularly dilated and constricted bronchi are the key anatomic alterations found in which type of bronchiectasis?
A) Cystic
B) Varicose
C) Tubular
D) Saccular
Q2) Congenital causes of bronchiectasis include:
A) influenza.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) COPD.
D) rheumatic disease.
Q3) Which form of bronchiectasis causes the greatest amount of damage to the tracheobronchial tree?
A) Triphasic
B) Varicose
C) Cystic
D) Fusiform
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Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can the genetic mutation found with cystic fibrosis (CF) be characterized?
1) There are many variations in the mutation.
2) CF is the most common fatal childhood inherited disorder.
3) The mutation is a dominant trait.
4) The mutation stops ciliary function.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) During the advanced stages of cystic fibrosis, the anatomic alterations cause the patient to have:
A) a primarily restrictive lung disease.
B) a primarily obstructive lung disease.
C) equal parts restrictive and obstructive lung disease.
D) normal airways with emphysema.
Q3) Which ethnic group has the greatest number of people with cystic fibrosis?
A) African-Americans
B) Asians
C) Hispanics
D) Caucasians
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Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pulmonary infections is most commonly seen in patients with AIDS?
A) Anaerobic
B) Pneumocystis jiroveci
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae (Diplococcus pneumoniae)
D) Legionella pneumophila
Q2) A 28-year-old patient who has dogs, parakeets, and cats as pets has been admitted with pneumonia. It is suspected that she acquired the infection from one of her pets. What organism is likely to be found in her sputum?
A) Bacteroides melaninogenicus
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Chlamydia psittaci
D) Haemophilus influenzae
Q3) A patient has a pleural effusion related to her pneumonia. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend to treat the pleural effusion?
A) Hyperinflation therapy
B) Supplemental oxygen
C) Thoracentesis
D) Percussion and postural drainage
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions can result in a lung abscess?
1) Penetrating chest wound
2) Septic embolism
3) Aspirated foreign body
4) Bronchogenic cyst
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) An unconscious patient aspirated gastric contents. Which of the following anaerobic microorganisms would likely now be found in her lower respiratory tract?
1) Legionella pneumophila
2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3) Peptococci
4) Bacteroides fragilis
A) 1, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following ways is tuberculosis generally NOT spread?
A) Inhaling droplets of aerosol from an infected person
B) Drinking unpasteurized milk from cattle infected with the pathogen
C) Laceration with contact of infected secretions during postmortem autopsy
D) Sharing utensils and glassware with an infected person
Q2) The preferred stain that is used to identify the TB organism is called:
A) Gram stain.
B) fluorescent acid-fast stain.
C) Ziehl-Neelsen.
D) gentian violet.
Q3) A patient has postprimary TB. What are the major pathologic or structural changes associated with it?
1) Cavity formation
2) Laryngeal edema
3) Dilated and distorted bronchi
4) Fibrosis of lung parenchyma
A) 2, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
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Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the advanced stages of a fungal lung infection, which of the following is commonly seen on the chest radiograph?
A) Hyperinflation
B) Spherical nodules
C) Right shift of the heart
D) Cavities
Q2) In the Midwestern part of the United States, what is the most common fungal infection of the lungs?
A) Cryptococcosis
B) Histoplasmosis
C) Blastomycosis
D) Coccidioidomycosis
Q3) A skin test is available to confirm which of the following fungal infections?
A) Coccidioidomycosis
B) Blastomycosis
C) Tuberculosis
D) Pseudomonal infection
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21
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mask CPAP is used with pulmonary edema patients because it does all of the following EXCEPT:
A) decrease vascular congestion.
B) reduce work of breathing.
C) it is less expensive than mechanical ventilation.
D) improve lung compliance.
Q2) All of the following may be causes of cardiogenic pulmonary edema EXCEPT:
A) dysrhythmias.
B) systemic hypertension.
C) congenital heart defects.
D) excessive fluid administration.
E) pulmonary embolism.
Q3) A patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema would be expected to have all of the following chest radiograph findings EXCEPT:
A) depressed diaphragms.
B) pleural effusion.
C) cardiomegaly.
D) bilateral "butterfly" pattern fluffy infiltrates.
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22
Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best test for diagnosing a suspected pulmonary embolism is a(n):
A) spiral computerized tomography scan.
B) pulmonary function test.
C) electrocardiogram.
D) chest radiograph.
Q2) All of the following are associated with the formation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) EXCEPT:
A) blood vessel injury.
B) age greater than 40 years.
C) hypercoagulability.
D) venous stasis.
Q3) All of the following are preventive measures taken with patients at high risk for thromboembolic disease EXCEPT:
A) Drink lots of water.
B) Dangle your legs over the edge of the bed before getting up.
C) Walk frequently.
D) Wear compression stockings.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary cause of hypoxemia in a patient with a severe flail chest?
A) Myocardial contusion
B) Hemorrhage
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Alveolar atelectasis
Q2) Which of the following would be recommended for the management of an adult with a severe flail chest?
1) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
2) Pain management
3) Mechanical ventilation
4) Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) When a patient has a flail chest, what happens during the ventilatory cycle?
A) The I:E ratio becomes inverse.
B) Air leaks out through the flail area.
C) Air leaks in through the flail area.
D) Air is shunted from one lung to the other.
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Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old patient requires placement of a thoracostomy chest tube. All of the following are recommended for the procedure EXCEPT:
A) application of -5-cm H<sub>2</sub>O pressure to the chest tube.
B) use of a No. 28 to 36 French gauge tube.
C) placement of the tube at the apex of the lung.
D) clamping and removing the tube within 24 hours of insertion.
Q2) According to the way gas enters the pleural space, a pneumothorax will be classified as:
1) intrinsic.
2) extrinsic.
3) open.
4) closed.
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2
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25
Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a chest assessment on a patient with a large pleural effusion, which of the following would be expected?
1) Increased tactile and vocal fremitus
2) Hyperresonant percussion note
3) Diminished breath sounds
4) Tracheal shift
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with a significant pleural effusion include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) diaphragm elevation.
B) atelectasis.
C) compression of the great vessels.
D) lung compression.
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Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pulmonary function results are likely to be found in a patient with kyphoscoliosis?
1) Increased VT
2) Normal or increased PEFR
3) Decreased VC
4) Decreased FVC
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following are orthotic braces used in the management of scoliosis EXCEPT _____ brace.
A) Boston
B) Milwaukee
C) Chicago
D) Charleston bending
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are associated with lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) EXCEPT:
A) recurrent chylothoraces and recurrent pneumothoraces.
B) increased airway obstruction.
C) postmenopausal women are primarily affected.
D) airway smooth muscle is affected.
Q2) Which of the following chest radiograph findings would be associated in a patient with ILD?
1) Pleural effusion
2) Honeycombing
3) Cavity formation
4) Increased translucency
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q3) What is another name for rheumatoid pneumoconiosis?
A) Goodpasture's syndrome
B) Caplan's syndrome
C) Churg-Strauss syndrome
D) Sjögren's syndrome
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Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is (are) small cell lung cancer(s)?
1) Undifferentiated carcinoma
2) Squamous carcinoma
3) Adenocarcinoma
4) Oat cell carcinoma
A) 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Signs and symptoms associated with metastatic lung cancer include:
1) fatigue.
2) bone pain.
3) seizures.
4) weight loss.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) What initial tidal volume setting on the ventilator would be recommended for a 70-kg adult male with ARDS?
A) 350 mL
B) 420 mL
C) 560 mL
D) 700 mL
Q2) Which of the following clinical manifestations are associated with ARDS?
1) Normal or decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)
2) Increased CVP
3) Intercostal retractions
4) Cyanosis
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) The chest radiograph finding indicative of severe ARDS is:
A) "ground-glass" appearance of the lungs.
B) pleural effusion.
C) bilateral hyperinflation of the lungs.
D) tracheal deviation.
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Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percentage of patients with GBS develop respiratory muscle paralysis?
A) <5%
B) 6% to 9%
C) 10% to 30%
D) 31% to 50%
Q2) In the United States and Europe, what is the most common subtype of GBS?
A) Miller Fisher syndrome (MFS)
B) Acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN)
C) Acute pandysautonomic neuropathy (APN)
D) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP)
Q3) Which of the following are identified as the causative organisms of the respiratory or gastrointestinal infections that precede the onset of most cases of GBS?
A) Chlamydia psittaci and Campylobacter jejuni
B) Cytomegalovirus and mononucleosis
C) Campylobacter jejuni and cytomegalovirus
D) Mononucleosis and parainfluenza 2
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Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) Which of the following are among the treatment options for the patient with myasthenia gravis?
1) Pyridostigmine (MestinonÒ)
2) Plasmapheresis
3) Thymectomy
4) Mechanical ventilation
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A patient has a severe case of generalized myasthenia gravis. It is most important that the patient be monitored for:
A) urine output.
B) atrial fibrillation.
C) hypotension.
D) apnea.
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Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Q1) First-line treatment for the management of hyperventilation-related central sleep apnea includes:
A) CPAP.
B) adaptive servo-ventilation (VPAP).
C) mechanical ventilation.
D) palatopharyngoplasty.
Q2) A CPAP titration polysomnogram is performed to:
A) find the maximum CPAP level for the functional residual capacity.
B) determine the lowest possible CPAP level.
C) find the CPAP level to maintain an open airway.
D) determine the pressure needed for negative-pressure ventilation.
Q3) The rationale behind the use of supplemental oxygen in the treatment of sleep apnea is to:
A) preoxygenate the airway prior to the apneic episodes.
B) stimulate the central chemoreceptors and prevent apneic episodes.
C) increase the respiratory drive in the medulla.
D) blow off carbon dioxide in the alveolus.
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Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Q1) A neonate in respiratory distress will often dilate his or her nostrils to:
A) facilitate inspiration.
B) nurse more easily.
C) sneeze out amniotic fluid.
D) raise the intrapleural pressure.
Q2) Apnea of prematurity can be defined as:
1) respiratory pause causing bradycardia.
2) cycles of short breathing pauses followed by faster breathing.
3) no breathing for >20 seconds.
4) sudden apnea and death (crib death).
A) 4
B) 2
C) 1, 3
D) 3, 4
Q3) A neonatal patient is found to have grunting on expiration. What physiologic effect does this produce?
A) Increased vital capacity
B) Increased PAO<sub>2</sub>
C) Decreased PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D) Closes the ductus arteriosus
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) Indications that a newborn has aspirated meconium include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) high Apgar score.
B) meconium in amniotic fluid.
C) newborn is not actively breathing.
D) meconium staining on skin.
Q2) What is the consequence of meconium aspiration if there is a "ball-valve" effect in the small airways?
A) Air trapping on exhalation
B) Apnea of prematurity
C) Air trapping on inhalation
D) Bronchiectasis
Q3) A common finding in a neonate with MAS is a respiratory rate that is:
A) under 40/min.
B) between 40 and 60/min.
C) well over 60/min.
D) cyclical with faster and then slower breaths.
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35
Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) Which of the following oxygenation indices would be elevated in TTN?
A) Arterial-venous oxygen content difference
B) Oxygen consumption
C) Mixed venous oxygen saturation
D) Pulmonary shunt fraction
Q2) Which of the following breathing patterns are associated with TTN?
1) Normal rate
2) Rapid rate
3) Higher than normal tidal volume
4) Shallow tidal volume
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 4
Q3) All of the following radiologic findings would be expected in a 12-hour-old neonate with TTN EXCEPT:
A) air bronchograms.
B) fluid in the interlobular fissures.
C) elevated diaphragms.
D) prominent perihilar streaking.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) A patient with RDS has alveolar hypoxia and pulmonary vasoconstriction. How will this affect his blood flow?
1) Blood shunts through the foramen ovale
2) Increased systemic blood flow
3) Blood shunts through the ductus arteriosus
4) Decreased blood flow to the gut
A) 2, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) In assessing a patient with RDS, the respiratory therapist would expect to find all of the following EXCEPT:
A) intercostal retractions.
B) acrocyanosis.
C) flaring nostrils.
D) wheezing.
E) cyanosis.
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) All of the following are associated with a pneumopericardium EXCEPT:
A) systemic hypotension.
B) reduced cardiac output.
C) decreased stroke volume.
D) increased cardiac index.
Q2) During the physical exam of a neonate with early pulmonary air leak syndromes, what respiratory rate would be expected?
A) <20 breaths/min
B) 20 to 30 breaths/min
C) 40 to 60 breaths/min
D) >60 breaths/min
Q3) Which of the following medications would be recommended for the treatment of SIAHD?
A) Beta2-agonists
B) NSAIDs
C) Diuretics
D) Corticosteroids
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Q1) The physical examination of a neonate with RSV will often reveal all of the following EXCEPT:
A) change in point of maximum impulse (PMI).
B) excessive secretions.
C) expiratory grunting.
D) cyanosis.
Q2) The diagnosis of RSV is most often confirmed with a sample obtained by:
A) tracheal suctioning.
B) venipuncture.
C) arterial blood sampling.
D) urine specimen.
E) nasopharyngeal aspirate.
Q3) Outbreaks of RSV are usually found in all of the following seasons of the year EXCEPT: A) spring.
B) summer.
C) fall.
D) winter.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) What is the most significant treatment of the neonate for the prevention of BPD?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Diuretic therapy
C) Vitamin E therapy
D) Exogenous surfactant
Q2) Which of the following "new" BPD criteria would indicate a mild case of the condition?
1) Breathing room air upon discharge
2) Needed nasal continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
3) Needs <30% oxygen upon discharge
4) Needed supplemental oxygen for 28 days
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
Q3) Which of the following can increase an infant's likelihood of developing BPD?
A) Birth weight >3000 g
B) Overfeeding
C) Use of beta2-agonists
D) Bacterial sepsis
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) What initial ventilator setting(s) would be recommended for a newborn with a CDH?
1) PEEP of 2-3 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
2) FIO<sub>2</sub> of 1.0
3) Peak inspiratory pressure of 18-20 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
4) Respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min
A) 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is described as abnormal elevation of an intact diaphragm into the chest cavity?
A) Diaphragmatic eventration
B) Morgagni's hernia
C) Bochdalek's hernia
D) Diaphragmatic altimetry
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following is used to confirm the diagnosis of ASD?
A) Electromyogram
B) Electrocardiogram
C) Echocardiogram
D) Electrophoresis
Q2) Which of the following are considered to be noncyanotic defects?
1) PDA
2) ASD
3) TOF
4) VSD
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) What is the most common type of VSD?
A) Inlet ventricular septal defect
B) Perimembranous ventricular septal defect
C) Muscular ventricular septal defect
D) Conoventricular ventricular septal defect
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) Childhood vaccination is done to prevent which of the following possible causes of epiglottitis?
A) Haemophilus influenza type B
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Diphtheria
D) Parainfluenza viruses
Q2) The diagnosis of LTB is made by all of the following EXCEPT the child:
A) has inspiratory stridor and barking cough.
B) has a normal temperature or low fever.
C) has a significant fever.
D) can drink without difficulty.
Q3) A patient has been diagnosed with bacterial epiglottitis. Which of the following antibiotics should the respiratory therapist most likely recommend?
A) Amikacin (Amikin)
B) Tobramycin (Nebcin)
C) Cefalexin (Keflex)
D) Ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn)
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Q1) Hospital management of near-drowning victims includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) measurement of arterial blood gas values.
B) rewarming if the patient is hypothermic.
C) measurement of venous blood gas values.
D) chest radiography.
Q2) According to the World Health Organization, where does drowning rank worldwide as a cause of unintentional death?
A) It's the leading cause of unintentional death.
B) It's the second leading cause of unintentional death.
C) It's the third leading cause of unintentional death.
D) It ranks twenty-third among the causes of unintentional death.
Q3) The pulmonary function findings for a wet drowning victim would reveal:
A) increased IRV.
B) increased DLCO.
C) decreased VC.
D) increased TLC.
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Q1) A 10-year-old patient has inhaled hot gases, and an inspection of her mouth shows edema and blisters. What should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A) Perform a bronchoscopy to evaluate the trachea.
B) Perform endotracheal intubation.
C) Monitor her SpO<sub>2</sub> once per shift.
D) Administer an aerosol treatment with racemic epinephrine.
Q2) All of the following classes of medications are commonly used in the care of patients with smoke inhalation injury EXCEPT:
A) parasympatholytics.
B) mucolytics.
C) sympathomimetics.
D) monoclonal antibody.
Q3) Which of the following would be recommended for the treatment of cyanide poisoning?
A) Aztreonam
B) Albuterol sulfate
C) Amyl nitrate
D) Aclidinium bromide
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Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Q1) Examples of the types of surgical procedures that often result in atelectasis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) open heart surgery.
B) craniotomy.
C) gallbladder removal.
D) splenectomy.
Q2) Common chest assessment findings in a patient with atelectasis include:
1) increased tactile fremitus.
2) dull percussion note.
3) crackles.
4) bronchial breath sounds.
A) 4
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) All of the following would be found in a patient with atelectasis EXCEPT:
A) normal shunt fraction.
B) whispered pectoriloquy.
C) chest radiograph shows increased density in areas of atelectasis.
D) diminished breath sounds.
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