Public Administration Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Public Administration is the study of the implementation of government policy and the management of public programs. This course explores the principles, structures, and processes that shape how government agencies operate at various levels, including federal, state, and local. Students will examine topics such as organizational theory, public sector ethics, budgeting, personnel management, and the relationship between public administrators and the citizens they serve. Through case studies and analysis, the course provides insights into the challenges and best practices of effectively administering public services in a complex and changing environment.
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Employment and Labor Law 9th Edition by Patrick
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Page 2
J. Cihon
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Q1) An employee who informs the wrong doing of an employer to a government agency is called:
A) espionage.
B) conductor.
C) whistleblower.
D) opportunist.
Answer: C
Q2) The integration of national economies into a worldwide economy, due to trade, investment, and migration and information technology is known as:
A) globalization.
B) perennial revolution.
C) amalgamation.
D) assimilation.
Answer: A
Q3) New Deal Legislation passed at the urging of:
A) the Supreme Court of the United States.
B) Franklin D.Roosevelt.
C) Herbert Hoover.
D) Harry S.Truman.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Employment Contracts and Wrongful Discharge
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Q1) Section 3(a) of the Model Employment Termination Act states "an employer may terminate the employment of an employee without good cause.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The drawback under Sarbanes-Oxley Act is criminal provision, which used to punish people who provided information to law enforcing agencies relating to commission of any federal offences.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What is META? Explain the importance of Section 3(a) of META.
Answer: META stands for Model Employment Termination Act and Section 3(a) of META prohibits the employers from terminating the employees from employment without having good reasons.
Q4) When did the employment-at-will doctrine become the norm in American common law?
Answer: The employment-at-will doctrine became the norm in 19th century American common law.
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Chapter 3: Commonly Committed Workplace Torts
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Q1) In defamation per se, what does "per se" connote?
Answer: The term "per se" connotes that the third person to whom the defamation is communicated can recognize the damaging nature of the communication without being apprised of the contextual setting in which the communication was made.
Q2) The National Labor Relations Act preempts a requirement to submit the claim to binding arbitration, and sovereign immunity, where public employers are targeted.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Private employers are not covered by qualified privilege.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) In the context of the chapter, the term "trade secrets" is synonymous with:
A) military information.
B) business intelligence.
C) proprietary information.
D) personal information.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Employee Privacy Rights in the 21st Century
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Q1) George, an employee of a private sector organization, was put through a genetic test in accordance with the company policies.The company:
A) can choose to inform him about the test.
B) has to receive a written consent from George.
C) needs to submit a written copy to the court regarding the test.
D) cannot request for a genetic test under any circumstance.
Q2) What is the unifying element of the four separate privacy torts?
A) The right to be left alone
B) The right to do personal activities while at work
C) The right to talk about co-workers and bosses in a negative manner without repercussion
D) The right to be hired/promoted without regard to gender, race, national origin, or sex
Q3) Alcohol and drug abuse during working hours are reasons for suspicion of substance abuse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the entities covered under HIPPA.
Q5) Elaborate on the policy regarding employee personal files.
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Chapter 5: The Global Perspective:international
Employment Law and American Immigration Policy
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Q1) Which one of these following is an organization which is aimed at meeting the globalization of corporations, trade, and manufacturing?
A) International Labor Organization (ILO)
B) American Federation of Labor/Congress of Industrial Organization (AFL-CIO)
C) Union Network International (UNI)
D) Department of States (DOS)
Q2) Which branch is the largest investigative branch of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS)?
A) U..Social Security Administration
B) U..Immigration and Customs Enforcement
C) U..Department of Justice
D) U..Department of State
Q3) Which one of these following bodies is responsible for enforcing the antidiscrimination provisions of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U...Section 1324b?
A) U..Department of Justice
B) U..Immigration ad Customs Enforcement
C) U..Social Security Administration
D) U..Citizenship and Immigration Services
Q4) What does the Alien Tort Claims Act provide?
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Chapter 6: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act and Race Discrimination
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Q1) Explain the four-fifths rule.
Q2) Disparate Treatment is when an employee is treated differently from others due to: A) race.
B) national origin.
C) religion.
D) All of these answers.
Q3) List the three classifications of standards developed by the American Psychological Association for validating job requirements.
Q4) A method of demonstrating that an employment selection device correlates with the skills and knowledge required for successful job performance is called:
A) construct validity.
B) content validity.
C) disparate impact.
D) criterion-related validity.
Q5) What were the two amendments added to Title VII in 1991?
Q6) Write a short note on retaliation under Title VII.
Q7) What is bona fide occupational qualification?
Q8) Who does Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1991 cover?
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Chapter 7: Gender and Family Issues:title VII and Other Legislation
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Q1) Explain the leave provision under FMLA.
Q2) Central Airlines decided to give 30 percent pay hike to stewards and 15 percent pay hike to stewardesses, even though they were performing substantially similar kind of work.In this case, the airlines has most likely violated the:
A) Wage and Compensation Act.
B) Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
C) National Labor Relation Board.
D) Equal Pay Act.
Q3) When the pay differentials between the male and female employees are due to a seniority system, a merit pay system, a productivity-based pay system, or "a factor other than sex," the pay differentials do not violate Title VII.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Section 703(e)(1) of the Bona Fide Occupational Qualification allows employer to select employees based on sex and gender in certain instances.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which state legislation provides pregnancy leave?
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Chapter 8: Discrimination Based on Religion and National
Origin and Procedures Under Title VII
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Q1) The U..Attorney General has the authority under section 706(f)(1) to file a suit against:
A) the local public employer.
B) the private employer of a different state.
C) an employee of the EEOC.
D) an employee of the NLRB.
Q2) One way to establish proof of a disproportionate impact is by using the:
A) Four-Fifth Rules from the NLRB guidelines.
B) Four-Fifth Rules from the IRCA Guidelines.
C) Four-Fifths Rule from the EEOC Guidelines.
D) Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act Guidelines.
Q3) The plaintiff, in a suit under Title VII, always carries the burden of proof.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Section 706(g) provides that no backpay order shall extend to a period prior to one year before the date of the filing of a complaint with the EEOC.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What does Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 deal with?
Q6) Write down the provision of section 703(g) of Title VII.
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Chapter 9: Discrimination Based on Age
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Q1) Even if voluntary retirement is truly voluntary, it is prohibited under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The complaint of an alleged ADEA violation must be filed with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission within:
A) 60 days.
B) 180 days.
C) 190 days.
D) 300 days.
Q3) In _____, the plaintiff claimed that the pay raise policy had a disparate impact against the older officers. The trial court dismissed the suit, and the U..Court of Appeals affirmed the dismissal.
A) Mastie v.Great Lakes Steel Co.
B) Hazen Paper Co.v.Biggins
C) Smith v.City of Jackson, Mississippi
D) Griggs v.Duke Power Co.
Q4) Provide examples of violations of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act.
Q5) What are the provisions of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act?
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Chapter 10: Discrimination Based on Disability
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Q1) Which of the following conditions are included in the definition of disability under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?
A) Employees who use illegal drugs
B) Infectious or contagious diseases
C) Temporary or short-term nonchronic conditions
D) Alcoholics who use alcohol
Q2) Section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability by:
A) states executive.
B) private agencies.
C) companies.
D) federal executives.
Q3) Define "undue hardship".
Q4) All the fifty states in the U..have their own laws that prohibit discrimination against individuals with disabilities.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the constitutional validity of drug testing by public sector employment?
Q6) What is the American with Disabilities Act?
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Chapter 11: Other EEO and Employment Legislation:federal and
State Laws
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Q1) Affirmative action plans must be updated once in every six months and must contain an analysis of the employer's use of minors and senior citizens for each job category in the work force.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The federal and state legislation generally prohibits employers from requiring employees to take:
A) honesty tests.
B) polygraph tests.
C) psychometric tests.
D) physical fitness tests.
Q3) Plaintiffs may bring suits under Section 1981 to challenge racial or ethnic harassment or retaliation, according to:
A) Saint Francis College v.Al-Khazraji.
B) Lopez v.S.B.Thomas, Inc.
C) Manatt v.Bank of America, N..
D) None of these answers.
Q4) Define affirmative action plans.
Q5) Give a brief outline of the Civil Rights Act of 1866 and 1870.
Q6) What is the role of federal Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988? Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Rise of Organized Labor and Its Regulatory Framework
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Q1) The Railway Labor Act, passed in 1926, prohibits railroad employees from designating bargaining representatives of their own choosing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Section 20 of the Clayton Act restricted the:
A) issuance of labor injunctions.
B) issuance of ex parte orders.
C) yellow-dog contracts.
D) filing of interlocutory applications.
Q3) In the Danbury Hatters' case, the Supreme Court held that the union boycott was a combination in restraint of trade within the meaning of the:
A) Clayton Act.
B) National Labor Relations Act.
C) Sarbanes Oxley Act.
D) Sherman Act.
Q4) What role did the American Federation of Labor (AFL) play in the labor movement in the U..
Q5) Discuss the Congress of Industrial Organizations.
Q6) What are the types of legal issues the NLRB handles?
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Chapter 13: The Unionization Process
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Q1) Economic strikers who have been permanently replaced may vote only in elections held within _____ after the strike begins.
A) six months
B) nine months
C) twelve months
D) eighteen months
Q2) Explain the rationale behind the rules that bar holding of bargaining representative election.
Q3) In the event of a strike, the Board does not distinguish whether the employees are on an unfair labor practice strike or an economic strike.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The decision of the regional director to dismiss the petition, if the Board agent finds some impediments to an election, is non-appealable.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What happens if the union loses the election due to employer's illegal actions?
Q6) What is the consequence of filing a decertification petition by an employer?
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Chapter 14: Unfair Labor Practices by Employers and Unions
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Q1) An employer violates Section 8(a)(2) when he/she creates a union that allows:
A) employees to collectively bargain.
B) management to retain complete control.
C) employees to retain control.
D) the National Labor Relations Board to retain complete control.
Q2) Under the NLRB, unfair labor practice strikes are:
A) personal activity.
B) protected activity.
C) criminal act.
D) not acceptable.
Q3) Apart from whipsaw strikes, what are the other reasons for engaging in multiemployer bargaining with union?
Q4) What is the exception regarding the encouragement of unions?
Q5) Section 8(a)(3) and Section 8(b)(2) prohibit discrimination to encourage or discourage union membership.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which section of National Labor Relations Act speaks about the rights of employees?
Q7) When should an employer conduct a poll?
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Chapter 15: Collective Bargaining
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Q1) In _____, the Supreme Court held that an employer that pleads inability to pay in response to union demands in order to support his claim must provide some financial information.
A) NLRB v.Plymouth Stamping Division, Eltec Corp.
B) NLRB v.Truitt Mfg
C) Nurse Services of Western Massachusetts, Inc.v.NLRB
D) H.K.Porter Co.v.NLRB
Q2) When can an employer act unilaterally?
Q3) The employer need not give written notice of the closing or mass layoff to the employees (or their representative), the state economic development officials, or the chief elected local government official.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The lack of good faith of an employer includes:
A) hard bargaining.
B) refusing to sign a written agreement.
C) attempting to deal with individual employees rather than the union.
D) refusing to provide the union with information regarding bargaining proposals.
Q5) What are mandatory bargaining subjects?
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Chapter 16: Picketing and Strikes
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Q1) Injunction is intended to prevent the activity in question of a complaint until its legality can be determined.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Can primary or secondary employer sue even if unfair labor practice charge has been filed with the National Labor Relations Board?
Q3) The case of Brady v.National Football League involved which act?
A) Landrum-Griffin Act
B) Sherman Act
C) Clayton Act
D) Norris-La Guardia Act
Q4) The union members of the National Steel Company decided to hold a strike compelling their employer to increase their wages and medical benefits and provide better insurance and family benefits.This type of strike is called a(n):
A) economic strike.
B) unfair labor practice strike.
C) conventional strike.
D) whipsaw strike.
Q5) What are hot cargo clauses?
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Chapter 17: The Enforcement and Administration of the Collective Agreement
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Q1) Presidential Cargo Movers Inc.entered into an agreement with its employee union to refrain from layoffs during the recession.Despite the agreement, the company decided to lay off a few of its employees.The union decided to file a complaint against the company for not living up to its obligations under the agreement.The union's action amounts to a(n):
A) in-house trial.
B) jury trial.
C) grievance.
D) arbitration proceedings.
Q2) In early 2012, the Acting General Counsel of the NLRB recently announced a significant change to the NLRB deferral policy.Under this doctrine, so long as an alleged violation of the Act is covered by the parties' grievance-arbitration agreement, the Board will _____ a meritorious unfair labor practice charge to the parties' contractual grievance-arbitration procedure if certain conditions are met.
A) defer
B) dismiss
C) strike
D) amend
Q3) How does an arbitration clause affect the right of individual employees?
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Rights of Union Members
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Q1) _____ of the Labor Management Reporting and Disclosure Act, guarantees the right of union members to participate in all membership business.
A) Section 301(a)
B) Section 101(a)(2)
C) Section 101(a)(1)
D) Section 10(a)(5)
Q2) One of the remedies available under Section 301 of the NLRA is:
A) imprisonment.
B) injunction.
C) forfeiture.
D) confiscate.
Q3) In Ysursa v.Pocatello Education Ass'n, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of an Idaho state law that prohibited public sector employees from authorizing voluntary payroll deductions for:
A) illegal strike.
B) unfair labor practice.
C) disciplinary action against union.
D) union political activities.
Q4) What is meant by exhausting internal remedies?
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Chapter 19: Public Sector Labor Relations
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Q1) The Civil Service Act of 1883, granted the sole authority to set wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of federal employment to the:
A) labor department.
B) Senate.
C) bargaining representative.
D) Congress.
Q2) In National Treasury Employees Union v.Michael Chertoff, Secretary, United States Department of Homeland Security, the Supreme Court of Wisconsin recognized that both the Federal and State Constitutions protect freedom of speech and the right to petition the government, but noted that these rights:
A) may be abridged in case it will bring about the substantive evils that the legislature has a right to prevent.
B) may not be abridged in case it will bring about the substantive evils that the legislature has a right to prevent.
C) may be abridged in its discretion even if legislature has the right to prevent.
D) may be abridged in case the Supreme Court permits; even if legislature has the right to prevent.
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Chapter 20: Occupational Safety and Health
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Q1) Under which law can illegal immigrant workers challenge the employer if the wage paid to them is lower than the minimum wage?
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the recordkeeping requirement under the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
A) Employers with eight or more employees are required under the act to keep records occupational injuries and illnesses.
B) The employer is required to maintain accurate records of employee exposures to potentially toxic materials or harmful physical agents.
C) Any employee who believes that a violation of a safety or health standard exists, may request an inspection.
D) Employers are required to provide the records of health and safety statistics to the union on a regularly basis, or on demand.
Q3) If an employer, or a class of employers, believes that the OSHA standard is inappropriate to its particular situation, an exemption, or variance, may be sought.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An employee who quits his job under normal conditions is not eligible to apply for:
A) pension benefits.
B) retirement insurance benefits.
C) workers' compensation.
D) unemployment benefits.
Q2) The high level of fault which serves to disqualify an out-of-work worker from unemployment compensation is called:
A) employment-at-will.
B) negligence.
C) willful misconduct.
D) third-party recoveries.
Q3) Explain the three major categories of the Social Security system.
Q4) Workers' compensation has been left primarily to the states to administer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the concept of a fiduciary.
Page 24
Q6) The Federal Employment Liability Act (FELA) was passed in the year 1908.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Fair Labor Standards Act
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Q1) Explain the concept of overtime pay under the FLSA.
Q2) Congress enacted the FLSA in:
A) 1940.
B) 1938.
C) 1951.
D) None of these answers.
Q3) Which of the following Acts is not aimed at restricting or regulating child labor?
A) The National Industrial Recovery Act
B) The Walsh-Healy Act
C) The Fair Labor Standards Act
D) Age Discrimination and Employment Act
Q4) Employees who are engaged in the production of goods for interstate commerce are not subject to the Fair Labor Standards Act.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is willful violation?
Q6) The Equal Pay Act is an amendment to the Fair Labor Standards Act.
A)True
B)False
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