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Psychopathology is the scientific study of mental disorders, encompassing their origins, development, classification, and manifestation. This course explores the major psychological disorders recognized in contemporary diagnostic systems, including mood, anxiety, psychotic, substance-related, and personality disorders. Students will examine the biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors that contribute to abnormal behavior, as well as the theoretical frameworks and research methods used to understand and assess mental health conditions. Ethical considerations, diagnostic criteria, and the impact of stigma on individuals with mental illness will also be discussed, providing a comprehensive foundation in the field of abnormal psychology.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology Perspectives Update Edition 5th Edition by David J.A. Dozois
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Q1) Johannes Weyer rejected the four humors theory of mental illness and claimed that mental illness resulted from disturbances of the spiritus vitae.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which one of the following groups of principles have been used to define abnormality?
A)diagnosis by an expert,personal distress,poor emotional control
B)personal distress,delinquent activity,poor emotional control
C)violation of norms,abnormal intellectual functioning,personal distress
D)infrequency,personal distress,impaired functioning
E)psychiatric diagnosis,harmful dysfunction,abnormal intellectual functioning
Answer: D
Q3) Psychopathology refers to the problems suffered by people with psychological disorders.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The biopsychosocial model is illustrated by the finding that
A)brain functions have been shown to both influence and be influenced by psychological and social processes.
B)brain functions are mostly influenced by early childhood experiences.
C)brain functions are influenced most by adult behaviour,such as drug abuse.
D)brain functions are influenced by genetic factors only.
E)brain functions have been shown to influence psychological and social processes.
Answer: A
Q2) The effects of untreated phenylketonuria (PKU)are
A)markedly increased blood levels of phenylalanine,resulting in obsessive-compulsive disorder in adulthood.
B)markedly increased blood levels of phenylalanine,resulting in severe mental retardation.
C)markedly increased blood levels of phenylalanine,resulting in severe dyslexia.
D)markedly increased blood levels of glycogen,resulting in severe dyslexia.
E)markedly increased blood levels of glycogen,resulting in severe mental retardation.
Answer: B
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Q1) What was the most significant reason why the psychiatrists in the Beck et al.(1962)study found it difficult to agree?
A)Some psychiatrists were better at their job than others.
B)The patient did not give the same report to each psychiatrist.
C)Each psychiatrist diagnosed patients according to their own particular theories.
D)Different techniques were used to determine the diagnosis.
E)The diagnostic system did not adequately specify the signs and symptoms for the disorder(s).
Answer: E
Q2) Mr.and Mrs.Davidson took their son to a psychologist who diagnosed him as conduct disordered.They decided to get a second opinion from another psychologist and were told their son was just going through a normal phase.This example reflects a problem of A)lack of reliability.
B)categorical classification.
C)misinterpreting symptoms.
D)dimensional classification.
E)lack of validity.
Answer: A
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Q1) The first scientific study of intellectual functioning was conducted by French psychologist Alfred Binet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Halstead-Reitan consists of six subtests: category,rhythm,tactual performance,tapping,grip strength,and auditory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Though based on the investigation of an individual subject,thedesign avoids many of the criticisms of the case study by using experimentally accepted procedures.
A)nomothetic
B)ideographic
C)reversal
D)quasi-experimental
E)single-subject
Q4) What is an analogue observational setting? Why is it used? What is subject reactivity and should one be concerned with it in an analogue observational setting?
Q5) List the four sets of variables in the Kanfer and Phillips (1970)SORC model.
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Q1) Though panic attacks can occur in a variety of other disorders,in panic disorder they occur
A)more intensely.
B)predictably.
C)for longer periods of time.
D)more frequently.
E)spontaneously.
Q2) Cognitive factors involved in anxiety and anxiety-related disorders include:
A)dysfunctional attitudes,beliefs and thinking abilities.
B)maladaptive attitudes,beliefs and interpretive biases.
C)maladaptive beliefs,schemas,attention and processing biases,and automatic thoughts.
D)over-exaggerations in terms of number and degree of threats to the self.
E)over-exaggerations only in terms of degree of threats to the self.
Q3) The rationale underlying systematic desensitization is that
A)anxiety is due to uncontrollable thoughts or worries.
B)anxiety is an outcome of an abnormally functioning HPA-axis.
C)anxiety is a learned or conditioned response.
D)anxiety is due to a history of child abuse.
E)anxiety is due to poor interpersonal skills.
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Q1) There is no evidence that people with dissociative disorders score higher on measures of hypnotizability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In earlier editions of the DSM,dissociative and somatic symptom and related disorders were categorized as A)psychoses.
B)depressive disorders.
C)somatic symptom disorder.
D)neuroses.
E)physical disorders.
Q3) In malingering,individuals deliberately fake or generate the symptoms of illness in order to gain their doctor's attention.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The average number of personalities in dissociative personality disorder is five. A)True
B)False
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Q1) The three body systems that are responsive to psychosocial variables are:
A)endocrine system; immune system; cardiovascular system
B)autonomic nervous system; endocrine system; cardiovascular system
C)autonomic nervous system; central nervous system; immune system
D)autonomic nervous system; endocrine system; immune system
E)somatic nervous system; endocrine system; cardiovascular system
Q2) A study on controllability by Weiss (1971)discovered that
A)rats who could control the stressor suffered the same level of ulceration as rats who could not control the stressor.
B)rats who could not exercise control over the stressor did not show any levels of ulceration.
C)shocked rats did not show a great deal of ulceration.
D)rats who could exercise control over the stressor suffered milder ulceration than rats who could not control the stressor.
E)rats who could control the stressor had higher levels of ulceration than those who could not control the stressor.
Q3) Outline the differences between signs and symptoms.
Q4) Describe Engel's (1977)argument for a biopsychosocial model of disease.
Q5) Explain the process of cellular immunity.
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Q1) Define persistent depressive disorder and cyclothymia.Provide one similarity (other than the fact that they are both mood disorders)and one difference between the two.
Q2) Brown and Harris found that early childhood loss,such as the loss of a parent before age twelve,is a powerful predictor of depression in adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research findings that depressed individuals actually contribute to the occurrence of interpersonal conflict through maladaptive interpersonal behaviors supports the A)negative feedback hypothesis.
B)conflict generation hypothesis.
C)persistent depressive disorder.
D)life stress perspective.
E)stress generation hypothesis.
Q4) Research findings are consistent in showing that Seasonal Affective Disorder is caused by melatonin dysregulation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Identify the best practice in terms of treatment of schizophrenia.In your answer,choose three of the following treatment components: pharmacotherapy; CBT,cognitive remediation; social skills training; family therapy; early intervention.Back up your recommendations using research findings on the effectiveness and what aspects of the disorder are improved.
Q2) It is difficult to determine whether neurological abnormalities are a cause or consequence of schizophrenic symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dancing down the street is an example of grossly disorganized behaviour.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The feeling that bugs are crawling around under your skin is
A)an example of a delusion of grandeur.
B)generally experienced by certain religious tribes.
C)indicative of problems in brain functioning.
D)only experienced by those on a bad acid trip.
E)an example of a somatic delusion.

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Q1) What does it mean to say that bulimics engage in recurrent compensatory behavior?
A)Bulimics fast or exercise to excess.
B)Bulimics engage in self-induced vomiting.
C)Bulimics misuse laxatives,diuretics,or enemas.
D)All of the above are recurrent compensatory behaviors.
E)Only B and C are recurrent compensatory behaviors.
Q2) People with anorexia usually develop a list of "feared" foods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Susan is 16 years old and she is afraid of gaining weight and getting fat.Susan is very dissatisfied with her body and she often tries to lose weight through fad diets and exercise.It would be difficult to determine her diagnosis because
A)it is hard to determine whether she meets the DSM-5 criteria.
B)Susan could have any one of a number of eating disorders.
C)Susan is still too young to have an eating disorder.
D)Susan's symptoms are not extreme.
E)it is difficult to determine whether she is successful at losing weight.
Q4) Compare and contrast the two subtypes of anorexia nervosa.
Q5) Describe the DSM-5 criteria for bulimia nervosa and specify the two subtypes.
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Q1) Thehypothesis,that drinking is reinforced by its ability to reduce unpleasant emotions has receivedsupport in the research literature.
A)tension reduction ; inconsistent
B)tension reduction ; strong
C)negative reinforcement ; inconsistent
D)negative reinforcement ; moderate
E)contingency-expectancy; modest
Q2) At low doses,barbiturates causebut with large doses they can cause
A)mild euphoria; lowered respiration,blood pressure,and heart rate
B)sleep; coma
C)relaxation of the diaphragm muscles; personality changes
D)slurred speech; mild euphoria
E)blurred vision; muscle paralysis
Q3) It appears that since the 1960s,there has been a decrease in the number of people who smoked.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the Operant Conditioning approach to treating alcohol abuse and addiction.
Q5) Describe the short-term and long-term consequences of tobacco use.
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Q1) Many people with personality disorders do not themselves believe that they have a problem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Research shows that% or more of people with personality disorders never seek treatment for their problems.
A)60
B)95
C)20
D)40
E)80
Q3) Clara considers herself extremely talented at all that she does.She is excessively preoccupied with her own interests and demands that others treat her as special.Judging from this description,which personality disorder is Clara most likely to have?
A)antisocial
B)avoidant
C)borderline
D)narcissistic
E)dependent
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Q1) Success rates for the treatment of genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder and premature ejaculation have been as high as 80% and 90%,respectively.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Self-induced oxygen deprivation used to achieve orgasm is also referred to as hypoxyphilia or asphyxiophilia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Treatment of gender dysphoria generally involvesand results in
A)hormonal therapy; decrease in the desired secondary sex characteristics
B)surgery; many problems and dissatisfaction
C)cognitive-behaviour therapy; poor outcomes.
D)psychological therapy; change in gender conceptualization among children
E)sexual reassignment; happiness with the results
Q4) Describe the psychological treatments used to treat sexual dysfunctions and conclude with how effective these treatments are.
Q5) Briefly describe the comprehensive theories of sexual offending and how these theories contribute to effective treatment.
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Q1) Research on facilitated communication (FC)training has shown that the initial success stories of this technique were really based on the
A)ouija board effect.
B)nocebo effect.
C)placebo effect.
D)facilitator effect.
E)abdication effect.
Q2) In recent years,many educational programs for people with neurodevelopmental disorders have focused on developing social skills and independent living skills.These programs often useapproaches.
A)social learning
B)operant conditioning
C)classical conditioning
D)paired-associate conditioning
E)modelling
Q3) People who function intellectually within the mild range of intellectual disability are found more frequently within lower socioeconomic groups.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The hypothesis that the manifestations and symptoms of childhood- versus adult-onset mood and anxiety disorders are the same
A)is supported by the research to date.
B)is not supported by the research to date.
C)has not yet been answered by research.
D)is impossible to investigate by research.
E)has typically not been considered an important issue.
Q2) Discuss the psychosocial risk factors associated with the development of conduct problems.
Q3) ADHD was initially referred to as A)ADD.
B)ADHD-H.
C)minimal brain dysfunction.
D)hyperkinetic syndrome of childhood.
E)hyperkinetic syndrome of adolescence.
Q4) Inconsistent parenting and maternal smoking are "stressors" that can trigger emergence of ADHD in predisposed individuals.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The primary sleep problems experienced by older adults include feeling tired during the day,awakening often during the night,and waking up too early in the morning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which pair of factors places an older individual at greatest risk for developing depression?
A)low income and poor physical health
B)lack of support and poor emotional health
C)poor physical and emotional health
D)low income and lack of support
E)poor physical health and lack of support
Q3) Treatment of Alzheimer's disease with drugs results in
A)slowing,but not stopping the disease.
B)reducing the wandering behaviour but not the forgetfulness.
C)a reversal of the symptoms.
D)halting the progression of the disease.
E)reducing mild cognitive impairment but not the physical complications.
Q4) Briefly describe Socio-Emotional Selectivity Theory (SST).
Q5) Describe the hypothesized etiology of Alzheimer's disease.
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Q1) Clinical psychologists are among the main providers of psychotherapy.The most commonly endorsed orientation is
A)humanistic-experiential.
B)eclectic.
C)psychodynamic.
D)neo-Freudian.
E)cognitive-behavioural.
Q2) Although research does exist on the effectiveness of psychotherapy,one has to be careful when generalizing these findings to the real world because
A)most studies are conducted without the consent of the patients.
B)researchers do not have to meet the standards of experimental criteria when comparing therapies.
C)researchers do not know or have any control over the participants in their studies.
D)most studies are conducted in a research context.
E)most studies are conducted without the participation of the therapists.
Q3) Discuss the use of Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)in treating disorders.Refer to the way it was used in the past and present.
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Q1) All of the following are considered central mechanisms which can help people cope with adversity EXCEPT
A)promoting physical exercise as a means of dealing with stress.
B)creating opportunities for personal growth.
C)enhancing self-esteem and self-efficacy.
D)reducing the impact of risks.
E)helping individuals deal with stressful life events.
Q2) Briefly outline the prevention and promotion policy in Canada.
Q3) The Canadian government has been extremely supportive of prevention efforts,and funding for prevention programs is becoming increasingly available.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The four key characteristics of mental health promotion,identified by Cowen (1996)are:
A)proactive ; population-focus ; multi-dimensional ; ongoing
B)reactive ; targeted ; multi-dimensional ; ongoing
C)proactive ; targeted ; focused ; ongoing
D)reactive ; population focused ; focused ; ongoing
E)proactive ; population-focus ; bi-dimensional ; appropriately timed
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Q1) Under the law,mental disorders have the following features EXCEPT
A)internal.
B)volitional.
C)not a reflection of situational or contextual factors.
D)involuntary.
E)stable.
Q2) Identify the untrue statement.
A)Most people who commit crimes are likely to have mental disorders.
B)Higher prevalence rates of mental illness in inmates have been obtained when samples have consisted only of those inmates referred by jail staff for mental health evaluations.
C)Most people with mental disorders are likely to commit crimes.
D)The prevalence of mental illness among offenders has generally been found to be higher than for people in the general population.
E)Specific rates of mental illness reported for jail inmates vary considerably among studies.
Q3) What are the important elements of the legal definition of mental disorder?
Q4) Describe the evolution of the insanity defence.
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