Psychology of Mental Illness Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course delves into the psychological concepts, theories, and research surrounding mental illness, exploring a range of disorders as classified in contemporary diagnostic systems. Students will examine the causes, symptoms, and societal impacts of various mental illnesses, as well as the interplay between biological, psychological, and environmental factors. The course emphasizes evidence-based approaches to assessment, diagnosis, and treatment, and encourages critical thinking about stigma, cultural influences, and emerging trends in mental health care. Through case studies and practical applications, students gain a comprehensive understanding of mental illness and the challenges faced by individuals living with these conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
2107 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Overview and Research Approaches
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss some of the difficulties involved in attempting to define abnormal behavior.
Answer: "Abnormal" presupposes some norm from which behavior deviates, but there is no definition of "normal" about which people can all agree. Abnormal is also related to behavior that is deemed undesirable by society. Value issues therefore always complicate the objective definition of disorders. What, exactly, comprises distress, disability, or dysfunction is also difficult to define. In addition, definitions of abnormality vary not only with culture, but over time.
Q2) When mental disorders are short in duration, they are known as acute. When they are long in duration, they are __________.
Answer: chronic
Q3) Most people with psychological disorders ________
A) seek treatment as soon as they realize there is a problem.
B) recover only if they seek treatment.
C) delay seeking treatment, sometimes for many years.
D) exaggerate their symptoms so it takes longer for them to recover.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) What was moral management? What caused its near abandonment in the second part of the nineteenth century?
Answer: Moral management was a broad treatment that included a patient's social, individual, and occupational needs. The moral and spiritual development of patients was a focus. More emphasis was placed on patients' character than on their disorder. Typical treatments were spiritual discussion and manual labor. It was surprisingly effective. It was abandoned because of changing attitudes toward the mentally ill and the increasing size of hospitals. The mental hygiene movement and advances in biomedical science also contributed to its decrease in popularity. The focus on physical and biological explanations and care meant that other factors in a patient's life were considered irrelevant.
Q2) Which of the following was a form of treatment that addressed a patient's social, individual, and occupational needs?
A) Moral management
B) The treatments provided at the Geel Shrine
C) Anton Mesmer's approach to treating the mentally ill
D) The treatment started by the Nancy School
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia's current state of depression?
A) Intense psychotherapy
B) A prolonged vacation
C) A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs
D) Family therapy and a change in her work environment
Answer: C
Q2) What is object-relations theory?
Answer: Object-relations theory reflects a newer psychodynamic perspective. Object relations theorists focus on how an individual interacts with others (objects) and on the relationships that are experienced. Interactions with others may be both real and imagined, thus we possess internalized objects that may be contradictory and give rise to internal conflicts, as when something is both feared and desired.
Q3) The ______________ perspective in psychology takes into account biological, sociological, and psychological factors associated with a person's behaviors.
Answer: biopsychosocial
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Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the Rorschach is accurate?
A) The ambiguous stimuli it employs are pictures of people interacting in an unclear way.
B) A considerable amount of training is required to administer and score it accurately.
C) It assesses the kind of specific behavioral deficits that most mental health facilities require today.
D) It is the quickest projective tests to administer and score.
Q2) What is the difference between an unstructured and a structured diagnostic interview? Which is preferable?
Q3) Some psychological tests may not elicit valid information from a client who is part of a minority group. This may mean the psychological test has ________
A) a clinician bias.
B) a client bias.
C) a theoretical orientation bias.
D) a cultural bias.
Q4) What is validity?
Q5) The term MRI in assessment of the brain means __________.
Q6) What is a projective test?
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Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relaxation techniques have been shown to help patients with essential
Q2) Which of the following factors is linked to a person's ability to cope better?
A) Intelligence
B) Social support
C) Absence of the 5HT-TLPR gene
D) Early life stress
Q3) What is a risk factor?
Q4) Which type of cells release interleukin?
A) B-cells
B) Macrophages
C) Red blood cells
D) Neurons
Q5) A client is administered the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. Which of the following would be measured?
A) Severe crises
B) Major life transitions
C) Availability of coping resources
D) Common, stressful life experiences
Q6) What is stress-inoculation training?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, Obsessions, and Their Disorders
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following illustrates how cognitive variables may act to maintain acquired fears?
A) Jane no longer went to the park due to her fear of dogs.
B) Karen would think happy thoughts whenever she drove over a bridge.
C) Ryan's fear of heights caused him to always wonder just how high up he was in a building.
D) Melvin knew that his heart was racing because he was afraid.
Q2) Casey and Josh have both been bitten by strange dogs. Casey has a dog of his own at home that he loves. Josh has little experience with dogs. Which is likely to develop a phobia?
A) Both boys are likely to develop a phobia because of the traumatic nature of the event.
B) Casey is more likely to develop a phobia because his schema of dogs has been violated.
C) Casey is less likely to develop a phobia because he has had lots of earlier positive experiences with dogs.
D) It will depend on which boy is more sensitive to pain.
Q3) Describe how a phobia could be learned through vicarious conditioning.
Q4) How do "safety behaviors" contribute to the persistence of panic disorder?
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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138 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of individuals who attempt suicide are ________ and the majority of those who complete suicide are ________.
A) women and people between age 18 and 24; men and people over age 65
B) men and people over age 65; women and people between age 18 and 24
C) adolescents; the elderly
D) the elderly; adolescents
Q2) The finding that people with one type of serotonin transporter gene and childhood maltreatment had higher rates of depression than either those without the gene or those with the gene without the maltreatment suggests that ________
A) childhood maltreatment causes depression.
B) only one type of gene causes depression.
C) the diathesis-stress model is unlikely.
D) the diathesis-stress model is likely.
Q3) In order to meet the criteria for a major depressive episode, a person must have
A) a depressed mood or loss of pleasure most of the day for at least two weeks.
B) significant weight loss.
C) intense irritability.
D) insomnia.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of opposite sex alters in DID?
A) They are rare.
B) They are quite common.
C) When they do occur, they usually assume the role of host.
D) They occur most commonly when sexual abuse has occurred.
Q2) What is the main goal of treatment for DID?
Q3) The treatment goal for most therapists who treat dissociative identity disorder is
A) acceptance of the alter personalities.
B) reduction in the impact of distress and impairment.
C) integration of the alter personalities.
D) self-understanding of the causes for the alter personalities.
Q4) Gerard became amnesic, wandered away from home and assumed a completely new identity as a shoe salesman. He suffers from ________
A) dissociative fugue.
B) dissociative identity disorder.
C) malingering identity disorder.
D) depersonalization.
Q5) Depersonalization and ______________ are two of the more common kinds of dissociative symptoms.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What medications are commonly used in the treatment of bulimia nervosa? What evidence is there that medications are beneficial in treating this condition?
Q2) Discuss the risk of suicide in anorexia and bulimia.
Q3) The neurotransmitter called __________ is made from tryptophan, which can only be obtained from food.
Q4) Ellen is underweight but not less than 85 percent of normal body weight. She often restricts her eating because she is intensely fearful of becoming fat. She purges at least twice a week, even though she does not eat large amounts of food at any sitting. According to the DSM-5 she should be diagnosed with ________
A) anorexia nervosa, binge/purge subtype.
B) eating disorder not otherwise specified.
C) binge eating disorder.
D) purging disorder.
Q5) What are the differences between binge-eating disorder and bulimia nervosa?
Q6) _________ is the most effective long-term treatment for people who are morbidly obese.
Q7) What most clearly separates the anorexic from the bulimic?
Q8) ____________is the most common form of eating disorder.
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Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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142 Verified Questions
142 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of obsessive compulsive personality disorder?
A) High conscientiousness and low compliance
B) High extraversion and high openness to feelings
C) High excitement seeking and low openness to feelings
D) High fantasy proneness and high agreeableness
Q2) John has a great need for order and perfectionism. He can't leave the house until every hair is in place, and he has been known to iron the same shirt over and over to ensure that he is wrinkle-free. What personality disorder does John's behavior suggest?
A) Avoidant
B) Dependent
C) Obsessive-compulsive
D) Narcissistic
Q3) Which of the personality disorders appears to be most related to schizophrenia? What evidence is there of this relationship?
Q4) People with __________ have excessive attention-seeking behaviors.
Q5) The __________-factor model has been the most influential in integrating research on personality disorders.
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pathological gambling seems to be________________
A) a learned pattern.
B) due to watching too much television.
C) due to a "gambling gene."
D) due to consuming too much alcohol.
Q2) Which parenting skill or parental behavior is most associated with adolescent substance use?
A) Overindulging children by giving them too many gifts and privileges
B) Restricting children from any form of experimentation with alcohol and other drugs
C) Restricting the expression of positive emotions
D) Lack of monitoring the adolescent's activities
Q3) Which of the following is a misconception about alcohol?
A) A person with a strong will cannot become an alcoholic.
B) Alcohol can interfere with sleep.
C) Mixing different types of alcohol does not make people more drunk than the same amount of a single type.
D) Drinking coffee does not counteract the effects of alcohol.
Q4) The most potent of the hallucinogens is__________.
Q5) A processed derivative of cocaine hydrochloride is __________.
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Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The recidivism rate for rapists ________
A) suggests that neither incarceration nor treatment is an effective approach to dealing with this type of crime.
B) is much higher than is suggested by the media.
C) has been declining since the introduction of mandatory chemical castration.
D) decreases steadily with age.
Q2) During which phase of the sexual response is there a characteristic sense of well-being and relaxation?
A) Desire
B) Orgasm
C) Excitement
D) Resolution
Q3) Which of the following best fits the subset of rapists known as "date rapists"?
A) A 19-year-old white male university student from a wealthy family
B) A 45-year-old black man who works for a cable company
C) A 30-year-old Asian man who lives with his parents
D) A 67-year-old Hispanic man who is married with teenage children
Q4) Why are almost all people with paraphilias male?
Q5) What are some personality characteristics of rapists?
Q6) What was unique about Freud's view of homosexuality?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of the most common type of hallucination seen in schizophrenia?
A) Bill is convinced that his mother is inserting evil thoughts into his mind.
B) Sondra tries to ignore the voices in her head.
C) Ned believes he is Elvis.
D) Rachel sometimes thinks she sees her husband, even though he has been dead for several years.
Q2) DeJuan sometimes stands in the same strange posture for hours without moving or talking. This type of disorganized behavior is a symptom of _________
A) schizophrenia
B) schizoaffective disorder
C) schizotypal disorder
D) schizophreniform disorder
Q3) Schizophrenia is best described as a ________
A) genetically influenced single gene disorder.
B) genetically influenced multiple gene disorder.
C) genetically determined single gene disorder.
D) genetically determined multiple gene disorder.
Q4) What is schizoaffective disorder?
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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ brain damage occurs after a widespread brain injury such as lack of oxygen.
Q2) The effects of head trauma on memory suggest that ________
A) short-term memory is not affected by physical trauma.
B) the process of memory consolidation can be interrupted.
C) semantic memory is usually affected when an injury is severe enough to produce a loss of consciousness.
D) rarely are episodic memories affected by head trauma.
Q3) What has greatly reduced the number of HIV patients with neurocognitive deficits?
A) APOE-E4 allele therapy
B) ACh inhibitors
C) Antiretroviral drug therapy
D) Better support systems
Q4) The first neurons to be affected in Alzheimer's disease are cells that release
A) serotonin.
B) dopamine.
C) beta amyloid.
D) acetylcholine.
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence (Neurodevelopmental Disorders)
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the ways parents can contribute to anxiety disorders in their children.
Q2) __________________ is(are) the most common of the childhood anxiety disorders.
Q3) In order of diagnosis, ________ occurs before antisocial personality disorder just as ________ occurs before conduct disorder.
A) ODD; ADHD
B) conduct disorder; ODD
C) ADHD; ODD
D) conduct disorder; ADHD
Q4) Children with separation anxiety disorder ________
A) have a school phobia.
B) fear impending separation but are fine once it actually happens.
C) fear separation from major attachment figures and worry they will die once separation occurs.
D) frequently develop conduct disorder as a result.
Q5) An asymmetry in brain development has been hypothesized to be a cause of
A) ADHD.
B) autism.
C) learning disabilities.
D) selective mutism.
Page 17
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Psychological Treatment
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Q1) In the psychoanalytic analysis of dreams, the type of content that is disguised in the dream is the __________ content.
Q2) Dr. Lucas says to a client with anxiety disorders, "It is your unrealistic beliefs and perfectionistic values that cause you to be so anxious, not the events of your life." Dr. Lucas probably supports the assumptions of ________ therapy.
A) humanistic
B) psychodynamic
C) rational emotive behavior
D) systematic desensitization
Q3) Manualized therapies first originated in order to ________
A) treat bipolor disorder
B) standardize psychosocial treatments for RCTs
C) keep therapists acting ethically
D) aid sleep researchers
Q4) Neuroleptics are also called _________.
Q5) Describe Beck's cognitive theory and therapy.
Q6) What is aversion therapy? Explain and provide an example of how it might be used.
Q7) What is a randomized clinical trial?
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What principles guide the approach called milieu therapy?
Q2) Having skills for effective problem solving, possessing an accurate set of assumptions about oneself, and being prepared for problems one is likely to encounter at various life stages are all requirements for ________
A) cultural adjustment.
B) psychosocial health.
C) biological health.
D) being a candidate for deinstitutionalization.
Q3) Community-based treatment programs are now referred to as ________
A) crisis intervention.
B) deinstitutionalization.
C) aftercare programs.
D) managed care initiatives.
Q4) What are the key tasks involved in universal interventions? Why is epidemiological research particularly important to these efforts?
Q5) The movement to close down mental hospitals and treat the mentally ill in the community is called __________.
Q6) NIOSH stands for __________ .
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Q7) The American Law Institute (ALI) standard is also called the __________ test.