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Public Health Dentistry focuses on the prevention and control of dental diseases and the promotion of oral health through organized community efforts. This course examines the principles and practices of dental public health, including the assessment of oral health needs, planning and evaluation of community-based oral health programs, epidemiology of oral diseases, and the delivery of dental care services to diverse populations. Students will explore topics such as oral health policy, health promotion strategies, program management, and the role of dental professionals in improving population health and reducing disparities in oral health outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
The Dental Hygienists Guide to Nutritional Care 4th Edition by Cynthia A. Stegeman
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21 Chapters
824 Verified Questions
824 Flashcards
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41 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The messages of MyPlate convey include each of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Fruits and vegetables should fill half the plate.
B) Fruit juices should be consumed frequently.
C) Lean proteins foods should be chosen in moderation.
D) Whole grains should occupy about one fourth of the plate.
E) Physical activity is encouraged through the activity tab that has links to MyJournal.
Answer: B
Q2) Each of the following is true of terminology on food nutrition labels except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Daily reference values (DRVs) are the levels of nutrients considerable desirable for health.
B) A product's nutrient profile is based on the percentage of DRVs, but the term daily value (DV) is used on the label.
C) For ease of standardizing the label, 2000 kcal is the reference amount for calculating the percentage of the DV in a serving.
D) The amounts for the nutrients are based on the daily value (DV).
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fatty acids are structural components that are present in more complex lips, such as triglycerides (TGs). Also referred to as triacylglycerols, TGs synthesize fatty acids.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Answer: C
Q2) Biochemists organize the variety in chemical structure by classifying molecules into functional groups. A functional group is a group of atoms that gives a family of molecules its characteristic chemical and physical properties.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adult stomach functions as a reservoir to hold an average meal for 6 to 8 hours. The rate of passage through the stomach (fastest to slowest) is liquids, proteins, carbohydrates, and fats.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Answer: D
Q2) In a well-functioning alimentary tract, stomach contents do not "back wash" into the esophagus, because the pyloric sphincter prevents foodstuff from seeping back into the esophagus.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary fiber, especially hemicellulose and cellulose, is furnished by grain products such as wheat, corn, rice, and oats. The fiber content of foods claiming "whole-grain" must have more than 5 g of fiber per serving.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Snacks contribute significantly to the nutritional intake of young children and teenagers. Approximately 50% of commonly consumed snack foods contain fermentable carbohydrates.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Which one of the following provides the most fructose?
A) Milk
B) Fruits
C) Cereals
D) Vegetables
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Sample Questions
Q1) Analysis of a vegan's diet reveals that the patient has not been consuming any vitamin B<sub>12</sub>. As an intervention, each of the following would be appropriate to suggest except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Brewer's yeast
B) White chicken breast
C) Soy-fermented tempeh
D) Fortified breakfast cereal
Q2) Which food is most likely to contribute to protein deficiency?
A) Milk
B) Legumes
C) Meat
D) Cheese
E) Eggs
Q3) The substance that is most supportive of bones and teeth is:
A) hemoglobin.
B) collagen.
C) insulin.
D) pepsin.
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Q1) Hydrogenation results in naturally unsaturated vegetable oils being changed to saturated fatty acids (SFAs). This process changes the proportion of the SFAs, but does not influence the shape of the fatty acid.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Each of the following is true of characteristics of fats except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Soft fats that are liquid at body temperature are digested more quickly than hard fats.
B) Hard fats are digested more quickly than soft fats that are liquid at body temperature.
C) Fats that contribute to palatability and flavor of foods.
D) Cooked fats improve texture of foods.
Q3) Which fatty acid has the most hydrogen atoms?
A) Saturated
B) Monounsaturated
C) Polyunsaturated
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type 1 diabetes is also referred to as juvenile diabetes because adults do not develop this disease.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Catabolism is also called the Krebs cycle. During the Krebs cycle glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids are converted to a usable form of energy.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) The main manifestation of type 2 diabetes is:
A) hyperglycemia.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) ketoacidosis.
D) insulin resistance.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true of vitamin D except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Vitamin D has the potential to become toxic at high levels.
B) Vitamin D toxicity can increase result in confusion, mental changes, and heart rhythm abnormalities.
C) Amounts above 10,000 international units (IUs) daily may result in kidney and tissue damage.
D) Diets low in fiber can result in less vitamin D absorption.
Q2) Large amounts of vitamin A supplements can exceed the storage capacity of the kidneys. When present in high concentrations, unbound vitamin A causes damage to cell nuclei, especially in the white blood cells and lysosomes.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Q1) Individuals should consume 30% of the daily value or 300 mg of calcium per serving three or four times daily because under normal conditions, less than one third of the calcium consumed is absorbed.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Calcium balance, an intake that equals excretion, depends solely on adequate calcium intake. Although hormones such as PTH are involved in phosphorus balance, hormonal influence on calcium balance is insignificant.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Q1) Each of the following is considered an ultratrace element except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Molybdenum
B) Boron
C) Nickel
D) Lithium
E) Vanadium
Q2) Causes copper deficiency
A)Keshan disease
B)Excess selenium
C)Tin
D)Copper
E)Aluminum
F)Manganese
G)Excess molybdenum
H)Chromium
I)Selenium
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some nutrients may compete or block the action or absorption another nutrient. Most time-released supplements counteract this problem.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) The most common vitamin deficiency among the B-complex vitamin is usually due to low intake of:
A) vitamin B<sub>1</sub>.
B) vitamin B<sub>2</sub>.
C) pantothenic acid.
D) folate.
Q3) The system most likely to be responsible for excessive salivation in a nervous dental patient is the:
A) Krebs cycle.
B) TCA cycle.
C) parasympathetic autonomic nervous system.
D) sympathetic autonomic nervous system.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loss of 1 pound of body weight during exercise means that at least 2 cups of water have been lost. High protein diets during exercise retain more water than do diets high in fruits and vegetables.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Each of the following interferes with zinc absorption except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Calcium
B) Fiber
C) Higher quality protein
D) Phytate
E) Phosphate salts
Q3) Dissolved substances that freely cross cellular membranes are:
A) osmoreceptors.
B) solutes.
C) renin.
D) cations.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The factor that is least predictive of a healthy pregnancy is:
A) the mother's nutritional status before conception.
B) appropriate weight gain.
C) gestation of 39 to 41 weeks.
D) birth weight less than 5
Q2) Low-dose iron supplementation during pregnancy, even if the gravida is not anemic, improves the woman's iron status and protects the infant from iron-deficiency anemia.
Maternal and fetal goiter, cretinism, and intellectual impairments are linked to infant iron deficiency.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) An infant is considered premature if the gestational period is less than 39 weeks. Mortality rates are highest for infants born at 32 to 36 weeks' gestation.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best way to prevent osteoporosis is through building bone mass during what stage of life?
A) Infancy
B) Early childhood
C) Adolescence
D) Young adulthood
Q2) Natural ingredient in breast milk related to brain and retinal development
A)DHA
B)Necrotizing enterocolitis
C)Omega-3 fatty acids
D)Innate desire
E)Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
F)Bruxism
G)Sealants
Q3) To help prevent early childhood caries (ECC), the dental hygienist should recommend he infant:
A) not be given nighttime bottles.
B) drink pasteurized skim milk.
C) eat iron-rich foods.
D) drink fruit juice.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are sound nutritional directives for older adults? (Select all that apply.)
A) Daily multivitamin-mineral supplementation provides immune protection.
B) Calcium supplements should not be more than 1000 mg/day.
C) Vitamin D supplements should be limited to less than 4000 IU/day.
D) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> supplementation may improve cognitive function.
E) Omega fatty acids increase triglyceride levels.
Q2) Sarcopenia, protein, and osteoporosis have important links that dental hygienists should understand. Which of the following are accurate? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sarcopenia is inevitable with aging.
B) Impaired protein use can be overcome by consuming high-quality protein at each meal.
C) High-protein foods stimulate carbohydrate synthesis.
D) Resistance exercise combined with complete protein consumption elicits anabolism.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Restaurants with 20 or more locations post the number of kilocalories and other nutritional information standard menu items because since 2010, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has required that such establishments provide this information.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Each of the following correctly state reasons for the higher cost of organic food except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Production costs are higher.
B) Labor costs are lower.
C) Crops yields are lower.
D) Demand is high.
E) Profit margins are higher than conventional.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abnormal mass of tissue
A)Phantom taste
B)Pernicious anemia
C)Neutropenia
D)Bisphosphonates
E)Goitrogens
F)Hypopituitarism
G)Brown tumors
H)Osteosclerosis
I)Neoplasia
Q2) A generalized malignant disease characterized by distorted proliferation and development of white blood cells (WBCs) is called:
A) leukoplakia.
B) leukemia.
C) human papillomavirus.
D) micrognathia.
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Q1) Which is the least significant factor influencing development of dental caries?
A) Susceptibility of the host or tooth
B) A sufficient quantity of cariogenic microorganisms in the mouth
C) An adequate supply of saliva
D) The presence of fermentable carbohydrates
Q2) Which of the following are major factors in the dental caries process? (Select all that apply.)
A) Depth of the natural anatomic pits and fissures
B) Overlapping and crowded teeth
C) Race of ethnic group
D) Income
E) Chlorhexidine use
Q3) Demineralization of enamel occurs when the critical pH of 5.5 is reached. In interproximal areas or in deep pits and fissures, the pH can decrease to 5 and remain at that pH for 30 minutes.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describe necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis? (Select all that apply.)
A) An acute periodontal disease
B) Prevalent in the elderly
C) Characterized by red and shiny gingiva
D) Sweet smelling breath
E) Common complaints include a burning mouth
Q2) Which of the following accurately describe aspects of chronic periodontitis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Clinical attachment loss occurs.
B) Incisal movement of the junctional epithelium occurs.
C) Bone loss results from this destructive disease.
D) Purulent exudate is possible from periodontal pockets.
E) Chronic periodontitis is generalized throughout the mouth.
Q3) Which nutrient is essential for normal growth and development of salivary glands and epithelial tissue?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin B complex
D) Zinc

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Sample Questions
Q1) Saliva flow test
A)Sialometric test
B)Dentin hypersensitivity
C)Erosion
D)Abrasion
E)Cheddar cheese
F)Temporomandibular disorder
G)Tinnitus
H)Crepitus
I)Geographic tongue
J)Phytochemicals
Q2) Loss of teeth or supporting periodontium is frequently associated with poor food selection and limited chewing ability. The patients' masticatory efficiency and biting force decline with each tooth lost.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Q1) Motivational interviewing is a respectful, collaborative conversation about change. While the power for change rests in the hands of the patient, the dental professional selects the dietary plan most appropriate for the patient.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Pale to grey mucosa
A)Folic acid
B)Vitamin C
C)Vitamin A
D)Vitamin K
E)Iron
F)Zinc
G)Cobalamin
Q3) During nutritional counseling, it is most important to:
A) consult the patient's family.
B) formulate a sample diet plan before presenting it to the patient.
C) include members of the dental team in the dietary formulation.
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D) include the patient in formulation of the dietary plan.
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