Public Policy and Negotiation Exam
Answer Key
Course Introduction
Public Policy and Negotiation explores the theories, frameworks, and practical techniques involved in negotiating within the public policy arena. The course examines how diverse stakeholders governments, interest groups, communities, and organizations formulate policies and resolve conflicts through negotiation and consensus-building. Students will analyze real-world case studies of policy disputes, develop negotiation strategies, and practice skills such as mediation, facilitation, and multi-party bargaining. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, effective communication, and the impact of cultural, social, and political factors on policy negotiation outcomes.
Recommended Textbook Negotiation Readings Exercises and Cases 6th Edition by Roy Lewicki
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Negotiation
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Q1) BATNA stands for
A) best alternative to a negotiated agreement.
B) best assignment to a negotiated agreement.
C) best alternative to a negative agreement.
D) best alternative to a negative assignment.
E) BATNA stands for none of the above.
Answer: A
Q2) Is the give-and-take process used to reach an agreement the "heart of the negotiation" as most people assume"?
Answer: While that give-and-take process is extremely important, negotiation is a very complex social process; many of the most important factors that shape a negotiation result do not occur during the negotiation, but occur before the parties start to negotiate, or shape the context around the negotiation.
Q3) Negotiating parties always negotiate by ____________.
Answer: choice
Q4) What are the three ways that characterize most relationships between parties?
Answer: Most relationships between parties may be characterized in one of three ways: independent, dependent, and interdependent.
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Chapter 2: Strategy and Tactics of Distributive Bargaining
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Q1) Although disruptive action tactics can work, they may also produce ____________ and escalation of ____________.
Answer: anger, conflict
Q2) Define commitment.
Answer: "Taking of a bargaining position with some explicit or implicit pledge regarding the future course of action."
Q3) In some ways, the ultimate weapon in negotiation is to threaten to ____________ ____________.
Answer: terminate negotiations
Q4) An offer that may have been accepted had it emerged as a result of ____________ ____________ may be rejected when it is presented as a fait accompli.
Answer: concession making
Q5) Most hardball tactics are designed to either ____________ the appearance of the bargaining position of the person using the tactic or to ____________ ____________ the appearance of the options available to the other party.
Answer: enhance, detract from
Q6) Define selective presentation.
Answer: Negotiators reveal only the facts necessary to support their case.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Strategy and Tactics of Integrative Negotiation
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Q1) What approaches to logrolling can be particularly helpful in the "evaluation and selection of alternatives" phase of integrative negotiation?
Answer: Exploit differences in risk preference, exploit differences in expectations, exploit differences in time preferences.
Q2) In an integrative negotiation, negotiators must be ____________ about their primary interests and needs, but ____________about the manner in which these interests and needs are met through solutions.
Answer: firm, flexible
Q3) When formal channels of communication break down, negotiators are permitted to finding alternatives and can use which of the following?
A) conversations over coffee breaks
B) separate meetings between chief negotiators outside of the formal sessions
C) off-the-record contacts between key subordinates
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Answer: D
Q4) _________ interests are related to how the negotiations unfold.
Answer: Process
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Chapter 4: Negotiation Strategy and Planning
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Q1) A strong interest in achieving only substantive outcomes tends to support a ____________ strategy.
Q2) Accommodative strategies emphasize:
A) Subordinating one's own goals in favor of those of others.
B) Secrecy and defensiveness
C) Abandonment of bad images and consideration of ideas based on merit
D) A key attitude of "I win; you lose"
E) All of the above
Q3) Negotiation, like communication in problem-solving groups, proceeds through distinct ____________ or ____________.
Q4) The decision to negotiate is closely related to the desirability of ____________ ____________.
Q5) Tactics are subordinate to strategy; they are structured, directed and driven by ____________ considerations.
Q6) Define strategy and tactics.
Q7) A "field analysis" is one way to assess all the key parties in a ____________.
Q8) What are the four types of initial strategies for negotiators?
Page 6
Q9) Why is it important to understand the typical steps or flow in a negotiation?
Q10) Define Relationship building, a key step in an ideal negotiation.
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Chapter 5: Perception, Cognition, and Emotion
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Q1) In which type of frame would parties be more likely to engage primarily in distributive (win-lose or lose-lose) negotiations than in other types?
A) Identity
B) Loss-gain
C) Outcome
D) Process
E) Substantive
Q2) Frames shape what the parties define as the ____________ ____________ and how they talk about them.
Q3) ____________ is the tendency of negotiators to believe that their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than is actually true.
Q4) Considering mood and emotion, negotiators are portrayed as rational beings who seem ____________, calm, and in control.
Q5) Parties who focus on ____________ in a dispute are often able to find ways to resolve that dispute.
Q6) Define cognitive biases.
Q7) How does projection occur?
Q8) Define perception.
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Chapter 6: Communication
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Q1) In which of the following examples is the communication model listed in the correct order?
A) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender
B) message is transmitted, sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender
C) sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender
D) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender, receiver decodes the message
E) None of the above list the communication process in the correct order.
Q2) Gibbons, Bradac, and Busch suggest that threats can be made more credible and more compelling by using
A) positively polarized descriptions of the other party.
B) low immediacy.
C) high intensity.
D) low verbal diversity.
E) None of the above can make threats more credible and compelling.
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Chapter 7: Finding and Using Negotiation Power
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Q1) In his book Managing with Power, Jeffrey Pfeffer illustrated how powerful political and corporate figures build empires founded on ____________ ____________.
Q2) Why is a BATNA a good source of power?
Q3) Which of the following statements about legitimate power is false?
A) Legitimate power is at the foundation of our social structure.
B) Social structures are inherently inefficient, and this realization creates the basis for legitimate power.
C) Legitimate power cannot function without obedience.
D) Legitimate power is often derived from manipulating other sources of power.
E) All of the above statements about legitimate power are true.
Q4) In dealing with others who have more power, ____________ the information that would be most compelling or persuasive to the other side; ____________ it so that you can draw on it quickly and ____________ it to be maximally persuasive.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Do compliance strategies result in long-term or short-term persuasion? Why?
Q6) Describe the concept of "power motives."
Q7) What is the problem of "dancing with elephants"?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Influence
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Q1) Researchers have distinguished between two broad uses of authority in influence-seeking. The first is authority based on one's personal expertise or credibility. What is the second?
Q2) Status gives people visibility, which allows them to get attention and be heard. Where do people get their status from among the following criteria?
A) Their occupation.
B) Their age.
C) Their education level.
D) Their manner of dress.
E) All the above.
Q3) Exchange is the process of offering ____________ to secure the other's compliance and cooperation.
Q4) When is it a good idea to let others draw their own conclusion? When is it dangerous to let others draw their own conclusions?
Q5) One of the most effective ways of getting people to stand firm on a position is to have them make a ____________ ____________ to that position.
Q6) What is the central route to persuasion, as defined by Petty and Cacioppo?
Q7) ____________ means repeating in our own words what someone else has said.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Ethics in Negotiation
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Q1) What were the results of the study between district attorneys and public defenders on the use of deceptive negotiation tactics?
Q2) Reasonable people will ____________ as to exactly where to draw the line between what is ethical and what is unethical for some tactics.
Q3) Which of the following statements about group and organizational norms is false?
A) Job related pressures within particular work groups, departments, or divisions may be such that marginally ethical behavior is not only tolerated, but even condoned.
B) The more loyalty and commitment people feel toward an organization, the less that loyalty may be abused.
C) Organizations may exert direct pressures on an individual to breach ethics or even break the law in the service of achieving some corporate or organizational goal.
D) The pressures of escalating commitment may predispose parties to commit more unethical actions.
E) All of the above statements about group and organizational norms are True.
Q4) Explanations and justifications are self-serving ____________ for one's own conduct.
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Chapter 10: Relationships in Negotiation
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Q1) ____________ justice is about how organizations appear to treat groups of individuals and the norms that develop for how they should be treated.
Q2) Do many people approach a new relationship with an unknown party with remarkably high levels of trust?
Q3) In calculus-based trust
A) the trustor calculates the value of creating and sustaining trust in the relationship relative to the costs of severing it.
B) the relationship develops over time, largely because the parties develop a history of experience with each other which allows them to predict the other's behavior.
C) regular communication and courtship are key processes.
D) the parties effectively understand and appreciate the other's wants.
E) All of the above statements are inherent in calculus based trust.
Q4) Negotiators who helped develop a group negotiation strategy were more ____________ to it and to the group's negotiation goals.
Q5) An individual's ____________ ____________ toward trust can be described as individual differences in personality that make some people more trusting than others.
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Chapter 11: Agents, Constituencies, Audiences
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Q1) When do audiences become indirectly involved in the negotiation?
Q2) A rejection vote by the union rank and file is tantamount to a vote of ____________ in the negotiator.
Q3) A ____________ is one or more parties that have designated someone else to represent their positions and interests in a negotiation.
Q4) The effectiveness of communicating through audiences is determined by several factors. What are those factors?
Q5) Audiences hold negotiators accountable in all but one of the following ways. Which one?
A) When the negotiator's performance is visible.
B) When the audience is dependent upon the negotiator for their outcomes.
C) When the negotiating agents were members of a group that developed the negotiating position.
D) When the audience is able to judge how well a negotiator performs.
E) When the audience insists that the negotiator be tough, firm, and demanding.
Q6) What is the dilemma of trust between agents and constituents?
Q7) Constituents expect to profit (or lose) as a direct result of the agent's ____________, and they often select their agent based on his or her ability to achieve their goals.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Coalitions
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Q1) According to Block, when does enlightened self-interest occur?
Q2) According to Murnighan, "When anyone will do, interchangeability favors those who appear ____________."
Q3) In coalition research, how is the commons dilemma avoided?
Q4) Who is the founder of the coalition?
Q5) In what roles can parties view other prospective coalition members?
Q6) Those advocating an ____________ allocation standard argue that everyone should receive the same outcome.
Q7) How do relationship dynamics affect the formation and stability of coalitions?
Q8) The "strength-is-____________" theory states that the more resources one holds or controls, the more likely that he or she is likely to be a critical coalition member.
Q9) The ____________ develops some form of action agenda, vision, or commitment, and persuades others to join him or her in pursuing it.
Q10) ____________ are people with whom a negotiator has conflicting goals and objectives, but who can be trusted to be principled and candid in their position. A)True B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Multiple Parties and Teams
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Q1) Which of the following questions should not be asked as part of the requirements for building a relationship in the connect model?
A) Can we agree to have a constructive conversation?
B) Can our conversation be productive enough to make a difference?
C) Can we restructure the agreement to include the original issue?
D) Can we all commit to making improvements?
E) Can we understand and appreciate each other's perspective?
Q2) What are the three key stages and phases that characterize multilateral negotiations?
A) the prenegotiation stage, managing the actual negotiations, and managing the agreement stage.
B) the coalition building stage, the relationship development stage, the networking stage.
C) the coalition building stage, the networking stage, and the actual negotiation stage.
D) the prenegotiation stage, the networking stage, and the managing the agreement stage.
E) None of the above lists the three key stages and phases that characterize multilateral negotiations.
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Chapter 14: Individual Differences I: Gender and Negotiation
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Q1) Watson and Kasten found that women managers perceived male behavior as more ____________ than men did.
Q2) What is the difference between sex and gender?
Q3) The term ____________ refers to the biological categories of male and female, and the term ____________ refers to the culture and psychological aspects associated with each category.
Q4) A study on aggressive behavior showed that females were ____________ times less likely to be hired when aggressive.
Q5) What has past research tended to find in the search for gender differences?
Q6) What do the authors, Babcock and Laschever, argue in their recent book addressing the gender divide in negotiation?
Q7) Which of the following are likely to "level the playing field" for women who seem to be at a disadvantage in negotiations?
A) Motivational interventions.
B) Situational interventions.
C) Cognitive Interventions.
D) None of the above interventions can help rectify the disparity.
E) All of the above contribute to reducing the constraints.
Q8) What role does mind-set play as a tool in negotiation for the different sexes?
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Chapter 15: Individual Differences 2: Personality and Abilities
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Q1) What results were found in studies conducted on perspective-taking ability?
A) Negotiators with higher perspective-taking ability negotiated contracts of lower value that did negotiators with lower perspective-taking ability.
B) Perspective-taking ability may influence the negotiation process by decreasing the concession rate of the other negotiator.
C) Perspective takers are better able to uncover the underlying interests shared by two parties, and to come to more creative solutions.
D) The mean perspective-taking ability score of the negotiation pairs was negatively correlated with their joint outcomes.
E) None of the above results about perspective-taking ability were found to be accurate.
Q2) The ____________ style is low on both assertiveness and cooperativeness according to Thomas' research.
Q3) ____________ ____________ orientations are preferences that people have regarding the kinds of outcomes they prefer in social settings where interdependence with others is present.
Q4) What is the difference between high self-monitors and low self-monitors?
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Page 17
Chapter 16: International and Cross-Cultural Negotiation
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Q1) What are the disadvantages to using the "induce the other party to use your approach" strategy?
Q2) What is the challenge in using the "adapt to the other party's approach" strategy?
Q3) In individualistic societies, negotiators are considered interchangeable, and ____________ (rather than relationship) is an important consideration when choosing a negotiator.
Q4) Foster suggests that culture can influence negotiations across borders in what different ways?
Q5) What is the most frequently studied aspect of international negotiations?
Q6) How does the value of international currencies affect cross-cultural negotiation decisions?
Q7) Negotiators faced with unstable circumstances should include ____________ in their contracts that allow for easy cancellation or neutral arbitration.
Q8) According to Salacuse, what are the six factors that make global negotiations more challenging than domestic negotiations?
Q9) What are Phatak and Habib's immediate context factors?
Q10) The "embrace the other party's approach" strategy involves:
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Managing Negotiation Impasses
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Q1) To have a constructive, significant impact on negotiations, ____________ goals must be jointly desired by both sides and must not be seen as benefiting one side more than the other.
Q2) What strategy does Fisher suggest to make options more desirable to the opponent?
A) give them a "yes-able" proposal
B) ask for a different decision
C) sweeten the offer
D) use legitimacy or objective criteria to evaluate solutions
E) Fisher suggests all of the above strategies to make options more desirable.
Q3) Which of the following techniques is the least effective in resolving impasses and defusing volatile emotion?
A) separating the parties
B) tension management
C) active listening
D) synchronized de-escalation
E) all of the above techniques aid in resolving impasses
Q4) Spector proposes that the metaphorical process of ____________ reasoning provides considerable power to reframe intractable conflict.
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Chapter 18: Managing Difficult Negotiations
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Q1) How can negotiators protect themselves when dealing with an opponent with more power?
Q2) A tactic that is ignored is essentially a tactic
A) pressed.
B) defeated. C) converted.
D) exchanged. E) reserved.
Q3) What are the three types of power moves?
Q4) Some people are invariably difficult and their behavior follows predictable and one of the other following patterns. Which one?
A) aggressive
B) confusing
C) contentious
D) identifiable
E) counter indicating
Q5) Sometimes problems in negotiation can be traced to difficulties in the other party's ____________ style.
Q6) What are the five steps of Ury's "breakthrough approach?"
Q7) What are the advantages of Ury's "go to the balcony" approach?
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Chapter 19: Third-Party Approaches to Managing Difficult Negotiations
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Q1) Process consultants assume that teaching the parties how to manage conflict more productively and effectively will lead them to produce better ____________.
Q2) Kressel and Pruitt report that mediation's greatest effectiveness occurred in situations marked by ____________ levels of conflict.
Q3) Third-party intervention should be avoided as long as:
Q4) As a method of third-party intervention, ____________ is likely to lead to situations in which disputants are less than fully committed to following through, especially if they feel dissatisfied with the arbitrator's decision.
Q5) ____________ ADR provides a third-party neutral that assists the parties in negotiating a resolution.
Q6) Conflict costs for organizations include:
Q7) The ____________ effect states that when arbitration is anticipated as a result of the failure of parties to agree, negotiators may lose interest in the process of negotiating.
Q8) ____________ is probably the most common and well-known form of third-party dispute resolution.
Q9) A corollary to the rule "No third-party involvement unless necessary," is:
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Chapter 20: Best Practices in Negotiations
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Q1) Negotiators can illuminate definitions of _____________ that the other party's holds and engage in a dialogue to reach consensus on which standards of _____________ apply in a given situation.
Q2) Negotiators also need to remember that _____________ factors influence their own behavior (and that it is not uncommon for us to not recognize what is making us angry, defensive, or zealously committed to some idea).
Q3) At the top of the best practice list for every negotiator is
A) managing coalitions.
B) diagnosing the structure of the negotiation.
C) remembering the intangibles.
D) preparation.
E) protecting your reputation.
Q4) While some people may look like born negotiators, negotiation is fundamentally a skill involving ____________ and _____________ that everyone can learn.
Q5) Excellent negotiators understand that negotiation embodies a set of _____________-seemingly contradictory elements that actually occur together.
Q6) Why is preparation so important for negotiators?
Q7) Why is it said that reputations are like eggs?
Page 22
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