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Psychology of Learning Solved Exam Questions - 3327 Verified Questions

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Psychology of Learning Solved Exam Questions

Course Introduction

The Psychology of Learning explores the fundamental principles and theories that explain how humans and animals acquire, process, retain, and apply knowledge and skills. This course examines classical and operant conditioning, cognitive and social learning theories, and the impact of motivation, reinforcement, memory, and environment on the learning process. Students will gain insight into the psychological mechanisms underlying learning behaviors and the application of these concepts in educational, clinical, and everyday settings.

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Biological Psychology 11th Edition by James

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15 Chapters

3327 Verified Questions

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2

Chapter 1: The Major Issues

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an argument for animal research?

A) Animal research is beneficial.

B) Animals cannot give informed consent to participate.

C) Animals have the same rights as humans.

D) Killing animals for scientific gain is murder.

Answer: A

Q2) The primary difference between artificial selection and natural selection is:

A) artificial selection results in fewer mutations.

B) natural selection is faster.

C) artificial selection is ineffective.

D) the factor that determines who will survive and reproduce.

Answer: D

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a reason that biological psychologists study animals?

A) Animal's brains and behavior are often similar to humans.

B) Animals are often easier to study than humans.

C) Biological psychologists are interested in the animals themselves.

D) One does not have to consider ethical issues with animals.

Answer: D

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3

Chapter 2: Nerve Cells and Nerve Impulses

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Sample Questions

Q1) The branching fibers that form the information-receiving pole of the nerve cells are called:

A) motor neurons.

B) dendrites.

C) sensory neurons.

D) axons.

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following is NOT governed by the all-or-none law?

A) unmyelinated axons

B) myelinated axons

C) motor neurons

D) local neurons

Answer: D

Q3) Increasing the electrical gradient for potassium would reduce the tendency for potassium ions to exit the neuron.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) List the parts of a neuron.

Answer: Dendrites, a soma (cell body), an axon, and presynaptic terminals.

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Synapses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which effect would be considered to be agonistic?

A) blocking the synthesis of neurotransmitters

B) stimulating the release of neurotransmitters

C) blocking the postsynaptic receptors

D) mimicking enzymes that breakdown neurotransmitters

Answer: B

Q2) Pert and Snyder's discovery that opiates bind with certain receptors led to what other discovery?

A) the functions of inhibitory synapses

B) the endogenous chemicals that bind with those receptors

C) other classes of receptors with which opiates will bind

D) more effective ways of manufacturing the drugs

Answer: B

Q3) The main advantage of a neuron releasing more than one neurotransmitter is that:

A) if it runs out of one, it has others.

B) it can release different transmitters on different occasions.

C) it can send more complex messages.

D) it can release one from the axon's terminal and one from another location along the axon.

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Anatomy of the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) If you could selectively damage the individual laminae of the cortex, damage to which layer would most likely affect visual sensation?

A) Layer IV of the temporal cortex

B) Layer V of the occipital cortex

C) Layer IV of the occipital cortex

D) Layer II of the frontal cortex

Q2) The "binding problem" is the issue of how we:

A) convert sensory information into a pattern that produces movement.

B) perceive visual, auditory and other aspects of a stimulus as a single object.

C) transfer information between the left and right hemispheres.

D) communicate between the word comprehension and word production areas of the brain.

Q3) Neurons that directly convey messages to muscles and glands are part of the central nervous system.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The elbow is more distal to the shoulder than the hand.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the basic anatomy and function of the spinal cord.

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Development and Plasticity of the Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) After ischemia, neurons deprived of blood:

A) transform from neurons into glia.

B) lose much of their oxygen and glucose supplies.

C) break down the blood-brain barrier.

D) increase the velocity of their action potentials.

Q2) In research aimed at minimizing damage due to stroke, attempts to prevent overstimulation of cells have produced:

A) very promising results.

B) disappointing results.

C) a complex interaction between age of patient and season of the year.

D) positive results in humans, but not so for animals.

Q3) An iodine deficiency in the diet can lead to an inadequate production of thyroid hormones. What is the result if this occurs in an infant or developing fetus?

A) Down's syndrome

B) mental retardation

C) Tourette's syndrome

D) accelerated body growth

Q4) Define denervation supersensitivity.

Q5) Briefly describe how strokes affect the brain.

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Chapter 6: Vision

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Sample Questions

Q1) Damage to area V4 would likely cause problems with color constancy.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Rods are abundant in the periphery of the human retina.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The cornea is an adjustable structure in the eye that focuses light.

A)True

B)False

Q4) An individual suffers damage to the temporal cortex, but maintains an intact parietal cortex. This may result in an inability to:

A) step over or go around objects in their way.

B) control movements of eye muscles.

C) reach out and grasp an object.

D) describe the size or shape of objects they see.

Q5) The optic nerve is composed of axons from ganglion cells.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Name the two types of receptors found in the vertebrate retina.

Q7) Describe why humans have a blind spot.

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Chapter 7: The Other Sensory Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) One hypothesis of synesthesia is:

A) that all of the axons from one cortical area have more branches into that cortical area.

B) that all of the axons from one cortical area have branches into another cortical area.

C) that some of the axons from one cortical area have branches into another cortical area.

D) that some of the axons from one cortical area have more branches into that cortical area.

Q2) The major problem with the frequency theory of pitch perception is that neurons can't produce action potentials frequently enough to match high frequency sound waves.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The nucleus of the tractus solitarius in the medulla is known to receive information from what source?

A) tongue

B) nose

C) ears

D) skin of the hands

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Movement

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Sample Questions

Q1) Central pattern generators:

A) contribute to rhythmic patterns of movement.

B) generate movement which is unresponsive to environmental stimulation.

C) constrict the pupils in response to bright light.

D) control all reflexes in adult humans.

Q2) After damage to the cerebellar cortex, an individual has trouble with which part of the finger-to-nose test?

A) The initial rapid movement to the nose

B) The second step involving the hold function

C) The third step which involves the finger moving to the nose by a slow movement

D) Both the second and third steps

Q3) Just thinking about the intention to put your arm around your attractive date would activate which of the following motor areas?

A) posterior parietal lobe

B) primary motor cortex

C) premotor cortex

D) supplementary motor cortex

Q4) What is the neuromuscular junction?

Q5) Briefly describe the Babinski reflex.

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Chapter 9: Wakefulness and Sleep

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Sample Questions

Q1) Alternation of TIM protein levels by a pulse of light during the night will:

A) shorten the onset of sleep.

B) increase PER protein levels.

C) phase-advance the temperature cycle.

D) decrease sleepiness.

Q2) Slow-wave sleep is comprised of:

A) alpha wave sleep.

B) stages 1 and 2.

C) stages 3 and 4.

D) REM sleep.

Q3) After isolating a neuron from the rest of the brain, you find that it has a moderately stable circadian rhythm. The most likely home of this neuron is in the:

A) optic nerve.

B) MPOA.

C) SCN.

D) pineal gland.

Q4) Provide three explanations for why we sleep.

Q5) List the stages of sleep including their dominant electrophysiological marker.

Q6) Discuss the leading theories on the biological perspectives on dreaming.

Q7) Briefly describe the role of the locus coeruleus in arousal and attention.

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Chapter 10: Internal Regulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Inhibitory neurotransmitters used by the hunger-sensitive neurons of the arcuate nucleus that inhibit the PVN include:

A) alpha-MSH and leptin.

B) NPY and insulin.

C) insulin and glucagon.

D) NPY and AgRP.

Q2) What area of the brain is largely responsible for detecting osmotic pressure?

A) substantia nigra

B) red nucleus

C) ventromedial hypothalamus

D) OVLT and subfornical organ

Q3) A drug that stimulates melanocortin receptors would most likely:

A) increase meal frequency.

B) increase leptin production.

C) decrease meal size.

D) increase meal size.

Q4) Stomach distension is necessary to produce satiety.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the different causes and mechanisms of hypovolemic thirst.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Reproductive Behaviors

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman's hypothalamus and pituitary interact with the ____ to produce the menstrual cycle.

A) pineal gland

B) ovaries

C) thyroid

D) adrenal glands

Q2) What does a coral goby fish do if its mate dies after eggs have been laid?

A) A male will abandon the eggs and find a new mate.

B) A female will care for her young and then die.

C) Either sex will care for the eggs and, if necessary, change sex to form a new mating pair.

D) Either sex will abandon the eggs to find a new mate.

Q3) Damage to the medial preoptic area of the hypothalamus in rats would most likely result in:

A) decreased sexual activity.

B) increased sexual activity.

C) a change in partner preference.

D) excessive testosterone levels.

Q4) Describe the steps in the normal prenatal development of the female reproductive structures.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Emotional Behaviors

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Sample Questions

Q1) ____ decrease(s) the responses in a rat's brain to the smell of a cat.

A) Orexin

B) Cholecystokinin

C) Benzodiazepines

D) Chloride ions

Q2) A variety of studies indicate that anxiety is increased by the transmitters ____ and ____.

A) alprazolam, orexin

B) cholecystokinin, orexin

C) orexin, diazepam

D) alprazolam, cholecystokinin

Q3) The insula is strongly activated if you see a disgusting picture.

A)True

B)False

Q4) One study found that many young men showed an increase in aggressive behavior a few hours after eating a diet:

A) high in tryptophan.

B) high in both tryptophan and phenylalanine.

C) low in tryptophan and high in phenylalanine.

D) low in both tryptophan and phenylalanine.

Page 14

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Chapter 13: The Biology of Learning and Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Once LTP has been established:

A) it remains dependent on NMDA synapses.

B) it fades quickly.

C) AMPA receptors convert into NMDA receptors.

D) the AMPA receptors are more responsive to glutamate.

Q2) Research indicates that the red nucleus is necessary for:

A) the learning of a conditioned response.

B) the performance of a conditioned response.

C) the learning AND performance of a conditioned response.

D) suppression of the conditioned response.

Q3) If a stimulus is presented repeatedly, followed by no other stimulus, the animal will gradually stop responding. This is known as:

A) sensitization.

B) habituation.

C) classical conditioning.

D) imprinting.

Q4) Punishment makes it less likely for a behavior to occur again in the future.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the brain pathology of Alzheimer's disease.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Cognitive Functions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The parallels between language and music are sufficient to suggest that they arose together.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following tasks would children with the highest ratio of left to right planum temporale perform better than children with an equal ratio?

A) composing music

B) doing a puzzle

C) writing a play

D) riding a bicycle

Q3) A small vertical strip down the center of each retina connects to:

A) the right hemisphere.

B) the left hemisphere.

C) both hemispheres.

D) neither hemisphere.

Q4) Trunk and facial muscles are controlled by both hemispheres of the brain.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the hemispheric specializations in the intact brain.

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Chapter 15: Mood Disorders and Schizophrenia

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Sample Questions

Q1) A restless, impulsive person whose speech rambles from one idea to another may fit which of these categories?

A) autistic

B) depressed

C) manic

D) narcoleptic

Q2) Which of the following statements about the genetic basis of schizophrenia is FALSE?

A) Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than dizygotic twins.

B) Twins are more likely to resemble each other if they think they are monozygotic than if they actually are.

C) Schizophrenia is more common in the biological relatives of an adopted schizophrenic child than in the adoptive relatives.

D) The prevalence of schizophrenia has been declining worldwide.

Q3) People with unipolar disorder are characterized by:

A) obsessions and compulsions.

B) variations between depression and mania.

C) variations between depression and a normal mood.

D) chemical imbalances in one half of their brains.

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