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Public Policy explores the processes through which governments address societal issues by developing, implementing, and evaluating policies. The course examines the roles of institutions, interest groups, and citizens in shaping policy decisions across a variety of sectors such as health, education, environment, and the economy. Students learn to analyze policy problems, assess the impact of public policies, and consider ethical implications while developing practical skills in policy formulation, advocacy, and evaluation. Through case studies and real-world examples, the course provides a comprehensive understanding of how public policy shapes everyday life and the mechanisms behind effective governance.
Recommended Textbook
State and Local Government by the People 16th Edition by David B. Magleby
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Q1) Explain the theory of pluralism.
Answer: An ideal response would be:
Pluralism refers to a theory of government that holds that open, multiple, and competing groups can check the asserted power of any one group.
Q2) Citizen opposition to having a drug treatment clinic or a prison in their neighborhood is an example of ________.
A)a total lack of empathy
B)a political action committee
C)the "Not In My Back Yard!" response
D)political propaganda
E)elitism
Answer: C
Q3) Special interest groups show the greatest influence in states where there are powerful political parties that are well-organized.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about the disadvantages of federalism?
A)Federalism does not protect citizens from tyranny.
B)Federalism limits opportunities for future national leaders.
C)Federalism discourages experimentation.
D)Federalism promotes variation in policies that creates inefficiencies and inequalities.
E)Federalism widens the gap between the government and the people.
Answer: D
Q2) Only state governments can supervise relationships between multinational corporations and their thousands of worldwide employees.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Federalism can be a source of enormous frustration, especially when national and state governments disagree on basic issues such as civil rights and liberties.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a constitutional convention is called, what is the first decision the delegates need to make?
Answer: An ideal response would be: If a convention is called, one of the first decisions the delegates need to make is whether they should ask the voters to accept or reject the new constitution as a whole? Or should they vote on each section separately?
The advantage of the first method is that each provision of a constitution ties in with another, and to secure all the advantages of revision, voters should adopt the entire document.The disadvantage is that those who oppose only a particular provision may vote against the entire constitution.
Q2) A state commission that recommends changes in the state constitution for action by the legislature and vote by the voters is called a(n) ________.
A)lobby
B)constitutional commission
C)revision commission
D)popular initiative
E)constitutional convention
Answer: C
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Q1) Describe the various elections that are held in the United States.
Q2) Briefly explain the requirements for political parties to get on the ballot.
Q3) Restrictive voting registration laws are expected to have no effect on voter turnout.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unlike initiatives and referendums, recalls do not require sufficient petition signatures from registered voters to meet a pre-established threshold.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe the two different types of public financing programs.
Q6) According to Article I, Section 4 of the U.S.Constitution, the U.S.Congress may not alter regulations regarding the ________.
A)time of holding elections for senators and representatives
B)manner of holding elections for senators and representatives
C)places of choosing senators
D)date on which the elections are being held
E)candidates being chosen for the elections
Q7) Describe the consequences of party imbalance in a one-party state.
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Q1) Which of the following states has a one-house unicameral legislature?
A)California
B)Idaho
C)Nebraska
D)Florida
E)Virginia
Q2) Some states give their state legislatures an opportunity to act on measures proposed by voters.If the legislature approves, the law goes into effect, and, if not, the measure gets placed on the ballot for a public vote.This is an example of ________.
A)indirect initiative
B)gatekeeping
C)redistricting
D)gerrymandering
E)lobbying
Q3) Identify the two major rules of lobbyists.
Q4) State legislative committees generally have more power than their national counterparts.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) ________ provides governors in a few states the power to scale down a particular appropriation.
A)Amendatory veto
B)Pocket veto
C)Line item veto
D)Reduction veto
E)Absolute veto
Q2) Which of the following tasks of a governor consists of recruiting talented leaders and managers to head the state's various commissions?
A)granting clemency
B)preparing the state budget
C)vetoing legislation
D)issuing executive orders
E)making appointments
Q3) What are some of the factors that affect the personal power of a state governor?
Q4) Elaborate on the appointive powers of a state governor.
Q5) Elaborate on some of the expectations faced by governors today.
Q6) Elaborate on the influence that governors have in changing policy.
Q7) What are some of the main tasks of a state governor?
Q8) What is a "waiver" in relation to adopting new state laws?
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Q1) Which of the following refers to a term used to describe work that lawyers (or other professionals) do for which they receive no fees?
A)true bill
B)information affidavit
C)tort
D)indictment
E)pro bono
Q2) Advisory opinion is defined as ________.
A)the power of a court to determine whether a law or government regulation is consistent with the state constitution or U.S.Constitution
B)a view unrelated to a particular case that gives a court's view about a constitutional or legal issue
C)the authority of a court to hear a case "in the first instance"
D)the power of an appellate court to review the decision made by a superior court
E)the authority of an appellate court to overturn the decision of the superior court
Q3) What actions should a prosecutor take when presented with a case by the police?
Q4) Briefly describe minor courts.
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Q1) What is meant by the strong mayor-council form?
A)a gradual change in property ownership with wealthier people buying property and moving into neighborhoods, leading to the revitalization of the area
B)a form of local government in which the voters directly elect the city council and the mayor, who enjoys nearly total administrative authority
C)a city "constitution" that outlines the structure of city government, defines the authority of the various officials, and provides for their selection
D)a form of local government in which the city council hires a professional administrator to manage city affairs
E)a form of local government in which the members of the city council select the mayor, who then shares power with other elected or appointed boards and commissions
Q2) Describe the Voting Rights Act of 1965.
Q3) Briefly explain the system of townships in New England.
Q4) Counties rely heavily on state and federal sources for their revenue.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The inherent powers of state governments to pass laws to protect public health, safety, and welfare are referred to as ________.
A)police powers
B)the two-track system
C)reserve powers
D)de facto segregation
E)supervisory powers
Q2) Education can easily be fully separated from politics because most people have the same idea about how schools should be run.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Money provided by the American government to parents for payment of their children's tuition in a public or private school of their choice is known as a ________.
A)reward
B)debt
C)bill
D)benefit
E)voucher
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Q1) A ________ is where public employment hiring and promotion are based on demonstrated skill, training, and performance rather than on political patronage.
A)merit system
B)connector model
C)two-track system
D)de facto segregation
E)spoils system
Q2) Most of the growth in federal grants as sources of revenues for state governments has come from TRICARE.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There has been a dramatic decrease in legalized gambling in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the major criticisms of the merit system?
Q5) What are the grounds for concern that some people have about states' capacities to fund and administer the programs they enact.
Q6) Explain legalized gambling as a source of revenue.
Q7) Define progressive tax and severance tax.
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