Psychopathology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Psychopathology is the scientific study of mental disorders, including their symptoms, etiology (origin), and development over time. This course explores a variety of psychological disorders as classified within major diagnostic systems, such as the DSM-5, focusing on the biological, psychological, and social factors that contribute to abnormal behavior. Students will examine diagnostic criteria, case studies, and current research, while considering cultural and ethical issues related to diagnosis and treatment. The course aims to foster a deeper understanding of the complexities involved in mental health and the approaches used by clinicians to assess and address psychopathology.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology Perspectives Update Edition 5th Edition by David J.A. Dozois
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19 Chapters
1803 Verified Questions
1803 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Concepts of Abnormality Throughout History
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116 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the statistical concept,abnormal behavior is that which occurs relatively infrequently.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Sakel administered insulin to patients in order to inducewhich he believed would cure or reduce the symptoms of schizophrenia
A)convulsions
B)seizures
C)shock
D)coma
E)low blood sugar
Answer: D
Q3) Supernatural explanations of mental illness became popular in Europe during the Middle Ages.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Theoretical Perspectives on Abnormal Behaviour
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe 4 ways in which abnormal behaviour can result from disturbances in neurotransmitter systems.
Answer: 1.There may be too much or too little of the neurotransmitter produced or released into the synapse.
2.There may be too few or too many receptors on the dendrites.
3.There may be an excess or a deficit in the amount of transmitter-deactivating substance in the synapse.
4.The reuptake process may be too rapid or too slow.
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true of the existential approach?
A)Considerable research has supported this approach to treatment.
B)Treatment is directed at confronting clients with their responsibility for their actions,and helping them find meaning in their lives.
C)A key concept is angst,a German word perhaps best translated as a sense of severe distress.
D)Two leading exponents are Rollo May and Victor Frankl.
E)Awareness of one's existence is a critical feature of human functioning.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Classification and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DSM-IV-TR required that patients be evaluated along five separate dimensions.This is referred to as a
A)diagnostic classification.
B)psychological classification.
C)multiaxial classification.
D)dimensional classification.
E)theoretical classification.
Answer: C
Q2) DSM-III was a better attempt at classification than earlier systems because it A)took on a dimensional as opposed to a categorical approach.
B)it focused more strongly on the theoretical causes of various mental disorders. C)was less rigid than previous approaches.
D)required clinicians to evaluate various aspects of the patients' lives.
E)it promoted a behavioural rather than a psychodynamic theoretical orientation.
Answer: D
Q3) The DSM system has been criticized as being low in concurrent validity. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Psychological Assessment and Research
Methods
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A confound occurs when
A)two or more independent variables exert their influence on a dependent variable at different times.
B)an experimental investigation lacks external validity.
C)two or more independent variables exert their influence on a dependent variable at the same time.
D)the results of an experiment are not significant.
E)one independent variable exerts an influence on a dependent variable.
Q2) Random assignment is a procedure that ensures that each participant in an experiment has an equal probability of being in either the experimental or control groups.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Generally,psychologists are interested in correlation coefficients only if they are greater than +/-.65.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly define any THREE of the following: test-retest reliability; alternate-form reliability; internal consistency; split-half reliability; coefficient alpha.
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Chapter 5: Anxiety and Related Disorders
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Virtual reality technologies have become particularly useful in
A)exposure therapies.
B)cognitive therapies.
C)psychodynamic therapy.
D)drug therapy.
E)cognitive and drug therapies.
Q2) are repetitive behaviours or cognitive acts performed in response to obsessions.
A)Repeats
B)Checks
C)Compulsions
D)Reiterations
E)Motor disturbances
Q3) Anxiety is distinguished from fear and panic because of the emphasis on---------------------.
A)fighting
B)the present
C)the past
D)the future
E)fleeing
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Dissociative and Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In somatic symptom disorder,patients usually attribute their symptoms to A)feelings of depersonalization/derealization.
B)psychological problems.
C)an insecure attachment with their parents as children.
D)depression.
E)medical problems.
Q2) Wendy feels as though she is outside of her body,observing her own behaviour.This experience is a symptom of
A)dissociative amnesia with fugue.
B)dissociative identity disorder.
C)dissociative amnesia.
D)repressed memory.
E)derealization/depersonalization.
Q3) Merskey has argued that dissociative identity disorder is created by the power of suggestion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify and describe the major characteristics of three types of dissociative disorders.
Q5) Describe five patterns of memory loss characteristic of dissociative amnesia.
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Chapter 7: Psychological Factors Affecting Medical
Conditions
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98 Verified Questions
98 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the functioning of the autonomic nervous system.Include in your explanation the functioning of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.
Q2) Explain the evidence for and against the role Helicobacter pylori plays in the formation of gastric ulcers.
Q3) Under precisely defined conditions in a doctor's office,hypertension is defined by
A)blood pressure reading of more than 140/80.
B)blood pressure reading of more than 120/70.
C)decreased tension in blood vessel walls.
D)blood pressure reading of more than 160/100.
E)cardiac distress under high demand exercise.
Q4) Which of the following would most likely be considered a treatable problem in behavioural medicine?
A)gallstones
B)a stroke
C)essential hypertension
D)cancer
E)cardiac arrythmias due to genetic illness
Q5) Outline the differences between signs and symptoms.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Depressive Disorders and Suicide
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximatelypercent of the 70 percent of new mothers who experience depression and mood swings after childbirth is diagnosed with mood disorder with postpartum onset.
A)5-10
B)10-15
C)15-20
D)20-25
Q2) Dividing events into a dichotomy of either all bad or all good is example of which cognitive distortion found in depressed people?
A)arbitrary inference
B)all-or-none thinking
C)selective abstraction
D)negative bias
E)overgeneralization
Q3) The main adverse effect of electroconvulsive shock therapy is
A)temporary speech difficulties.
B)psychotic phases.
C)depression.
D)memory impairment.
E)mania.
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Chapter 9: Schizophrenia Spectrum and other Psychotic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best description of anhedonia is
A)poor concentration for an extended period of time.
B)the inability to experience pleasure.
C)impoverished emotional expression.
D)lack of drive or initiative.
Q2) Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include A)flowery speech.
B)hallucinations and delusions.
C)catatonic behaviour.
D)auditory hallucinations only.
E)lack of ability to communicate.
Q3) Devon often sits with one foot behind his head for extended periods of time until a nurse moves it,and then does not move again.This is an example of A)alogia.
B)echopraxia.
C)catatonic posturing.
D)affective flattening.
E)waxy flexibility.
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Chapter 10: Eating Disorders
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92 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lanugo refers to
A)the lack of sexual desire among anorexic patients.
B)the fine body hair on anorexics.
C)the confusion experienced by anorexics as a result of starvation.
D)electrolyte imbalance.
E)the yellowish skin tone of anorexic patients.
Q2) There is a relatively high rate of comorbidity in eating disorders,particularly with A)dissociative amnesia
B)mild psychotic disorders
C)substance,mood,anxiety and personality disorders
D)dissociative and somatoform disorders
E)post-traumatic stress disorder
Q3) The Maudsley approach initially attempts to focus on:
A)disorted body image
B)overcontrolling mothers
C)excessive exercise
D)weight gain and eating
E)binging and purging
Q4) Discuss the medical consequences of eating disorders.
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antagonist drugs block the effects of psychoactive drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Contingency contracts are contracts signed by the alcoholic in which he or she promises to attend a treatment group for his or her drinking problem.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Thehypothesis,that drinking is reinforced by its ability to reduce unpleasant emotions has receivedsupport in the research literature.
A)tension reduction ; inconsistent
B)tension reduction ; strong
C)negative reinforcement ; inconsistent
D)negative reinforcement ; moderate
E)contingency-expectancy; modest
Q4) The nausea and headache associated with a hangover result from the accumulation of acetylaldehyde.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the long-term physical effects of alcohol.
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Chapter 12: The Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly define and distinguish between the terms "comorbidity" and "overlap",and give an example of each in the context of personality disorders.
Q2) The term "borderline" was used in the past to describe a person on the border between neurosis and psychosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The "Dark Triad" of socially aversive personality traits consists in: subclinical narcissism; depressive and dependency traits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Clara considers herself extremely talented at all that she does.She is excessively preoccupied with her own interests and demands that others treat her as special.Judging from this description,which personality disorder is Clara most likely to have?
A)antisocial
B)avoidant
C)borderline
D)narcissistic
E)dependent
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Chapter 13: Sexual Dysfunction Disorders and Gender
Dysphoria
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109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the DSM-5 category of sexual pain disorders.
Q2) Tony is a 10 year old boy who prefers to play stereotypical "girls" games such as "house" and "dolls." Tony does not enjoy playing with boys or playing games such as trucks and guns.Tony's parents became concerned that something was wrong with their son and they brought him in for an evaluation.Tony reported that he does prefer girls as playmates and that he likes "girls' games" better as well.He knows that he is a boy and has no urge to wear dresses.Tony would likely be diagnosed with A)nothing,since his behaviour does not meet the criteria for a disorder.
B)homosexual tendencies.
C)gender role confusion.
D)gender dysphoria.
E)gender identity disorder.
Q3) DSM-5 replaced Gender Identity Disorder with:
A)Gender Dysphoric Disorder
B)Gender Dysphoria in children and in adults
C)Gender Dysphoria in children and adults,with or without a disorder of sex development
D)Gender Dysphoria with or without a disorder of sex development
E)Gender Dissatisfaction Disorder,with or without a disorder of sex development
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Chapter 14: Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the past 30 years,the research focus concerning the etiology of autism spectrum disorder has shifted from biological factors to psychogenic factors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Rett's syndrome is distinguishable from autism spectrum disorder by which characteristic?
A)Speech problems
B)Repetitive hand wringing
C)Lack of social responsiveness
D)Self-injurious behaviour
E)Screaming
Q3) Neurodevelopmental disorders occur inpercent of children with HIV who do not receive appropriate treatment.
A)10-15
B)20-25
C)50
D)65-70
E)75-90
Q4) What are echolalia and pronoun reversal,and in what disorder are they seen?
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Chapter 15: Behaviour and Emotional Disorders of
Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)is generally diagnosed by the time children are 5 years old.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most suitable nondrug intervention for children with ADHD appears to be
A)family therapy.
B)cognitive-behavioural therapy.
C)psychoeducational and school-focused.
D)individual psychotherapy.
E)social skills training.
Q3) Tricyclic antidepressants and benzodiazepines are recommended as the best form of pharmacological treatment for SAD and GAD in children and adolescents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Clinic-based treatment for children and youth is preferred over community-based treatment because more individuals are likely to be helped.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how fear conditioning may result in anxiety disorders in children.
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Chapter 16: Aging and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fred believes that his children are attempting to have him put in an "old-age" home,and he is quite upset.Every time his son and daughter come to visit,Fred tells them that he refuses to go to a home and he knows they are trying to trick him into agreeing.Fred's children are concerned,however,because they have not mentioned a residential home in years.Fred appears to be suffering from
A)brief psychotic disorder.
B)schizophrenia.
C)late-onset schizophrenia.
D)delusional disorder.
E)early-onset schizophrenia.
Q2) Significant symptoms ofare among the most common psychiatric symptoms experienced by older adults.
A)self-harm
B)mania
C)anxiety
D)substance abuse
E)dissociation
Q3) Describe the Strength and Vulnerability Integration (SAVI)Model.
Q4) Describe the selective optimization with compensation (SOC)model.
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Chapter 17: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has shown that clinical psychologists with more extensive training and years of experience are more effective.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe meta-analyses and explain the importance of this technique.
Q3) Jimmy is a university student with attention deficit disorder who regularly takes Ritalin.He is taking a math exam on Monday at noon.To ensure peak clinical effectiveness of the Ritalin for his exam,what time would be best for Jimmy to take his medication?
A)between 7:00 and 11:00 the morning of the exam
B)between 11:00 and 12:00 the morning of the exam
C)right at the beginning of the exam
D)24 hours before the time of the exam
E)the night before the exam
Q4) ECT was originally used to treat schizophrenia and then later was used to treat depression.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What types of therapy have been found effective in treating anxiety disorders?
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Q6) Describe the side effects of MAOIs,tricyclics,and SSRIs.
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Chapter 18: Prevention and Mental Health Promotion in the Community
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the view of mental health promotion,mental health is the absence of mental disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Canadian government has been extremely supportive of prevention efforts,and funding for prevention programs is becoming increasingly available.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List five categories of general risk factors for poor mental health and identify some general protective factors.
Q4) Traditionally,health and human services have focused on persons' deficits and weaknesses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define the three types of prevention
Q6) Indicated prevention programs are functionally very similar with early intervention programs.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 19: Mental Disorder and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Temporary substitute decision makers (TSDMs)for persons committed and deemed incapable of making decisions about treatment are
A)Public Trustees appointed by the state.
B)chosen by the family,by procedures that are specific to jurisdictions.
C)appointed by the person when they are healthy.
D)selected by methods specific to jurisdictions,but such persons are chosen by the individual,family,or appointed by the state.
E)are selected by methods specific to jurisdictions,but are always comprised of committees selected by court or tribunal.
Q2) With regard to involuntary hospitalization,all jurisdictions require that there be risk of harm to self or others; some jurisdictions allow risk of deterioration in health to satisfy the risk of harm criterion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Psychiatrists,but not psychologists,are able to determine when a person has a mental disorder that satisfies the NCRMD criteria.
A)True
B)False
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