Psychology of Learning and Memory Solved Exam Questions - 2012 Verified Questions

Psychology of Learning and Memory Solved Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Psychology of Learning and Memory explores the fundamental principles and processes underlying how individuals acquire, retain, and retrieve information. The course examines classical and operant conditioning, observational learning, and cognitive theories to highlight mechanisms of learning. It also covers the structures, functions, and stages of memory, addresses influences such as attention, motivation, and context, and considers individual differences and developmental factors. Empirical research and real-world applications are emphasized to illustrate how understanding learning and memory can improve educational practice, enhance performance, and inform treatment of memory disorders.

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Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb

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84 Chapters

2012 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Extension: A - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) Sherrington's studies of the reflex arc in dogs led him to conclude that:

A) there are gaps between individual communicating neurons.

B) communicating neurons are directly connected with one another.

C) all neural communication is electrical in nature.

D) reflexes are coordinated by the pineal body, even in dogs.

Answer: A

Q2) The cortical area MOST closely associated with speech comprehension is the _____ lobe.

A) temporal

B) frontal

C) occipital

D) parietal

Answer: A

Q3) Following damage to his frontal lobes, subject L. D. had lasting impairments in: A) visual perception.

B) attention.

C) motor-skill acquisition.

D) balance.

Answer: B

Page 3

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Chapter 1: Extension: B - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) What does it mean for the cortex to be organized topographically?

Answer: It means that a mapping of specific areas of the cortex is possible for information from or being sent to a particular body region. Such a mapping on the cortex represents a specific spatial transformation of the topography of the body surface.

Q2) Galvani ___

A)chemical neurotransmission

B)electrical stimulation of muscle contractions

C)ionic conduction of nerve impulse

D)synapse

Answer: B

Q3) Of what historical significance were the experiments of Fritsch and Hitzig?

Answer: Their studies demonstrated that the cerebral cortex is electrically excitable and that such electrical stimulation in different cortical areas produced movements in specific body regions contralateral to the hemisphere stimulated. This demonstrated topographical organization of the motor cortex.

Q4) Sketch and label the main parts of a neuron.

Answer: See Figure Answer: 9 Major Parts of a Neuron in the text.

Page 4

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Chapter 1: Extension: C - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) A cranioscopy was used for which purpose?

A) to surgically remove parts of the cerebral cortex

B) to excise subdural hematomas from the meninges of the brain

C) to measure the bumps and depressions of the skull

D) to observe the anatomical structures of an individual in a manner similar to the CAT scanner

Answer: C

Q2) Today, when neuroscientists use the term "mind," most are using it as shorthand for:

A) spirit and soul.

B) nonmaterial aspects of experience.

C) heart function.

D) the collective functions of the brain.

Answer: D

Q3) Who thought that mental processes came from the heart, not the brain?

A) Plato

B) Aristotle

C) Hippocrates

D) Galen

Answer: B

Page 5

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Chapter 2: Extension: A - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Relative to animals with poor vision, animals that have high - acuity color vision and good depth perception would be expected to have:

A) a relative expansion of the occipital cortex.

B) a relative expansion of the frontal cortex.

C) a relative shrinkage of the occipital cortex.

D) no differences in cortical structure.

Q2) A phylogenetic lineage refers to a:

A) known sequence of fossil records describing the evolution of a species.

B) hypothetical sequence of animals representing consecutive stages in evolutionary history.

C) sequence of living animals having identical neurobiological and cognitive abilities.

D) listing of animals that have almost but not quite evolved.

Q3) Which of the following has the highest EQ?

A) dolphin

B) elephant

C) cat

D) rat

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Chapter 2: Extension: B - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) Describe how protein mutations can be used as "molecular clocks" to compare the evolution of species.

Q2) A.africanus

A)toolmakers

B)appeared in the past 200,000 years

C)larger brain and migrated to Europe and Asia

D)smaller brain but probably used tools

Q3) agriculture ___

A)30,000 years ago

B)15,000 years ago

C)7000 years ago

D)2 million years ago

Q4) H. erectus ___

A)toolmakers

B)appeared in the past 200,000 years

C)larger brain and migrated to Europe and Asia

D)smaller brain but probably used tools

Q5) Place approximate dates of emergence on the following: H. habilis, H. erectus, H. sapiens, cave paintings, agriculture, and reading and writing.

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Chapter 2: Extension: C - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) The _____ has the largest encephalization quotient.

A) elephant

B) rat

C) chimpanzee

D) dolphin

Q2) Consideration of epigenetics helps describe how one genome can code for:

A) only one phenotype due to DNA dominance.

B) different phenotypes due to DNA-environment interactions.

C) only one phenotype due to a lack of mutations within the DNA.

D) different phenotypes due to mutations within the DNA.

Answer Key

Q3) The MOST appropriate alternative for Australopithecus is_____.

A) chimpanzees

B) Louis Leakey

C) human adults, young chimps

D) southern ape

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Chapter 3: Extension: A - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) An interneuron is defined as a neuron that:

A) receives input from other neurons and projects in turn to other neurons.

B) receives input from sensory receptors and projects in turn to other neurons.

C) receives input from other neurons and projects in turn to muscles.

D) is found only in the cerebral cortex.

Q2) The thalamus, hypothalamus, and pineal body are components of the:

A) metencephalon.

B) telencephalon.

C) diencephalon.

D) myelencephalon.

Q3) Damage to the dorsal root fibers of the spinal cord would result in impaired: A) sensation.

B) movement.

C) sensation and movement.

D) cognition.

Q4) Your cerebral cortex is located in your _____.

A) diencephalon

B) telencephalon

C) myelencephalon

D) metencephalon

Page 9

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Chapter 3: Extension: B - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) What is the relationship between primary, secondary, and tertiary regions of the cortex in information processing?

Q2) cortex ___

A)diencephalon

B)epithalamus

C)hindbrain

D)telencephalon

Q3) Discuss briefly how flexion and extension reflexes help an organism to adapt to its local environment.

Q4) thalamus ___

A)diencephalon

B)epithalamus

C)hindbrain

D)telencephalon

Q5) contralateral ___

A)carries messages toward a given structure

B)on the same side

C)carries messages from a given structure

D)on the opposite side

Q6) List three components of the limbic system and a function ascribed to each one.

10

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Chapter 3: Extension: C - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) Experimental stimulation of which section of the brainstem produces a state of "general arousal" or "consciousness"?

A) the medulla

B) the pons

C) the reticular system

D) the periaqueductal gray

Q2) The _____ is NOT part of the basal ganglia.

A) putamen

B) globus pallidus

C) caudate nucleus

D) hippocampus.

Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by the _____.

A) oligodendroglia cells

B) Schwann cells

C) astrocytes

D) ependymal cells

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Chapter 4: Extension: A - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) The basic structure of the cell membrane of a neuron consists of a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which are embedded _____.

A) proteins

B) neurotransmitters

C) chromosomes

D) ions

Q2) Saltatory conduction occurs in neurons with _____.

A) synaptic connections

B) voltage differentials

C) organic ions

D) myelin sheaths

Q3) Exocytosis is the process by which:

A) old neural cells are replaced with newly generated neurons.

B) cellular constituents are transferred from dendrites to axons of neurons.

C) proteins are taken up by neural cells from the extracellular environment.

D) proteins are released by cells into the extracellular environment.

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Chapter 4: Extension: B - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) You are working with a squid giant axon with a resting potential of -70 mV. What would the voltage change look like if (a) the axon is bathed in tetrodotoxin and (b) the axon is bathed in TEA? In both cases supra - threshold current is applied to the axon, enough to cause an action potential in a sea water-only bath.

Q2) Draw a simple diagram of a phospholipid bilayer, with "heads" and "tails" properly oriented.

Q3) Identify the main function for each of the following: mitochondria, tubules, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, and lysosomes.

Q4) Describe the phenomena of temporal and spatial summation of postsynaptic potentials.

Answer Key

Q5) Discuss the role of the semipermeable membrane in the maintenance of the resting potential in the membrane.

Q6) terminal buttons ___

A)carries information to terminal buttons

B)collects information

C)integrates information

D)sends information to another neuron

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Chapter 4: Extension: C - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) The nucleus _____.

A) regulates the materials that enter and leave the cell domain

B) is where the cell's protein products are assembled

C) is where the cell's protein blueprints are stored and copied

D) is an extension of the nuclear membrane

Q2) Which ion form is the most appropriate match for potassium ion?

A) Cl^-

B) A^-

C) Na⁺

D) K⁺

Q3) Tubules are primarily concerned with _____.

A) protein transport

B) degradation of foreign substances

C) providing energy to the cell

D) transcribing base-pair sequences from nuclear DNA

Q4) Membrane pumps exchange Na⁺ ions for _____ ions.

A) Ca²⁺

B) K⁺

C) Cl^-

D) H²⁺

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Chapter 5: Extension: A - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a class of neurotransmitter?

A) gases

B) peptides

C) small molecules

D) lipids

Q2) The excitatory effect of a neurotransmitter is caused by:

A) the chemical structure of the neurotransmitter.

B) the nature of the receptor with which it interacts.

C) the part of the brain where it is released.

D) the amount of neurotransmitter that is released.

Q3) Blockage of voltage - gated Ca²⁺ channels would be expected to:

A) stimulate neurotransmitter release.

B) inhibit neurotransmitter release.

C) inhibit the generation of nerve impulses.

D) stimulate the generation of nerve impulses.

Q4) Reuptake of a neurotransmitter is accomplished by _____.

A) the postsynaptic neuron

B) surrounding glial cells

C) nearby capillaries

D) the presynaptic neuron

Page 15

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Chapter 5: Extension: B - Communication Between Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) acetylcholine ___

A)tyrosine

B)dietary choline

C)glutamate

D)tryptophan

Q2) dopamine ___

A)tyrosine

B)dietary choline

C)glutamate

D)tryptophan

Q3) What are the three known ways that neurotransmitters are stored by presynaptic neurons?

Q4) What is the role of the serotonin neurotransmitter system in the regulation of bodily function?

Answer Key

Q5) somatostatin ___

A) if the substance is a classical neurotransmitter or B) if it is a neuroactive peptide.

Q6) Discuss the differences between classical neurotransmitters and neuropeptides. Give two examples of each.

Page 16

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Chapter 5: Extension: C - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) Dopamine is synthesized from _____.

A) tryptophan

B) tyrosine

C) glutamate

D) choline

Q2) Which neurotransmitter is used to treat Parkinson's disease?

A) histamine

B) acetylcholine

C) dopamine

D) NO

Q3) During which step of neurotransmission is a neurotransmitter transported to the presynaptic membrane?

A) inactivation

B) release

C) receptor action

D) synthesis

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Chapter 6: Extension: A - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) is an agonist of which endogenous neurotransmitter?

A) GABA

B) glutamate

C) dopamine

D) anandamide

Q2) Antipsychotic drugs are thought to exert their effects, at least in part, by blocking one type of:

A) glutamate receptor.

B) thought process.

C) dopamine receptor.

D) action potential.

Q3) A drug that increases the effectiveness of neurotransmission is called a(n): A) antagonist.

B) agonist.

C) neuromodulator.

D) stimulant.

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Chapter 6: Extension: B - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Prozac ___

A)GABA

B)serotonin

C)acetylcholine

D)dopamine

Q2) Why is it potentially dangerous to simultaneously take benzodiazepines and barbiturates?

Q3) Compare the chemical messengers and target organs of the fast and slow pathways that contribute to the stress response.

Answer Key

Q4) What are the mechanisms by which excessive glutamate release is thought to injure neurons?

Q5) Explain how activation of the GABA receptor can cause sedation.

Q6) cocaine ___

A)adenosine agonist

B)opioid agonist

C)opioid antagonist

D)dopamine agonist

Q7) What characterizes drugs that can easily reach the brain?

Q8) Identify the barriers that an injected drug must cross to reach the brain. Page 19

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Chapter 6: Extension: C - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) The drug Prozac interferes rather specifically with the reuptake of _____.

A) serotonin

B) glutamate

C) dopamine

D) acetylcholine

Q2) Which is the best description of the "wanting" part of the wanting - and - liking theory?

A) Addiction occurs because users take a drug to avoid unpleasant psychological withdrawal systems.

B) Addiction develops subconsciously as a result of conditioned learning.

C) Addiction is the result of users taking drugs that produce pleasure.

D) Addiction results from activity in the mesolimbic dopamine system.

Answer Key

Q3) Which kind of tolerance causes the body to create more enzymes to break a drug down?

A) learned

B) cellular

C) metabolic

D) desensitization

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Chapter 7: Extension: A - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) The firing frequency of human cortical neurons is within the range of:

A) 300-400 discharges per minute.

B) 75-100 discharges per minute.

C) 150-200 discharges per minute.

D) 3-10 discharges per minute.

Q2) MOST neurons respond to:

A) a wide range of sensory stimuli or behaviors.

B) a limited range of sensory stimuli or behaviors.

C) sensory stimuli but not behaviors.

D) behaviors but not sensory stimuli.

Q3) A decrease in the firing rate of a visual cortex neuron in response to a change in stimulus color can be viewed as:

A) a neural code for the new color.

B) always indicating a lack of neural processing of that new color.

C) a da Vinci code for color.

D) a typical code for impending sleep.

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Chapter 7: Extension: B - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Cormack and Hounsfield ___

A)Human Connectome Project

B)developed CT scan

C)proposed coherence theory

D)developer of EEG technique

Q2) beta rhythm ___

A)aroused state

B)relaxed state

C)drowsy state

D)deep sleep

Q3) Describe one static and one dynamic imaging method.

Q4) Toga ___

A)Human Connectome Project

B)developed CT scan

C)proposed coherence theory

D)developer of EEG technique

Q5) What are the most desired characteristics of a dynamic imaging system? Which existing technology comes closest to meeting these characteristics?

Q6) What are some theoretical limitations to data gathered via single - cell recording?

23

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Chapter 7: Extension: C - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Which is a major advantage of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?

A) It provides the highest resolution of all the imaging techniques.

B) It can image the biochemical status of the brain.

C) It provides great clarity in distinguishing between different types of brain tissue and cerebrospinal fluid.

D) It can detect relative amounts of a given neural transmitter.

Q2) Which method would be MOST practical in evaluating the depth of anesthesia?

A) MRI

B) MEG

C) EEG

D) EKG

Q3) The _____ method of brain imaging involves spinning hydrogen protons.

A) MEG

B) MRS

C) MRI

D) ERP

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Chapter 8: Extension: A - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Ian Waterman's infection left him with a loss of all _____ due to a disorder of his peripheral nerves.

A) hearing

B) vision

C) proprioception

D) sensory input

Q2) The peak of the traveling wave in the basilar membrane varies with the _____ of the sound.

A) intensity

B) location

C) frequency

D) duration

Q3) The area of the somatosensory cortex devoted to an area of the body surface is proportional to the:

A) density of sensory receptors on the area.

B) size of the area relative to the rest of the body.

C) number of somatotopic maps for that region of the body.

D) the number of relay nuclei between the body surface and cortex.

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Chapter 8: Extension: B - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Identify, in correct order, the major connections of the olfactory system from nose to cortex.

Q2) Compare stimulus frequency and intensity as used by the visual and auditory systems to create perceptions.

Q3) What role does context play in sensory perception?

Q4) nociception and proprioception ___

A)lateral geniculate nucleus

B)dorsomedial nucleus

C)ventral posteromedial nucleus

D)ventrolateral nucleus

Q5) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of the rod system and the cone system?

Q6) Why doesn't complete destruction of the geniculostriate pathway in humans leave the person completely blind?

Q7) Meissner's corpuscles ___

A)balance

B)proprioception

C)nociception

D)hapsis

Q8) What is a homunculus? Page 26

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Chapter 8: Extension: C - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) New research indicates that the experience of tasting a flavor is likely to be the result of neurons that respond:

A) to both olfaction and taste.

B) primarily to olfaction.

C) primarily to taste.

D) to both taste and the appearance of food.

Q2) Brodmann's area 41 is associated with which sense?

A) taste

B) vision

C) olfaction

D) audition

Q3) The map on which the relative sensitivity of body parts are represented by size is called:

A) a vestibular system.

B) a Müller-Lyer illusion.

C) a homunculus.

D) the central organization of sensory systems.

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Chapter 9: Extension: A - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Difficulty holding a pen to write would MOST likely result from damage to the:

A) lateral corticospinal tract.

B) ventral corticospinal tract.

C) corticobulbar tract.

D) rubrospinal tract.

Q2) Huntington's disease is a genetic disorder resulting from degeneration of:

A) dorsal columns of the spinal cord.

B) ventral columns of the spinal cord.

C) the spinocerebellar tract.

D) caudate putamen cells.

Q3) The basal ganglia receive neural inputs from two main sources. These sources are the:

A) cerebellum and thalamus.

B) neocortex and substantia nigra.

C) neocortex and cerebellum.

D) limbic cortex and thalamus.

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Chapter 9: Extension: B - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Michael Graziano ___

A)ethological categories of movement

B)cerebellum and timing of movements

C)movement direction-sensitive motor neurons

D)electrical mapping of motor cortex

Q2) Apostolos Georgopoulos ___

A)ethological categories of movement

B)cerebellum and timing of movements

C)movement direction-sensitive motor neurons

D)electrical mapping of motor cortex

Q3) In which lobes of human cerebral cortex have "mirror neurons" been found?

Q4) What patterns of ventral premotor cortical neuron activity were observed by Umilta et al. during the study of monkeys observing goal - directed movements by another monkey or human?

Q5) Keele and Ivry ___

A)ethological categories of movement

B)cerebellum and timing of movements

C)movement direction-sensitive motor neurons

D)electrical mapping of motor cortex

Q6) Compare and contrast Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease.

Page 30

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Chapter 9: Extension: C - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) The degenerative disorder associated with muscular rigidity and difficulty initiating and performing movements is called _____.

A) Parkinson's disease

B) Huntington's disease

C) Friedreich's ataxia

D) Tourette's syndrome

Q2) Axons of the _____ motor pathway cross over to the opposite side of the spinal cord at the level of the pyramids of the brainstem.

A) corticobulbar

B) ventral corticospinal

C) lateral corticospinal

D) anterior spinothalamic

Q3) The lexicon of elementary hand and mouth motor movements is contained in the _____.

A) premotor cortex

B) posterior cortex

C) primary motor cortex

D) prefrontal cortex

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Chapter 10: Extension: A - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Based upon his studies of myelin development in the cortex, Paul Flechsig suggested that myelin forms earliest in _____ cortical zones and latest in _____ cortical zones.

A) secondary; primary

B) tertiary; secondary

C) tertiary; primary

D) primary; tertiary

Q2) The ability of our brains to be changed by experience and to recover from damage is due to the quality known as:

A) plasticity.

B) mutability.

C) malleability.

D) resilience.

Q3) Which of the following behaviors or physiological abilities is not observed in lowdecerebrate animals?

A) tail lashing

B) swallowing

C) thermoregulation

D) active sleep

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Chapter 10: Extension: B - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) What is meant by the binding problem? What is a proposed solution?

Q2) Distinguish between decortication and low decerebration, in terms of the brain level of disconnection and typical behavioral differences.

Q3) Distinguish between voluntary and automatic behaviors in terms of the level of the brain necessary for their production. Give two examples of each.

Q4) Luria

A)cortical stimulation

B)hierarchical model

C)cortical maps

D)cortical modules

Q5) stripes ___

A)color perception in V1

B)whisker (vibrissa) perception

C)ocular dominance

D)visual perception in V2

Q6) What are cortical blobs? What are cortical barrels?

Q7) Name the functional characteristics of the inputs to each of the six neocortical layers.

Q8) Describe a cortical column or module. Page 33

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Chapter 10: Extension: C - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) "Blobs" in the cerebral cortex have a role in _____.

A) color perception

B) visual tracking

C) the location of visual objects

D) achromatic contrast processing

Q2) The _____ is critically important in maintaining bodily homeostasis.

A) spinal cord

B) thalamus

C) hypothalamus

D) frontal cortex

Q3) Behavioral changes similar to those of people who enter a persistent vegetative state (PVS) are also seen in _____ animals.

A) decorticate

B) low-decerebrate

C) high-decerebrate

D) diencephalic None of these answers is correct.

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Chapter 11: Extension: A - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) In intact individuals, hemispheric differences in cognitive ability can be detected by measuring:

A) differences in processing efficiency.

B) self-reports of cognitive strategies.

C) galvanic skin response.

D) differences in processing efficiency, self-reports of cognitive strategies, and galvanic skin response.

Q2) The identification of melodies shows _____ in a dichotic listening task.

A) a frontal lobe advantage

B) a right-ear advantage

C) a left-ear advantage

D) no advantage due to either ear

Q3) Surgical deconnection of the two cerebral hemispheres by cutting the corpus callosum (and other commissures) is a "last resort" treatment for _____.

A) schizophrenia

B) epilepsy

C) aphasia

D) multiple sclerosis

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Chapter 11: Extension: B - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Wilder Penfield and George Ojemann ___

A)planum temporale asymmetry

B)behavior of commissurotomy patients

C)brain stimulation of conscious patients

D)auditory system asymmetry

Q2) Your patient has a left temporal lobectomy as a result of an operation for cancer. On what IQ and other tests do you expect to see a deterioration in postoperative scores?

Q3) What is the basis for Robert Efron's skepticism on the usefulness of laterality research?

Q4) Describe the dichotic - listening task and at least two stimulus categories that tend to show a right - ear advantage in in this task and two stimulus categories that tend to show a left - ear advantage in this task.

Q5) Lenneberg and Kimura ___

A)interaction model

B)preferred cognitive mode model

C)specialization model

Q6) Using an example from the text or lecture, and describe a double dissociation of function.

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Chapter 11: Extension: C - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) In which of the following is there usually a left - ear advantage?

A) rhythm perception

B) understanding backward speech

C) complex pitch perception

D) Morse code perception

Q2) In order to present a visual stimulus to only the left hemisphere of a split - brain patient, the stimulus must be presented to the:

A) left eye only.

B) right eye only.

C) left visual field only.

D) right visual field only.

Q3) When measuring language lateralization, how do the results of dichotic - listening tasks differ from the results of brain stimulation in right - handed subjects?

A) Dichotic listening shows a higher rate of left lateralization.

B) Brain stimulation shows a higher rate of left lateralization.

C) Brain stimulation is more closely matched to the results of anatomical studies.

D) There is no difference in the results reported.

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Chapter 12: Extension: A - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Anatomical asymmetries, including those of the brain:

A) are present before birth.

B) emerge at puberty.

C) emerge in adulthood.

D) decrease during development.

Answer Key

Q2) If Sugishita is correct, left - hemisphere injury affects:

A) kanji more than kana.

B) kana more than kanji.

C) both types of letters equally.

D) the system learned earliest in life.

Q3) Females show greater sensitivity to sensory stimuli, with the exception of: A) smell.

B) taste.

C) vision.

D) pain.

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Chapter 12: Extension: B - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Briefly describe some behavioral tests that reliably distinguish between males and females.

Q2) Explain how Annett's theory of handedness predicts that the population consists of 12.5% left - handed people.

Q3) What explanations have been offered for the apparent anomalies in the cerebral lateralization of Genie?

Q4) What is the relationship between anatomical asymmetry, handedness, and language lateralization?

Q5) At least five cognitive abilities show sex - related differences. Name four.

Q6) What explanations may account for the larger cross - sectional areas of the corpus callosum in left - handed individuals?

Q7) better computational ability ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q8) verbal impairment following left - hemisphere lesions ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

Q9) What is the significance of a larger corpus callosum for cerebral asymmetry?

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Chapter 12: Extension: C - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Which variables have been related to the size of the corpus callosum?

A) handedness and sex

B) IQ and foot size

C) height and head circumference

D) education level and culture

Q2) Which is true for men when compared with women?

A) larger lateral frontal areas

B) greater relative amounts of gray matter

C) more densely packed neurons in the temporal lobe

D) a larger cingulate cortex area

Q3) In Japanese speakers, kanji and kana are:

A) affected equally by left-hemisphere injury.

B) unaffected by left-hemisphere injury if the person also speaks another language.

C) differentially affected, kana much more than kanji, by left-hemisphere damage.

D) differentially affected, kanji much more than kana, by left-hemisphere damage.

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Chapter 13: Extension: A - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) The superior temporal sulcus is characterized by significant numbers of _____ neurons.

A) polysensory

B) color-coding

C) movement-sensitive

D) depth-perception

Q2) Milner and Goodale base some of their model of vision beyond the occipital lobe on the finding in monkeys that many neurons in the posterior parietal lobe respond to visual stimuli only if _____.

A) the monkey reaches for the stimulus

B) the stimulus is moving

C) the stimulus is meaningful to the monkey

D) the stimulus is brightly colored

Q3) Neurons in the _____ sulcus are active during the perception of biologically relevant motion.

A) rhinal

B) posterolateral

C) inferior temporal

D) superior temporal

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Chapter 13: Extension: B - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) V3 ___

A)required for "dynamic form" perception

B)required for conscious vision

C)required for color perception

D)required for motion perception

Q2) Distinguish between apperceptive agnosia and associative agnosia.

Q3) simultagnosia ___

A)inability to recognize faces

B)inability to recognize objects

C)inability to see more than one object at a time

D)inability to see due to naturally occurring lack of photoreceptors

Q4) small scotoma ___

A)one optic nerve

B)medial visual cortex

C)one optic tract

D)optic chiasm

Q5) Describe how the behavioral deficits particular to subjects V.K. and D.F. exemplify a double dissociation of visual system function.

Q6) Distinguish between allocentric space and egocentric space.

Q7) How do neurologists measure the size and location of a possible field defect?

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Chapter 13: Extension: C - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) Which visual function is a function of the dorsal stream regions?

A) body analysis

B) object-directed grasping

C) analysis of landmarks

D) analysis of biological motion

Q2) Destruction of one optic nerve will produce _____.

A) scotoma

B) monocular blindness

C) homonymous hemianopia

D) bitemporal hemianopia

Q3) Apperceptive agnosia is usually related to damage in the _____.

A) lateral occipital lobes

B) bilateral calcarine fissure

C) lateral geniculate nucleus

D) anterior temporal lobe

Answer Key

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Chapter 14: Extension: A - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) The ability to voluntarily direct one's gaze to select environmental stimuli depends on connections between the _____ and the _____.

A) posterior parietal cortex; fusiform gyrus

B) primary motor cortex; anterior parietal cortex

C) frontal eye fields; anterior parietal cortex

D) frontal eye fields; posterior parietal cortex

Q2) Contralateral neglect is MOST likely a result of impaired:

A) working memory.

B) object recognition.

C) attention to one side of space.

D) behavioral inhibition.

Q3) The ability to perform complex mental transformations such as object rotation, at least in males, varies with the:

A) organization of gray matter in the anterior parietal cortex.

B) organization of white matter in the posterior parietal cortex.

C) organization of gray matter in the posterior parietal cortex.

D) capacity of working memory.

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Chapter 14: Extension: B - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) simultaneous extinction ___

A)indifference to illness

B)ability to point to touched area despite lack of conscious perception of the touch

C)finger clumsiness due to lost sensory feedback

D)failure to perceive one of two similar stimuli presented simultaneously

Q2) lateral fissure ___

A)greatly expanded in the human brain

B)anterior zone of parietal lobe

C)secondary somatosensory cortex

D)ventral border of the lateral parietal lobe

Q3) Describe the activity of neurons in the posterior parietal lobe of monkeys in response to stationary visual stimuli with and without reaching and with and without attentional focus on the stimulus.

Q4) How would you describe the functions of the posterior zone of the parietal lobe in humans? Give an example from everyday life.

Q5) Describe at least four cognitive deficits which are more likely to occur with right parietal damage than with left parietal damage.

Answer Key

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Chapter 14: Extension: C - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) Which is NOT one of the classic symptoms of Gerstmann syndrome?

A) finger agnosia

B) apraxia

C) agraphia

D) acalculia

Q2) A patient shaves only one side of his face, reads only half of compound words, and dresses and uses only half of his body. Collectively, this patient is exhibiting symptoms of _____.

A) topographic disability

B) anosagnosia

C) constructional apraxia

D) contralateral neglect

Q3) Which is NOT one of the symptoms associated with Balint's syndrome?

A) the inability to fixate on specific visual stimuli

B) the field of attention being limited to one object at a time

C) the inability to name colors

D) the inability to make visually guided movements

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Chapter 15: Extension: A - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) Individual speech sounds are composed of characteristic groups of frequencies known as:

A) phonemes.

B) spectrograms

C) formants.

D) morphemes.

Q2) The anterior commissure connects the _____ of the right and left hemispheres.

A) lateral temporal areas

B) medial temporal areas

C) occipital areas

D) cingulate areas

Q3) Gustatory cortex and auditory association cortex are both located in the area of cortex known as the:

A) temporal insula.

B) superior temporal sulcus.

C) frontal operculum.

D) inferotemporal region.

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Chapter 15: Extension: B - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) List five of the principal symptoms associated with temporal - lobe dysfunction and the hemisphere with which the symptom is specifically associated.

Q2) Your patient has a lesion of the left temporal lobe and complains that people "talk too fast." Explain.

Q3) Distinguish between spectral pitch and fundamental pitch, functionally and anatomically.

Q4) perception of facial features_____

A)parahippocampal place area

B)Heschl's gyrus

C)fusiform gyrus

D)Heschl's gyrus.

Q5) impaired visual perception ___

A)hippocampus, both hemispheres

B)Brodmann's area 41, right hemisphere

C)Brodmann's area 42, left hemisphere

D)Brodmann's area 37, both hemispheres

Q6) Identify five standard clinical neuropsychological tests for temporal lobe damage and the cognitive functions they are intended to evaluate.

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Chapter 15: Extension: C - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) The perception of emotional significance of stimuli appears to depend on the integrity of the _____.

A) hippocampus

B) insula

C) amygdala

D) superior temporal gyrus

Q2) Which area in the temporal lobe is responsible for cross - modal matching, the ability to associate stimuli from two or more sensory modalities as emanating from the same source (e.g., the physical appearance of a dog and the sound of its bark)?

A) TE

B) area 41

C) Wernicke's area

D) the superior temporal sulcus

Q3) The perforant pathway is a set of projections that lead from _____ and are crucial to the proper functioning of learning and memory.

A) Heschl's gyrus

B) Brodmann's area 41

C) the hippocampus

D) the amygdala

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Page 50

Chapter 16: Extension: A - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) The broad ability to implement appropriate behavioral strategies in response to internal and external cues is known as:

A) supervisory function.

B) working memory.

C) executive function.

D) reasoning ability.

Q2) Which of the following regions of the frontal cortex is characterized by the presence of multimodal neurons?

A) area 46

B) area 4

C) area 11

D) area 10

Q3) For which of the following are you MOST likely to engage your prefrontal cortex?

A) auditory processing of words

B) successfully hitting a pitched fastball

C) plotting a chess move

D) moving a chess pawn forward

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Chapter 16: Extension: B - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) Name four cognitive skills impaired by dorsolateral frontal cortex damage.

Q2) Define the following terms: prefrontal cortex, frontal eye fields, corollary discharge. How are the last two related?

Q3) Relate the effects of frontal - lobe lesions on the Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test (WCST) to the effects of such lesions on social behavior.

Q4) What are two possible interpretations of Passingham's findings concerning area 46 lesions in monkeys?

Q5) Describe some data which suggest that the frontal cortex is important in shortterm memory.

Q6) Compare and contrast the effects of temporal and frontal lobe lesions on tests of recency memory.

Q7) Just as you are about to complain to a friend about the unjustly bad grade you received on a recent exam, you recognize your professor approaching. You manage to smile and withhold your angry comments until he passes out of earshot. Describe the brain regions and their respective functions likely to have been particularly involved in helping you to avoid this potentially embarrassing social situation.

Q8) What is the "problem" for which the concept of corollary discharge is the "answer"?

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Chapter 16: Extension: C - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) The Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test is MOST appropriate to evaluate _____.

A) behavioral spontaneity

B) convergent thinking

C) response inhibition

D) memory

Q2) The term "corollary discharge" explains which frontal lobe phenomenon?

A) that we do not perceive movement in the environment when we move our eyes

B) that the right and left supplementary motor areas work antagonistically

C) the increased activity in the right prefrontal area in response to speech generation

D) the decrease in activation of the visual frontal cortex when auditory stimuli are received

Q3) Disturbances in _____ typically occur only after bilateral frontal - lobe damage.

A) verbal fluency

B) time orientation

C) understanding proverbs

D) verbal learning

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Chapter 17: Extension: A - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) A subject with damage to the anterior commissure would be impaired on a task examining interhemispheric transfer of:

A) visual stimuli.

B) tactile stimuli.

C) vestibular stimuli.

D) olfactory stimuli.

Q2) Imaging studies of subject M.C. have shown that, following callosotomy, there is _____ to the site of sensory stimulation.

A) increased neural activity ipsilateral

B) increased neural activity contralateral

C) decreased neural activity ipsilateral

D) decreased neural activity contralateral

Q3) The only sensory system whose afferent fibers do NOT cross is:

A) the olfactory system.

B) the auditory system.

C) the somatosensory system.

D) the vestibular system.

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Chapter 17: Extension: B - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) alexia ___

A)lack of sense of smell

B)inability to make coordinated voluntary movements

C)difficulty copying geometric designs

D)inability to read

Q2) apraxia ___

A)lack of sense of smell

B)inability to make coordinated voluntary movements

C)difficulty copying geometric designs

D)inability to read

Q3) Speculate in an informed manner as to why the corpus callosum evolved. (Not all mammals have one, by the way-marsupials do not have a corpus callosum.)

Q4) What is meant by the term topographic with respect to callosal organization?

Q5) Explain why a split - brain patient will have difficulty copying a geometric design with his right hand.

Q6) Why do the authors suggest that disconnection hypotheses are applicable in brain dysfunction?

Q8) What is the "zipper hypothesis"? Page 55

Q7) Identify the three major types of fiber pathways found in the neocortex.

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Chapter 17: Extension: C - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) Preilowski (1975) performed an experiment in which he required commissurized patients to draw a diagonal line using the popular children's toy Etch A Sketch. What was being tested in this experiment?

A) artistic abilities

B) the ability to use both hands in concert

C) divergent thinking

D) spatial abilities

Q2) The incidence rate of agenesis of the corpus callosum is:

A) 1 per 100,000.

B) 5 per 1000.

C) 5 per 100,000.

D) 1 per 1000.

Q3) Which is true of information processed during dichotic - listening experiments?

A) Information presented to the right ear is preferred.

B) Only language information can cross over via the corpus callosum.

C) Non-native English speakers show a preference for content words.

D) The removal of all hemispheric commissures leads to an inability to process multiple inputs.

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Chapter 18: Extension: A - Learning and Memory

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Q1) An amnesic subject who earnestly tells stories about his past that are demonstrably untrue is showing the symptom known as:

A) fugue state.

B) anterograde amnesia.

C) confabulation.

D) reconsolidation.

Q2) Memory impairments associated with retrograde amnesia following traumatic brain injury are:

A) more pronounced for older memories than for newer memories.

B) more pronounced for newer memories than for older memories.

C) the same regardless of the age of the memory.

D) greatest for information learned after the point of injury.

Q3) Memory impairments observed in amnesic individuals are MOST commonly observed in the domain of:

A) classical conditioning.

B) perceptual priming.

C) skills memory.

D) declarative memory.

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Chapter 18: Extension: B - Learning and Memory

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Q1) hippocampus ___

A)episodic memory

B)confabulation

C)emotional coloring

D)recognition memory

Q2) perirhinal cortex ___

A)episodic memory

B)confabulation

C)emotional coloring

D)recognition memory

Q3) Within the proposed anatomical model for explicit memory, different components may have different roles. Comment on the possible roles in explicit memory for each of the following: the amygdala, hippocampus, and perirhinal cortex.

Q4) perforant path ___

A)location of granule cells

B)neocortex-hippocampus pathway

C)location of pyramidal cells

D)hippocampus-thalamus pathway

Q5) What is the evidence for a neural mechanism for working memory in the frontal cortex?

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Chapter 18: Extension: C - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Which is NOT a part of explicit memory functioning?

A) semantic memory

B) bottom-up processing

C) intentional remembering

D) episodic memory

Q2) Which question would be most difficult for H.M. to answer correctly?

A) What was your mother's maiden name?

B) How many days are there in 3 weeks?

C) Did you have any visitors the day before yesterday?

D) What is the sum of 6 plus 12?

Q3) According to Tulving, autonoetic awareness-which is compromised with some types of frontal lobe damage-is best described as consciousness of:

A) one's own spatial location.

B) the functioning of one's sympathetic nervous system.

C) oneself as a continuous entity through time.

D) each of the distinct sensory experiences that are part of somatosensation.

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Chapter 19: Extension: A - Language

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Q1) An alternative hypothesis for fluent aphasia posited by Dronkers and colleagues suggests that the role of the cortex of Wernicke's area is:

A) long-term memory for semantic categories.

B) identical to that of Broca's area.

C) short-term memory for mouth movements.

D) short-term memory for speech sounds.

Q2) The most appropriate diagnosis for a 10 - year - old child who continually makes mistakes in reading aloud, such that semantically related words are substituted for the printed word (e.g., "puppy" is read as "dog" and "woman" is read as "mother"), would be:

A) attentional dyslexia.

B) word aphasia.

C) phonological dyslexia.

D) deep dyslexia.

Q3) Language is a combination of the following four abilities:

A) categorization, mimicry, sequencing behavior, and theory of mind.

B) sequencing behavior, categorization, mimicry, and category labeling.

C) prosody, sequencing behavior, mimicry, and object recognition.

D) object recognition, mimicry, sequencing behavior, and self-awareness.

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Chapter 19: Extension: B - Language

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Q1) Describe the model - building approach to understanding reading deficits and how it differs from more typical neurological approaches.

Q2) How do PET scan studies on word generation differ from the Wernicke-Geschwind model of language production?

Q3) Discuss theories of language evolution that emphasize changes to the vocal tract with those that focus on the brain.

Q4) How does the dual - route theory account for deep and surface dyslexia subtypes?

Answer Key

Q5) anarthria ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

Q6) Describe how the evolution of the vocal tract has resulted in a much greater ability on the part of humans, compared with apes, to produce speech sounds.

Q7) Explain the simplicity of the Wernicke - Geschwind model?

Q8) The fMRI studies of Binder and coworkers found four general brain regions activated by words. What are these?

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Chapter 19: Extension: C - Language

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Q1) Which is the name given to the developmental language disorder that can be described in the following way? When one letter is present, letter naming is normal. When more than one letter is present, letter naming is difficult. Even if a letter is specially colored, underlined, has an arrow pointing to it, and is pointed to by the tester, it may be named incorrectly when it is not alone.

A) deep dyslexia

B) attentional dyslexia

C) phonological dyslexia

D) surface dyslexia

Q2) _____ may refer to a disorder of language apparent in speech, in writing (in this case also called _____), or in reading (also called _____), produced by injury to brain areas specialized for these functions.

A) Dysthymia; dyslexia; Wernicke's syndrome

B) Aphasia; agraphia; alexia

C) Agnosia; prosopagnosia; global aphasia

D) Akinetopsia; achromatopsia; dyslexia

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Chapter 20: Extension: A - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) The first major theory in the neurology of emotions was that of:

A) Klüver and Bucy.

B) Hess.

C) Papez.

D) Olds.

Q2) Which of the following was NOT part of the original Klüver - Bucy syndrome?

A) sham rage

B) hypermetamorphosis

C) visual agnosia

D) increased sexual behavior

Q3) Social cognition includes the human ability to be aware of whom we are (selfawareness). Imaging and patient data provide evidence that the _____ network mediates this function.

A) right temporal-occipital network

B) left temporal-occipital network

C) left frontoparietal network

D) right frontoparietal network

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Chapter 20: Extension: B - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) What is sensory aprosodia? What is motor aprosodia?

Q2) Contrast Damasio's somatic marker hypothesis with LeDoux's cognitive-emotional interaction theory.

Q3) Bard ___

A)emotions relation to logical thinking

B)rage responses in decorticate dogs

C)behavioral effects of hypothalamic stimulation in cats

D)behavioral effects of temporal lobe lesions in monkeys

Q4) Present evidence that the right hemisphere is differently involved in emotional processes than is the left in humans.

Q5) Describe the four behavioral components of emotion, as described by the text.

Q6) If you were a neuropsychologist studying emotion in rats, what behaviors or responses would you measure? (Or answer the same question using monkeys, humans, or any other plausible species.)

Q7) Guido Gainotti ___

A)cognitive-emotional interaction theory

B)cognitive asymmetry of emotion

C)somatic marker hypothesis

D)left-hemisphere cognitive interpreter

Page 65

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Chapter 20: Extension: C - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) According to Ross, which type of aprosodia is marked by deficits in interpreting the emotional components of language?

A) sensory

B) conduction

C) mixed transcortical

D) anomic

Q2) Hypergraphia, hypermoralism, and sense of personal destiny are all characteristics of _____.

A) frontal lobe lesions

B) the "temporal lobe" personality

C) the catastrophic reaction of left-hemisphere damage

D) paranoid schizophrenia

Q3) According to contemporary views, to add one structure to the original idea of Papez, which brain structure should be included in the "limbic system"?

A) the cingulate cortex

B) the amygdala

C) the pineal gland

D) the mammillary nucleus

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Chapter 21: Extension: A - Spatial Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Our capacity to successfully navigate from one place in our environment to another depends on the ability known as:

A) topographic memory.

B) topographic agnosia.

C) egocentric memory.

D) cognitive cartography.

Q2) Females with Turner's syndrome do not produce ______ and have ______.

A) gonadal hormones; impaired spatial abilities

B) stress hormones; impaired spatial abilities

C) gonadal hormones; enhanced spatial abilities

D) stress hormones; enhanced spatial abilities

Answer Key

Q3) A neuron that reliably reacts with a burst of activity whenever a rat is near the response lever in its test cage would be classified as a:

A) place cell.

B) head-direction cell.

C) reward-location cell.

D) grid cell.

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Chapter 21: Extension: B - Spatial Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the reported interaction between reasoning skills and sex on the performance of tasks requiring spatial skills.

Q2) Discuss the role of the frontal lobe in spatial discriminations.

Q3) How do Turner's syndrome individuals perform on spatial tasks (on average)? What may account for their performance?

Answer Key

Q4) Discuss the role of the parietal lobe in spatial discriminations.

Q5) Bálint ___

A)head-direction cells

B)parietal lobe role in spatial memory

C)frontal lobe role in spatial memory

D)hippocampal place cells

Q6) Goldman - Rakic ___

A)head-direction cells

B)parietal lobe role in spatial memory

C)frontal lobe role in spatial memory

D)hippocampal place cells

Q7) What evidence exists that the role of the hippocampus in spatial navigation should be interpreted in the broader context of its role in memory?

68

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Chapter 21: Extension: C - Spatial Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Moving toward a cue or object (route following) is also called:

A) head direction.

B) cue learning.

C) GPS navigation.

D) topographic learning.

Q2) The studies conducted on food caching in birds demonstrates that:

A) birds with frontal lobe lesions show no difficulty in finding the seeds that they have cached.

B) African and Asian birds are more likely to use dead reckoning to find their cache sites.

C) birds who cache seeds have a larger hippocampus.

D) testosterone is crucial to producing birdsong and also to remembering cache sites.

Q3) Research by Maguire and others suggests that females are more likely to use _____ in navigation than are males.

A) common sense

B) landmarks

C) dead reckoning

D) compasses

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69

Chapter 22: Extension: A - Attention and Consciousness

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Sample Questions

Q1) Attentional Blink is a phenomenon characterized by the individual failing to detect a second visual stimulus that is presented _____ milliseconds after the first stimulus.

A) 250

B) 500

C) 750

D) 100

Q2) In Treisman's theory, a stimulus is broken down into separate feature maps after it is initially registered in area:

A) V1.

B) V3.

C) V4.

D) V5.

Q3) In Treisman's theory, automaticity is most closely associated with the concept of: A) attention.

B) memory.

C) bottom-up processing.

D) top-down processing.

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Chapter 22: Extension: B - Attention and Consciousness

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Sample Questions

Q1) attention to shape

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q2) Regarding the cerebral source of consciousness, discuss which brain regions have been identified as crucial to conscious behavior.

Q3) What evidence did Jeannerod and colleagues find regarding the dissociation between behavior and awareness?

Q4) divided attention___

A)Treisman

B)Moran and Desimone

C)Kahneman

D)Posner and Petersen

Q5) What brain regions would you expect to be particularly active in a PET scan during a task in which the attended stimulus is presented in the left visual field only?

Q6) Which processes are critical for consciousness?

Q7) Distinguish between frontal lobe neglect and parietal lobe neglect.

Page 71

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Chapter 22: Extension: C - Attention and Consciousness

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Sample Questions

Q1) "Pop - out" stimuli are associated with which type of visual system search?

A) conjunction

B) top-down

C) memorial

D) feature

Q2) Sensory neglect is a disorder that involves lesions to which brain region?

A) the right parietal cortex

B) the right temporal cortex

C) the right prefrontal cortex

D) the right visual cortex

Q3) Regarding attention, an example of an automatic process would be:

A) driving a five-speed (automatic shift) car

B) searching for a street sign

C) learning to play piano by ear

D) learning to read braille

Q4) Serial processing is used by subjects for _____.

A) "pop-out" searches in visual arrays

B) conjunction searches

C) detecting sad faces

D) searching for particular combinations of sensory information.

Page 72

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Chapter 23: Extension: A - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) In humans, synaptic density is greatest at about age:

A) 2 months.

B) 12 months.

C) 6 years.

D) 16 years.

Q2) The number of synapses in the human cerebral cortex is approximately:

A) 10⁸.

B) 10¹⁰.

C) 10¹².

D) 10¹⁴.

Q3) Myelination of the human cortex continues until about _____ years of age.

A) 6

B) 10

C) 12

D) 18

Q4) Some cortical areas are myelinated as early as age:

A) 3 months.

B) 18 months.

C) 3 years.

D) 6 years.

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Chapter 23: Extension: B - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) How is the adolescent brain different from that of a child and that of an adult?

Q2) heterotopia ___

A)aborted cell migration of gray matter

B)absence of cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, and midbrain

C)failure to form sulci and gyri

D)single undifferentiated hemisphere

Q3) What are three ways to examine the relationship between neural function and behavioral changes in development? Make sure to mention potential advantages and/or disadvantages of each.

Q4) What are Piaget's four stages of cognitive development? Briefly characterize each stage.

Q5) Why is cell death such an important part of the development of the brain?

Q6) What evidence from rats indicates that pregnant mothers should have access to stimulating environments?

Q7) What brain abnormalities have been found in children with schizophrenia?

Q8) Hubel and Wiesel ___

A)speech lateralization

B)ocular dominance columns

C)myelination index

D)cognitive development

Page 74

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Chapter 23: Extension: C - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is the last to occur in the development of the brain?

A) cell maturation

B) cell migration

C) synaptogenesis

D) myelogenesis

Q2) When comparing right - hemisphere lesions that occur before age 1 with those that occur between ages 1 and 5, which is TRUE?

A) The younger children show more impaired verbal and performance IQ.

B) The younger children show less impaired verbal and performance IQ.

C) The younger children show more impaired verbal IQ but less impaired performance IQ.

D) The younger children show more impaired performance IQ but less impaired verbal IQ.

Q3) Which disorder is LEAST likely to be seen following left - hemisphere lesions in childhood?

A) acalculia

B) writing disorders

C) mutism

D) articulatory disorders

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Page 75

Chapter 24: Extension: A - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) CSF is made by the:

A) choroid plexus.

B) foramina of Magendie.

C) fourth ventricle.

D) ventral hypothalamus.

Q2) Many more boys than girls are diagnosed as having:

A) cerebral palsy.

B) ADHD

C) hydrocephalus.

D) acquired dyslexia

Q3) Because reading is central to success in school _____ is central to the study of neurodevelopmental disorders.

A) strephosymbolia

B) dyslexia

C) learning disabilities

D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

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Chapter 24: Extension: B - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) How is attention - deficit/hyperactivity disorder distinguished from other types of learning disabilities?

Q2) hyperlexia ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q3) autism ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q4) Tallal ___

A)sluggish attention shifting

B)deficiency in phonemic awareness

C)too rapid presentation of sounds

D)cerebral palsy

Q5) What are some early signs that a child may have an autism spectrum disorder?

Q6) What does the research of Tallal suggest is a leading cause of learning disabilities?

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Chapter 24: Extension: C - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Boys are NOT diagnosed more with _____ than girls.

A) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

B) fragile-X syndrome

C) autism

D) acquired dyslexia

Q2) Asperger's syndrome is a milder form of _____.

A) hyperactivity

B) Down syndrome

C) autism

D) hyperlexia

Q3) _____ is a term describing unusual reading ability in otherwise cognitively impaired persons, such as children with autism.

A) Hypsography

B) Hyperlexia

C) Hypergraphia

D) Hypolexia

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Chapter 25: Extension: A - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of

the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) Kindling has been demonstrated to occur in the:

A) hippocampus.

B) cerebellum.

C) pulvinar nucleus.

D) forebrain.

Q2) The work of Nudo and colleagues underscores the importance of _____ in recovery from brain damage.

A) the use of affected body parts

B) edema-reducing drugs

C) equipotentiality

D) preventing spinal shock

Q3) Which is NOT part of the sequence of recovery from motor - cortex damage over a period of days or weeks?

A) return of reflexes

B) development of rigidity

C) functional improvement of the primary sensorimotor cortex

D) development of voluntary grasping

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Page 79

Chapter 25: Extension: B - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) The authors list four major therapeutic approaches to brain damage. What are they?

Q2) What is the relationship between the complexity of behavioral function and the complexity of dendritic arborization associated with that function? Give an example.

Q3) What is the sequence of recovery (four stages) seen by Twitchell in braindamaged patients?

Q4) What evidence is there that the response to adapting prisms causes actual synaptic changes in the brain?

Q5) What evidence is there that sensory maps can be modified by experience?

Q6) What is the relationship between neuronal cell complexity and the computational demands on the cell?

Q7) What is LTP?

Q8) What is the relationship between age at time of brain injury and recovery? What is disheartening about Teuber's analysis of this relationship?

Q9) Your patient is a well - educated woman of forty - five. She experienced a lefthemisphere stroke three weeks ago that has caused moderate aphasia. What is your counsel for your patient and her family?

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Chapter 25: Extension: C - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the development of persistent seizure activity after repeated exposure to an initially subconvulsant stimulus?

A) focal hand dystonia

B) long-term potentiation

C) taste aversion learning

D) kindling

Q2) Which would be a case of complete recovery rather than compensation?

A) a patient with hemianopia who redirects his gaze so that visual stimuli fall in the unaffected part of his visual field

B) an infant whose language functions are lateralized to the right hemisphere, at a cost to right-hemisphere function

C) a cat that is able to regain prior levels of agility following the amputation of a leg

D) a posttrauma head-injury patient who no longer demonstrates sensitivity to bright lights, numbness of the body, or speech difficulty

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Chapter 26: Extension: A - Neurological Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Incidence of traumatic brain injury is highest among:

A) older females.

B) younger females.

C) older males.

D) younger males.

Q2) The corpus callosum is particularly vulnerable to damage following:

A) migraine stroke.

B) open-head trauma.

C) closed-head trauma.

D) embolism

Q3) Myasthenia gravis is due to an insufficiency of:

A) acetylcholine receptors.

B) cholinesterase.

C) immune system cells.

D) dopamine.

Q4) A feeling or sensation that a seizure is about to take place is called a(n):

A) symptomatic seizure.

B) idiopathic seizure.

C) aura.

D) automatism.

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Chapter 26: Extension: B - Neurological Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identify the types of secondary - brain injury that can occur with closed - head injuries.

Q2) Babinski sign ___

A)unilateral section of spinal cord

B)not breathing during sleep

C)extensor plantar response

D)emotional excitement

Q3) What is myasthenia gravis? What causes it, and what can be done about it?

Q4) Define the following: glioma, meningioma, and glioblastoma. Discuss them in terms of malignancy.

Q5) sleep apnea ___

A)unilateral section of spinal cord

B)not breathing during sleep

C)extensor plantar response

D)emotional excitement

Q6) Distinguish among the following: sleep attacks, cataplexy, and sleep paralysis.

Q7) What does the term "contrecoup" mean?

Q8) Identify the types of primary - brain injury that can occur with closed - head injuries.

Q9) What is the difference between an angioma and an aneurysm?

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Chapter 26: Extension: C - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) Slow, involuntary facial movements that often occur with long - term treatment with antipsychotic drugs are called _____.

A) athetosis

B) tardive dyskinesia

C) chorea

D) ataxia

Q2) A clot or other plug that is brought through the blood to a point where it blocks a smaller blood vessel is called an _____.

A) embolism

B) aneurysm

C) infarct

D) ischemia

Q3) The Brown - Séquard syndrome is indicative of _____.

A) frontal-lobe injury

B) viral brain infection

C) demyelination of pyramidal tracts

D) unilateral spinal cord damage

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84

Chapter 27: Extension: A - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following disorders is NOT classified as a mood disorder?

A) depression

B) bipolar disorder

C) mania

D) obsessive-compulsive disorder

Q2) On a variety of grounds, it is suspected that the memory loss that marks the earlier stages of Alzheimer's disease is associated with degenerative changes in the:

A) entorhinal cortex.

B) frontal lobes.

C) pyramidal cells of the neocortex.

D) substantia nigra.

Q3) Evidence regarding disorganization of the brain in schizophrenics lends support to the concept of schizophrenia as a(n) _____ disorder.

A) incurable

B) childhood

C) mental

D) developmental

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Chapter 27: Extension: B - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) What are the symptoms and underlying brain changes in Huntington's chorea?

Q2) Camilla is a 30 - year - old woman who is highly intelligent, gainfully employed, and has Tourette's syndrome. What are some difficulties she may face in going about her day as a result of her disorder?

Q3) Since both schizophrenia and Tourette's syndrome respond to dopamine blockers to some degree, how would you, as a neuropsychologist, make the differential diagnosis on a 14 - year - old child showing bizarre behavioral symptoms?

Q4) Cite the pharmacological evidence in support of a "dopamine theory" of schizophrenia.

Q5) According to the textbook, what three factors make the sensitization model of bipolar disorder intriguing for understanding bipolar disorder?

Q6) autosomal dominant allele ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q7) Distinguish between type I and type II schizophrenia, according to the text.

Q8) What are the five putative causes of Alzheimer's disease, based on the text?

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Chapter 27: Extension: C - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Schizophrenia and Huntington's disease are both thought to involve abnormalities in the _____ - secreting systems of the brain.

A) acetylcholine

B) glutamate

C) GABA

D) dopamine

Q2) Parkinson's disease is the result of the degeneration of the _____.

A) orbital frontal cortex

B) hippocampus

C) substantia nigra

D) premotor cortex

Q3) Neuritic plaques are one of the brain entities found in _____ disease.

A) Alzheimer's disease

B) Huntington's disease

C) Wilson's disease

D) Tourette's syndrome

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Chapter 28: Extension: A - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) Which of the following is a computerized neuropsychological test battery?

A) Boston Process

B) Halstead-Reitan

C) CANTAB

D) Luria-Nebraska

Q2) The mean IQ score on the FSIQ is:

A)50.

B)80.

C)100.

D)120.

Q3) Prior to the development of brain imaging tests such as MRI and PET, neuropsychologists relied primarily on _____ to provide information regarding localization of cerebral damage.

A) formal tests such as the Halstead-Wepman Aphasia Screening Test

B) behavioral tests

C) x-rays of the skull

D) cognitive assessments

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Chapter 28: Extension: B - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) language ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q2) Identify four of the tests for memory functions in the Boston Process Approach.

Q3) In the Boston Process Approach to neuropsychological testing, what tests are used to evaluate self - control and motor functions?

Q4) memory functions ___

A)Proteus Maze Test

B)Rey Complex-Figure Test

C)automobile puzzle

D)Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q5) academic skills ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q6) Why is neuropsychological testing particularly useful in cases of closed - head injuries?

89

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Chapter 28: Extension: C - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) The MOST sensitive measure of malingering is the _____.

A) Forced Choice Digit Memory Test

B) Wechsler Memory Scale III

C) Stroop Test

D) Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q2) Identify the methodology MOST commonly used to evaluate a patient for epilepsy.

A) MRI

B) EEG

C) CT

D) CANTAB

Q3) The authors suggest that the biggest change in neuropsychology since the 1980s has been the development of _____.

A) better psychiatric drugs

B) functional imaging

C) better paper-and-pencil tests

D) increased treatment of those suffering from psychological disorders.

Q4) Warrington and her colleagues found that lesions of the _____ hemisphere depress verbal IQs.

A) left

B) right

Page 90

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