Psychology of Learning and Memory
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Psychology of Learning and Memory explores the fundamental principles behind how individuals acquire, retain, and recall information. This course examines major theories and research findings related to learning processes, memory systems, and cognitive mechanisms. Students will investigate classical and operant conditioning, observational learning, encoding and retrieval processes, as well as working and long-term memory models. The course also addresses factors that influence learning and memory, such as attention, motivation, and context, and considers applications in educational, clinical, and everyday settings. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of how learning and memory shape human behavior and cognition.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Psychology 11th Edition by James W. Kalat
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Chapter 1: The Major Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a genetically controlled condition that can be minimized by following a particular diet?
A) Down syndrome
B) Color-blindness
C) Epilepsy
D) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Answer: D
Q2) A person with two recessive genes is considered to be ____ for that trait.
A) homozygous
B) heterozygous
C) unitary
D) marginal
Answer: A
Q3) The theory of evolution through the inheritance of acquired characteristics is known as:
A) Lamarckian evolution.
B) Darwinian evolution.
C) artificial evolution.
D) Huxley's evolution.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Nerve Cells and Nerve Impulses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what direction does a local neuron transmit information?
A) through its dendrites to cell body to axon
B) through its axon to cell body to dendrites
C) only toward the cell body
D) equally well in any direction
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of having a resting potential?
A) The toxic effects of sodium are minimized inside the cell.
B) No energy is required to maintain it.
C) The cell is prepared to respond quickly to a stimulus.
D) All of the ions are maintained in equal concentrations throughout the cytoplasm.
Answer: C
Q3) At rest, the inside of a neuron's membrane is more negative than the outside.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The electrical gradient of a neuron membrane refers to what?
Answer: A difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of the cell.
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Chapter 3: Synapses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would most likely result in an IPSP?
A) potassium ions entering the cell
B) sodium ions entering the cell
C) chloride ions entering the cell
D) chloride ions leaving the cell
Answer: C
Q2) A drug that mimics or increases the effects of a neurotransmitter is called a(n):
A) agonist.
B) antagonist.
C) stimulant.
D) protagonist.
Answer: A
Q3) A chemical is called a(n) ____ when it flows through the blood to targets throughout the body.
A) hormone
B) neurotransmitter
C) neuromodulator
D) endocrine
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Anatomy of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reticular formation is contained within the:
A) brain stem.
B) spinal cord.
C) raphe system.
D) cerebellum.
Q2) The hippocampus plays a major role in:
A) innate sexual behavior.
B) temperature regulation.
C) memory.
D) secretion of hormones.
Q3) A tract in the spinal cord would most likely be found in the white matter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The parasympathetic nervous system has:
A) long preganglionic and long postganglionic axons.
B) long preganglionic and short postganglionic axons.
C) short preganglionic and short postganglionic axons.
D) short preganglionic and long postganglionic axons.
Q5) Describe the main differences between basal ganglia and cerebellum function.
Page 6
Q6) Briefly describe some of the gender differences found in human brains.
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Chapter 5: Development and Plasticity of the Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to some of the axons that innervate a given structure may give rise to:
A) collateral sprouting, but not denervation supersensitivity.
B) denervation supersensitivity, but not collateral sprouting.
C) both collateral sprouting and denervation supersensitivity.
D) neither collateral sprouting nor denervation supersensitivity.
Q2) Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA):
A) is recommended for hemorrhage.
B) overstimulates glutamate receptors.
C) should be administered a few days after stroke.
D) is helpful in cases of ischemia.
Q3) Early in development, the nervous system begins as a:
A) tube surrounding a fluid-filled cavity.
B) spherical structure in the center of the embryo.
C) diffuse system of cells scattered throughout the body.
D) single layer of cells covering the heart and other internal organs.
Q4) ____ steer new axonal branches and synapses in the right direction.
A) Chemokines
B) Immunoglobulin
C) Glia
D) Neurotrophins
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Vision
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Sample
Questions
Q1) Kittens that are restricted to having only having one eye open at a time are similar to humans with strabismus in that:
A) stereoscopic depth perception fails to develop.
B) they are completely blind.
C) they can see twice as much.
D) they are cross-eyed.
Q2) What is strabismus?
A) a failure of the two eyes to focus on the same thing at the same time
B) a blurring of vision caused by asymmetrical curvature of the eye
C) stereoscopic depth perception
D) the ability to perceive a flashing light as if it were a moving object
Q3) Which theory emphasizes the idea that color vision depends on the relative responses of three kinds of cones?
A) Young-Helmholtz theory
B) opponent-process theory
C) retinal theory
D) volley theory
Q4) The retinex theory accounts for the principle of color constancy.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Other Sensory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person would have the most difficulty locating the sight and sound of an approaching train with damage to the:
A) area MT.
B) parietal cortex.
C) prefrontal cortex.
D) tympanic membrane.
Q2) Which two structures provide information about vestibular sensation?
A) cochlea and otolith organs
B) semicircular canals and cochlea
C) semicircular canals and otolith organs
D) cerebellum and sinuses
Q3) Pain receptors of the skin are:
A) elaborate neuron endings.
B) also known as Ruffini endings.
C) simple, bare neuron endings.
D) also known as Meissner's corpuscles.
Q4) After sound waves pass through the auditory canal, they strike the tympanic membrane.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) A loss of dopamine activity leads to ____ stimulation of the motor cortex and ____ onset of movements.
A) less; faster
B) more; faster
C) less; slower
D) more; slower
Q2) Control of a single muscle is distributed over a population of cells in the motor cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Damage to one side of the lateral tract below the level of the medulla would most likely affect:
A) fine motor control on the opposite side of the body.
B) fine motor control on the same side of the body.
C) bilateral control of the neck, shoulders, and trunk.
D) rapid ballistic movements.
Q4) Fast-twitch fibers have fast contractions and rapid fatigue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the main function of the posterior parietal cortex?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Wakefulness and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) Provide three explanations for why we sleep.
Q2) For a normal person, about how long does a cycle of sleep (from stage 1 to stage 4 and back again) last?
A) 10 minutes
B) 90 minutes
C) 4 hours
D) 7 hours
Q3) What is a strong piece of evidence that the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) generates the circadian rhythm?
A) Stimulation of the SCN awakens an individual.
B) SCN neurons generate a circadian rhythm of impulses even after removal from the brain.
C) Different groups of SCN neurons reach their peak of activity at different times of day.
D) Certain animals that are born without an SCN are inactive throughout the day.
Q4) High levels of 'Per' and 'Tim' are associated with sleepiness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe brain function during REM sleep.
Q6) Discuss the relationship between sleep and memory.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Internal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organisms, if any, use behavioral means to regulate their body temperature?
A) poikilothermic, but not homeothermic
B) homeothermic, but not poikilothermic
C) both poikilothermic and homeothermic
D) neither poikilothermic nor homeothermic
Q2) The rate at which the posterior pituitary releases vasopressin is under the control of the:
A) lateral preoptic area of the hypothalamus.
B) supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei.
C) subfornical organ.
D) thalamus.
Q3) Inhibitory neurotransmitters used by the hunger-sensitive neurons of the arcuate nucleus that inhibit the PVN include:
A) alpha-MSH and leptin.
B) NPY and insulin.
C) insulin and glucagon.
D) NPY and AgRP.
Q4) How does cholecystokinin limit meal size?
Q5) Describe the major brain mechanisms of eating and hunger.
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Chapter 11: Reproductive Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe some of the evidence that brain anatomy may differ as a function of sexual orientation.
Q2) The first few days of rat parental care are to ____ as later days are to ____.
A) experience; hormones
B) hormones; experience
C) females; males
D) males; females
Q3) Progesterone prepares the uterus for the implantation of a fertilized ovum and promotes the maintenance of pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the Dominican Republic, certain genetic males who were regarded in early childhood as girls have developed into boys at puberty. What happened to their gender identity?
A) Most adopted a clear male gender identity.
B) Most retained a clear female gender identity.
C) About half developed a clear male identity; the other half developed a clear female identity.
D) Most developed a confused gender identity.
Q5) Describe activating effects of sex hormones and give specific examples.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Emotional Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) One study found that many young men showed an increase in aggressive behavior a few hours after eating a diet:
A) high in tryptophan.
B) high in both tryptophan and phenylalanine.
C) low in tryptophan and high in phenylalanine.
D) low in both tryptophan and phenylalanine.
Q2) Not all children who are abused become violently aggressive in adolescence or adulthood. Of the following, which has been demonstrated to influence violence by these people?
A) genes regulating testosterone receptors
B) genes regulating the suprachiasmatic nucleus
C) genes regulating secretion of aldosterone
D) genes regulating monoamine oxidase
Q3) Describe the role of the human amygdala in emotions.
Q4) In a study of serotonin turnover in male monkeys, it was found that those with:
A) low levels were most submissive.
B) high levels had the most scars.
C) high levels were the most aggressive.
D) low levels were usually dead by age six.
Q5) Briefly describe the startle reflex.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Biology of Learning and Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient H.M., who had major surgery for severe epilepsy in 1953, suffered a severe difficulty in remembering events:
A) in working memory.
B) during or after 1953.
C) long before 1953.
D) of his childhood.
Q2) In searching for the engram, Karl Lashley found that removal of larger areas of cortex resulted in the greatest impairment of memory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Amyloid is to ____, as tau is to ____.
A) plaques, tangles
B) tangles, plaques
C) neurons, glia
D) glia, neurons
Q4) Eye-blink conditioning depends on the lateral interpositus nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the types of memory problems displayed by Patient H.M.
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Chapter 14: Cognitive Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is more likely to be present in people with dyslexia?
A) weak eye muscles
B) larger than normal corpus callosum
C) stuttering
D) bilateral symmetry in the cortex
Q2) The planum temporale is larger in the:
A) right hemisphere for most people.
B) left hemisphere for most people.
C) right hemisphere but only for newborns.
D) left hemisphere but only for newborns.
Q3) Studies of nonhuman language abilities seem to indicate that human language may have evolved from a precursor that was probably:
A) present only in human ancestors.
B) a byproduct of total brain size.
C) present in the ancient ancestor from which humans and bonobos evolved.
D) a single gene mutation.
Q4) Discuss some of the research conducted in split-brain patients.
Q5) Most left-handers have left-hemisphere dominance for speech.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Mood Disorders and Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) An advantage of bright light therapy for SAD, as compared to other antidepressant treatments, is that bright light therapy:
A) is highly effective without apparent side effects.
B) produces a permanent cure after one or two treatments.
C) is well understood theoretically.
D) is financially supported by several drug companies.
Q2) Which of the following increases the probability that someone will develop schizophrenia?
A) Having an older than average father.
B) Having at least one older brother.
C) Being the only child in the family.
D) Having a mother who is older than the father.
Q3) Tricyclic drugs work by:
A) blocking the release of catecholamines.
B) preventing the presynaptic cell from reabsorbing catecholamines.
C) directly stimulating the postsynaptic cell's catecholamine receptors.
D) increasing the rate of synthesis of catecholamines.
Q4) Describe the difference between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia and give some examples of each.
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