Psychopathology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Psychopathology is the scientific study of mental disorders, including their symptoms, etiology (origins), development, and progression. This course explores a wide range of psychological disorders classified in diagnostic systems such as the DSM and ICD, delving into clinical definitions, diagnostic criteria, and the biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors influencing the onset and course of mental illness. Students will gain an understanding of the primary categories of mental disorders, theoretical approaches to understanding abnormal behavior, and evidence-based strategies for assessment and intervention, fostering a comprehensive appreciation for the complexities of mental health and illness.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology Perspectives 5th Edition by David J.A. Dozois
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19 Chapters
1924 Verified Questions
1924 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Concepts of Abnormality Throughout History
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116 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ancient Greek was behaving quite aggressively and was quite short-tempered. He would likely have been diagnosed as having
A) too little yellow bile.
B) an excess of blood.
C) excess phlegm.
D) too much yellow bile.
E) an overabundance of black bile.
Answer: D
Q2) Early Arabian asylums were established to
A) protect society from the mentally ill.
B) provide the mentally ill with a safe haven.
C) begin the tradition of group therapy.
D) reintroduce trephination as a major form of treatment.
E) fulfill the requirements of the Koran.
Answer: B
Q3) The bodily fluids believed to influence mental functioning were called humours. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Theoretical Perspectives on Abnormal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Freud felt that children in the latency stage (from age 6 to 12) are in a period of sexual quiescence during which the child focuses on developing intellectual and motor skills.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The autonomic nervous system consists of
A) the somatic nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system.
B) the somatic nervous system and the parasomatic nervous system.
C) the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
D) the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.
E) the somatic nervous system and the endocrine system.
Answer: C
Q3) In both girls and boys, Freudians refer to desire for the opposite-sex parent as the Oedipal Complex.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Classification and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The textbook indicates that validity is the second criterion used to determine the usefulness of a diagnostic system. This is because
A) as long as a diagnostic system is reliable, it does not matter if it is valid.
B) if you don't have reliability, you cannot have validity.
C) reliability and validity are independent of one another.
D) a diagnostic tool that is reliable is also likely to have at least moderate validity.
E) validity is usually more important than reliability.
Answer: B
Q2) Regardless of the diagnostic system used, it is relatively common that an individual will meet the criteria for more than one disorder.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Categorical classification is also called discrete classification.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Psychological Assessment and Research
Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coefficient alpha and split-half reliability are both methods for evaluating the internal consistency of a test.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the text, which of the following is NOT true of structured interviews?
A) They reduce the concern over the subjective judgments of the interviewer.
B) They have clear rules governing the evaluation of responses.
C) They tend to jeopardize rapport.
D) They are very specific in the order and wording of questions.
E) They are less reliable then unstructured interviews.
Q3) If a neuropsychological test is being used to identify brain a serious and progressive brain disorder that can be treated, then s/he would be MOST concerned about
A) the rate of false positives for the test.
B) the specificity of the test.
C) the rate of false negatives for the test.
D) the face validity of the test.
E) the administration time for the test.
Q4) List the four sets of variables in the Kanfer and Phillips (1970) SORC model.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Anxiety and Related Disorders
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One commonly used technique in cognitive restructuring involves the use of
A) response prevention.
B) a fear hierarchy.
C) dual representation.
D) a thought record.
E) exposure.
Q2) With regard to PTSD, two important and proposed changes in DSM-5 include:
A) tighten the criteria such that fewer people can be diagnosed with PTSD; behaviorally specify a number of terms that are currently vague
B) add symptoms and behaviors to better incorporate the variety of reactions to trauma; distinguish between avoidance symptoms and negative alterations in cognition and mood
C) remove the criterion that the person be directly exposed to the traumatic event; create subtypes based on type of avoidance
D) increase the duration requirement to 2 months; broaden the way that impairment may manifest
E) increase the duration requirement to 6 months; broaden the way that impairment may manifest
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Chapter 6: Dissociative and Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders
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90 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Though some have argued to eliminate the somatoform disorders category, it appears these syndromes will be kept together for DSM-5, with one of the main reasons being that these patients are typically seen in general medical settings.
A)True
B)False
Q2) With regard to brain correlates of depersonalization disorder, the textbook cites research that suggests ______________ play(s) a role.
A) perceptual pathways
B) temporal lobe epilepsy
C) circuits involved in awareness and working memory
D) processing functions
E) circuits responsible for adaptive integration of emotional learning with decision-making
Q3) What is the defining symptom of dissociative disorders? What were dissociative disorders categorized as in earlier editions of the DSM? What specific dissociative disorder has changed names recently?
Q4) List and BRIEFLY discuss the defining features of any 3 somatoform disorders from the DSM-IV.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Psychological Factors Affecting Medical
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Techniques employed for stress management range from teaching control of specific muscle groups to autogenic training.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Perhaps the best known endocrine hormone system known to be highly responsive to psychosocial variables involves the A) ovaries.
B) pancreas.
C) pineal gland.
D) HPA axis.
E) testes.
Q3) The three body systems that are responsive to psychosocial variables are:
A) endocrine system; immune system; cardiovascular system
B) autonomic nervous system; endocrine system; cardiovascular system
C) autonomic nervous system; central nervous system; immune system
D) autonomic nervous system; endocrine system; immune system
E) somatic nervous system; endocrine system; cardiovascular system
Q4) Explain the evidence for and against the role Helicobacter pylori plays in the formation of gastric ulcers.
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Chapter 8: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ therapy emphasizes that depression often arises as a result of disruptions in an individual's social adjustment.
A) Behavioural
B) Cognitive-behavioural
C) Cognitive
D) Interpersonal
E) Psychodynamic
Q2) The hormone __________, secreted by the pineal gland, has been implicated in seasonal affective disorder.
A) lanin
B) progesterone
C) melatonin
D) serotonin
Q3) Define dysthymia and cyclothymia. Provide one similarity (other than the fact that they are both mood disorders) and one difference between the two.
Q4) Post-partum depression appears to be a predominantly Western phenomenon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and briefly define activity scheduling and behavioural experiments.
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Chapter 9: Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modern research shows that inadequate parenting by fathers plays an equally important causal role as does that of mothers in the development of schizophrenia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main drawback of anti-psychotic medication in treating schizophrenia is
A) its relative ineffectiveness in dealing with the cognitive impairment suffered by schizophrenia patients.
B) that the use of medication often requires longer hospital stays.
C) its relative lack of effectiveness.
D) the occurrence of more frequent relapses of illness.
E) its inability to alleviate the frequency and severity of hallucinations and delusions.
Q3) The best description of anhedonia is
A) poor concentration for an extended period of time.
B) the inability to experience pleasure.
C) impoverished emotional expression.
D) lack of drive or initiative.
Q4) Describe the five subtypes of schizophrenia in the DSM-IV-TR.
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11
Chapter 10: Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Garner and Garfinkel's (1980) model of eating disorders, a precipitating factor would be
A) complications due to purging
B) depression.
C) dieting.
D) a biological predisposition.
E) reduced basal metabolic rate.
Q2) Cognitive-behavioural therapy reduces binging and purging behavior by up to 90%, with around half of patients stopping bingeing and purging completely.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research has shown that the most effective type of treatment for bulimia nervosa is A) SSRIs.
B) interpersonal therapy.
C) group therapy.
D) cognitive-behavioural therapy.
E) supportive psychotherapy.
Q4) Compare and contrast the two subtypes of anorexia nervosa.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders often include CNS abnormalities which can manifest cognitively or behaviorally in various ways. Which of the following is NOT named in the textbook as a correlate of FASD?
A) ADHD symptoms and/or full diagnosis
B) learning disabilities
C) mood disorders
D) excessively cautious / fearful temperament
E) alcohol / drug problems and trouble with the law
Q2) Which of the following statements support the alcohol expectancy theory?
A) Joe drinks a lot because he believes it will put him in a better mood, even though he actually becomes more aggressive.
B) Adolescents are unaffected by positive expectancies of alcohol effects.
C) Both alcoholics and nonalcoholics drink less when they believe their drinks contain alcohol.
D) Non-problem drinkers are more likely to believe that alcohol will have a positive effect.
E) Alcoholics and heavy social drinkers are more likely to believe that alcohol will have a negative effect.
Q3) Contrast substance abuse with substance dependence.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jane has a tendency to see everything people do as a personal attack on her safety and privacy. Judging from this characteristic, which personality disorder is Jane most likely to have?
A) avoidant
B) paranoid
C) dependent
D) narcissistic
E) histrionic
Q2) The term psychopath was replaced with sociopath by __________.
A) psychologists
B) sociologists
C) Pinel
D) psychiatrists
E) Freud
Q3) Many people with personality disorders do not themselves believe that they have a problem.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Outline the method proposed in DSM-5 by which a clinician will diagnose a personality disorder.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Sexual and Gender Identity Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to feminist theories of sexual offending, the sexual aspect of the crime is given more consideration than the power aspect.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Success rates for the treatment of vaginismus and premature ejaculation have been as high as 80% and 90%, respectively.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research supports the idea that gender identity disorders are caused by
A) lack of a same-sex parent model and overprotection by the opposite-sex parent.
B) the child's failure to separate from the parent of the opposite sex.
C) hormonal disturbances or exposure to chemicals during fetal development.
D) a gender identification gene found in twin studies of the disorder.
E) there is actually little support for any theory of the origin of gender identity disorder.
Q4) Describe the DSM-IV-TR category of sexual pain disorders.
Q5) Briefly describe the comprehensive theories of sexual offending and how these theories contribute to effective treatment.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) IQ / achievement discrepancy is a method of detecting students who are faking a learning disability
A)True
B)False
Q2) Translocation and mosaicism are two other causes of Down syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Adults with Down syndrome are at high risk for
A) Parkinson-like dementia.
B) lung cancer.
C) schizophrenia.
D) Alzheimer-type dementia.
E) Huntington's disease.
Q4) The core deficit underlying a reading disorder is an impairment in phonological processing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In general, biological treatments of autism have not been found to be effective.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Behaviour and Emotional Disorders of
Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DSM-5 workgroup is concerned that there should be a diagnostic distinction made between irritable mood symptoms and oppositional-defiant behaviors within ODD.
A)True
B)False
Q2) With regard to ADHD, it has been suggested that the DSM-5
A) eliminate the disorder, reassigning persons as having anxiety and mood disorder(s).
B) create additional subtypes based on co-occurring anxiety and mood symptoms.
C) eliminate the current subtypes; require coding of the predominant symptoms.
D) eliminate the combined subtype; require clinicians to choose a predominant subtype.
E) eliminate the disorder, reassigning persons displaying these symptoms as having other externalizing disorders.
Q3) Many antisocial parents of children with CD have also been found to have A) ADHD.
B) depression.
C) anxiety disorders.
D) a substance abuse problem.
E) no other known problem.
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Chapter 16: Mental Disorders and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main difference between pseudo-dementia and dementia?
A) Pseudo-dementia has an earlier onset, while dementia develops later.
B) Pseudo-dementia involves loss of cognitive functioning, whereas idementia refers to the loss of one's normal personality.
C) Pseudo-dementia involves a decrease in the individual's capacity to care for him or herself, while dementia usually does not.
D) The loss of cognitive functioning in dementia is reversible.
E) The loss of cognitive functioning in pseudo-dementia is generally not degenerative.
Q2) Which pair of factors places an older individual at greatest risk for developing depression?
A) low income and poor physical health
B) lack of support and poor emotional health
C) poor physical and emotional health
D) low income and lack of support
E) poor physical health and lack of support
Q3) Briefly describe and refute some of the common myths associated with mental disorders in older adults.
Q4) Describe the Strength and Vulnerability Integration (SAVI) Model.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Everybody has won, and all must have prizes." This line from Alice in Wonderland best conforms with which psychological principle?
A) the multiple placebo effect
B) emotion focused therapy
C) the ripple effect
D) the dodo bird verdict
E) systematic desensitization
Q2) Cohen and colleagues (2008) found that the majority of Canadian clinical psychologists they surveyed identified themselves as _______.
A) psychodynamic
B) humanistic-existential
C) biological
D) cognitive-behavioural
E) gestalt
Q3) The main goal of Freudian psychoanalysis is to overcome defense mechanisms which the client has developed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe meta-analyses and explain the importance of this technique.
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Chapter 18: Prevention and Mental Health Promotion in the Community
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Sample Questions
Q1) Community psychology is necessary for prevention for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) No treatment will be 100% effective.
B) There are not enough trained professionals to treat all of those who need it.
C) Treatment services have not reduced rates of disease in the population.
D) For health in general, treatment services have not been effective in reducing rates of disease in a population.
E) Group therapy has been shown to be more effective than individual therapy.
Q2) Old's Prenatal Early Infancy Project was
A) a support group implemented by pregnant women who were at risk for poor outcomes.
B) a universal prevention program designed to assist single women who were pregnant for the first time.
C) a prevention program designed for pregnant alcoholic women.
D) a home-visitation project designed to improve maternal and child functioning.
E) a hospital-based health program designed to increase maternal well-being and health.
Q3) What are the elements of the Better Beginnings Program? Is this a true example of an ecological approach to mental health promotion?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Mental Disorder and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although Canadian involuntary civil commitment criteria vary from province to province, similar elements do exist. List these and indicate how involuntary civil commitment in Canada differs from the conviction for a criminal offence.
Q2) In comparison to the Criminal Code of Canada, the Youth Criminal Justice Act
A) has a more punitive philosophy although the punishments are less severe.
B) has a more rehabilitative philosophy.
C) is based on research findings that young offenders learn well from negative reinforcement.
D) is based on research findings that young offenders show behavior change in response to brief and intense punishment.
E) includes specific recommendations for behavioral interventions.
Q3) The four fundamental principles for psychologists in Canada include all of the following EXCEPT
A) integrity in relationships.
B) respect for culture.
C) responsible caring.
D) responsibility to society.
E) respect for the dignity of persons.
Q4) Describe the evolution of the insanity defence.
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