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The Psychology of Learning explores the fundamental principles and theories underlying how individuals acquire, retain, and apply knowledge and skills. This course delves into key learning paradigms such as classical and operant conditioning, cognitive and social learning theories, as well as the biological bases of learning. Students will examine factors affecting motivation, memory, and behavior change, and will analyze the applications of learning theories in educational and real-world contexts. Through empirical research, case studies, and practical activities, the course aims to foster a deep understanding of the psychological processes that drive human learning across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering Biological Psychology 2nd Edition by Laura Freberg
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technology has been shown to produce temporary savant abilities,such as the ability to perform complicated mental calculations quickly,in healthy participants?
A) magnetoencephalography (MEG)
B) repeated transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS)
C) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
D) No known technology has the ability to produce these effects.
Answer: B
Q2) Particular proteins in cells can be identified using A) the Golgi silver stain.
B) the Nissl stain.
C) horseradish peroxidase stain.
D) antibodies.
Answer: D
Q3) Why is it sometimes necessary to use surgically implanted pipettes to deliver drugs to the brain directly?
Answer: The brain,compared to many other organs,is unusually well protected.Many substances in the blood circulate through the brain without being able to exit into the neural tissue.
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Q1) A condition that results when the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is blocked is known as
A) hydrocephalus.
B) meningioma.
C) meningitis.
D) septicemia.
Answer: A
Q2) Autism is frequently associated with abnormalities in the A) cerebellum.
B) reticular formation.
C) medulla.
D) vestibular nuclei.
Answer: A
Q3) The subthalamic nucleus is part of the A) diencephalon.
B) reticular formation.
C) basal ganglia.
D) limbic system.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professor Winston is observing the effects of a new drug on neurons in the spinal cord that participate in reflexes by forming a bridge between incoming sensory information and outgoing motor commands.The neurons that Professor Winston is studying are most likely
A) sensory neurons
B) motor neurons
C) interneurons
D) Von Economo neurons
Answer: C
Q2) Pyramidal cells in the cerebral cortex are examples of A) unipolar neurons.
B) bipolar neurons.
C) multipolar neurons.
D) Purkinje cells.
Answer: C
Q3) What is an axon hillock,and why is it important in electrical signaling?
Answer: The axon hillock is a cone-shaped segment of the axon at its junction with a cell body.Action potentials can be first recorded at the axon hillock,before traveling down the remainder of the axon.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lisa and Tom both weigh 160 pounds,and both just consumed two beers in the last hour.What can we conclude about their blood alcohol levels?
A) Because they are the same weight,both should have the same blood alcohol levels.
B) Neither will show any evidence of having consumed alcohol,because one hour is plenty of time for a 160 lb.person to metabolize the alcohol contained in two beers.
C) Tom's blood alcohol level will probably be higher than Lisa's,because alcohol is absorbed by fat,and women usually have more fat than men.
D) Lisa's blood alcohol level will probably be higher than Tom's,because alcohol is diluted by muscle,and men usually have more muscle than women.
Q2) The NMDA receptor,kainate receptor,and AMPA receptor all respond to A) serotonin.
B) epinephrine.
C) glutamate.
D) GABA.
Q3) How does alcohol produce its behavioral effects?
Q4) How does cocaine produce its behavioral effects?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Experience strengthens existing synapses when
A) pre- and postsynaptic neurons are simultaneously active.
B) activity of the pre- and postsynaptic neurons are not synchronized.
C) activity in the postsynaptic neuron precedes activity in the presynaptic neuron.
D) the pre- and post-synaptic neurons use the same neurotransmitter.
Q2) Abnormal amyloid proteins are also found in the brains of people with:
A) fragile-X syndrome.
B) Down syndrome.
C) phenylketonuria (PKU).
D) fetal alcohol syndrome.
Q3) Which of the following accurately describes the attraction of bases between strands of DNA?
A) A pairs with T,and C pairs with G
B) A pairs with C,and T pairs with G
C) A pairs with G,and T pairs with C
D) A pairs with U,and T pairs with G
Q4) Describe the process of differentiation of ectodermal cells into skin and neural tissue.
Q5) Why does a critical period end?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moving from the fovea to the outer margins of the retina,
A) rods and cones are evenly distributed.
B) the concentration of rods decreases and the concentration of cones increases.
C) the concentration of cones decreases and the concentration of rods increases.
D) rods and cones are concentrated in distinct clusters.
Q2) Which of the following features do not contribute to the protection of the human eye?
A) the bony orbits
B) tears
C) the placement of the eyes toward the front
D) blinking
Q3) Which of the following involves a binocular depth cue?
A) texture gradient
B) relative size
C) retinal disparity
D) perspective (parallel lines converge at the horizon)
Q4) People with prosopagnosia might also demonstrate the phenomenon of blindsight.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the organization of the lateral geniculate nucleus.
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Sample Questions
Q1) High frequency sounds produce a peak response
A) near the base of the basilar membrane.
B) near the apex of the basilar membrane.
C) in the tectorial membrane.
D) in Reissner's membrane.
Q2) Localization of sounds in the vertical plane (above or below)is aided by A) the existence of sound "shadow."
B) an analysis of the intensity of sounds reaching each ear.
C) the effect of the pinna on incoming sounds.
D) an analysis of the arrival time of sounds at each ear.
Q3) As soon as Justin started his summer job as a heavy machinery operator,he began to feel dizzy and nauseous at work.It is most likely that Justin's symptoms are related to the machinery's production of A) harmonics.
B) noise.
C) ultrasound.
D) infrasound.
Q4) How does the chemical composition of the endolymph affect the activity of hair cells in the cochlea?
Q5) What is a dermatome?

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Q1) Describe the sequence of events in the nervous system that occurs as we initiate a voluntary movement.
Q2) The pre-SMA and the SMA (supplementary motor area)receive substantial direct input from the
A) basal ganglia.
B) cerebellum.
C) red nucleus.
D) thalamus.
Q3) Which of the following areas of the spinal cord show enlargement of the ventral horns due to large numbers of motor neurons?
A) C1-C2;T2-T12
B) C1-C2;L1-S3
C) C3-T1;T2-T12
D) C3-T1;L1-S3
Q4) The basal ganglia influence voluntary movement by
A) directly inhibiting the thalamus,which in turn influences pre-SMA and SMA.
B) directly inhibiting pre-SMA and SMA,which in turn influences the thalamus.
C) making direct connections with primary motor cortex.
D) directly activating the thalamus,which in turn influences pre-SMA and SMA.
Q5) Describe how the Golgi tendon organs provide feedback about muscle contraction.
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Q1) Research by Cannon and Washburn,in which Washburn swallowed a balloon,investigated the role of
A) stomach contractions as cues for hunger.
B) blood glucose levels in satiety.
C) insulin levels in satiety.
D) glucagon levels as cues for hunger.
Q2) Homeostasis is defined as an organism's ability to adjust its physiological processes to maintain a steady internal balance or equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hyponatremia occurs when sodium levels are high,but fluid levels are low.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sensitivity to changes in temperature is
A) equally precise in all structures related to temperature regulation.
B) more precise in the brainstem than in the spinal cord or hypothalamus.
C) more precise in the spinal cord than in the hypothalamus.
D) more precise in the hypothalamus than in the spinal cord.
Q5) What does it mean to become hungry in response to "glucose availability?"
Q6) How might lesions of the ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH)disrupt appetite?
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Q1) Estrogen replacement therapy for post-menopausal women
A) prevents decline in sexual interest.
B) boosts spatial reasoning,as shown in the figure rotation task.
C) helps prevent later cognitive decline,but raises a woman's risk of heart disease and cancer.
D) contributes to later cognitive decline,but helps prevent heart disease and cancer.
Q2) Describe the major features of Klinefelter syndrome.
Q3) Both males and females release the hormones LH and FSH,but these hormones impact fertility only in females.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What processes determine the development of external genitalia?
Q5) What differences in brain activity occur when we view someone we love compared to when we view someone we like?
Q6) Testosterone levels in men appear to fluctuate in response to A) internal biological clocks.
B) competition.
C) sexual frequency.
D) mental imagery.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jet lag is
A) worse when one travels in an eastward direction.
B) worse when one travels in a westward direction.
C) worse when one travels in a northward direction.
D) dependent on distance traveled,not direction.
Q2) Nightmares occur during
A) Stages 1 or 2 NREM sleep.
B) Stages 3 or 4 NREM sleep.
C) REM sleep.
D) the time immediately after awakening.
Q3) Unless some type of pathology is present,the first segment of sleep is
A) always REM.
B) always NREM.
C) a mixture of REM and NREM.
D) a special state that cannot be characterized as either REM or NREM.
Q4) REM sleep can first be recorded in humans
A) prior to birth.
B) about 2 weeks after birth.
C) about 6 weeks after birth.
D) at about 1 year of age.

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Q1) In long-term potentiation (LTP),a rapid series of shocks
A) increases postsynaptic potentials in target hippocampal cells.
B) decreases postsynaptic potentials in target hippocampal cells.
C) reduces sensitivity to neurotransmitter in target hippocampal cells.
D) produces sensitization.
Q2) Describe the process outlined by Kandel by which classical conditioning occurs in Aplysia californica?
Q3) In studies of classical conditioning in Aplysia,which of the following usually serves as the unconditioned stimulus?
A) touching the mantle
B) touching the siphon
C) the gill-withdrawal reflex
D) electric shock to the tail
Q4) Which memories are easiest to demonstrate?
A) sensory
B) procedural
C) semantic and episodic
D) explicit
Q5) How does long-term depression occur in the cerebellum?
Q6) Summarize the role of the amygdala in the classical conditioning of fear.
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Q1) The fiber pathway connecting the two thalamic nuclei in animals and some people is the
A) anterior commissure.
B) massa intermedia.
C) corpus callosum.
D) hippocampal commissure.
Q2) Mirror neurons are activated
A) whenever an animal carries out an activity or sees another animal carry out the same activity.
B) whenever an animal hears a distress call.
C) whenever an animal participates in a sequence of behaviors,such as birdsong.
D) only when humans use language.
Q3) The brains of musicians with perfect pitch
A) differed from nonmusicians,but not from musicians lacking perfect pitch.
B) differed from musicians lacking perfect pitch,but not nonmusicians.
C) were the same as nonmusicians and musicians lacking perfect pitch.
D) differed from both nonmusicians and musicians lacking perfect pitch.
Q4) How does brain activity during language tasks compare between multilingual and monolingual speakers?
Q5) What factors influence the development of lateralization in the human brain?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to the amygdala may be correlated with A) increased rage.
B) increased pleasure.
C) inability to perceive others' happiness.
D) inability to perceive others' fear or anger.
Q2) The facial nuclei are located in the A) midbrain.
B) medulla.
C) reticular formation.
D) pons.
Q3) Research on the "home team advantage" in sports suggests that testosterone levels may be influenced by A) the number of males engaged in competition.
B) crossing time zones.
C) territoriality.
D) the familiarity of the environment.
Q4) When receptors in the amygdala report high levels of cortisol,the amygdala inhibits further activity in the HPA axis.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Most recent cases of new variant Creuzfeld-Jakob disease (vCJD)probably resulted from
A) contamination from instruments used in surgical procedures. B) cannibalism.
C) eating steak (muscle meat)from infected cattle.
D) eating meat from infected cattle that contains nervous system tissue.
Q2) The aura associated with migraine headaches
A) occurs in all patients who experience migraines.
B) usually takes the form of a visual distortion.
C) consists of a vague premonition that a headache is about to occur.
D) can produce muscular contractions.
Q3) The use of chemotherapy for brain tumors is complicated by the fact that A) brain tumors do not respond to traditional chemotherapy.
B) chemotherapy causes too much damage to neurons to be considered as a treatment for brain tumors.
C) many substances used in traditional chemotherapy do not cross the blood-brain barrier.
D) substances used in traditional chemotherapy mimic the actions of naturally occurring neurotransmitters.
Q4) Distinguish between viral and bacterial meningitis.
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Q1) Among patients diagnosed with schizophrenia,the most common outcome is
A) a single episode of psychosis followed by recovery.
B) periodic psychosis separated by periods of good health.
C) repeated and increasingly severe periods of psychosis.
D) a single episode of psychosis followed by no recovery.
Q2) Manic episodes
A) can be triggered by sleep deprivation.
B) can be triggered by oversleeping.
C) produce more than the usual amount of REM sleep.
D) do not have any effects on sleep patterns.
Q3) Schizophrenia occurs
A) more frequently in rural than in urban environments.
B) more frequently in urban than in rural environments.
C) about as frequently in urban as in rural environments.
D) more frequently in rural environments in wealthy countries and in urban environments in poorer countries.
Q4) Most medications that improve mood in people with major depressive disorder act to suppress REM sleep.
A)True
B)False
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