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Psychology of Emotion explores the scientific understanding of emotional processes, examining how emotions are generated, expressed, and regulated across different contexts and cultures. The course delves into major theories of emotion, physiological and neurological bases, and the role of emotion in cognition, decision making, mental health, and social interactions. Students will analyze how emotions develop across the lifespan, their adaptive and maladaptive functions, and how individual differences and cultural influences shape emotional experiences. Through empirical research and practical applications, the course emphasizes the importance of emotions in personal well-being and interpersonal relationships.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Brain and Behavior 5th Edition by Bryan Kolb
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40 Chapters
1844 Verified Questions
1844 Flashcards
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Q1) What is materialism and how has it influenced the study of neuroscience?
Answer: no answer
Q2) What is epigenetics and why is it an important topic to study?
Answer: no answer
Q3) How might climate changes have influenced the evolution of the human brain?
Answer: Climate changes could have influenced the evolution of the human brain in several ways. One possibility is that as the climate changed, it would have affected the availability of food sources. This could have led to the need for humans to adapt and develop new hunting and gathering strategies, which would have required increased cognitive abilities. Additionally, changes in climate could have also led to the need for humans to develop new tools and technologies to survive in different environments, further driving the evolution of the brain. Furthermore, fluctuations in climate could have also impacted social structures and interactions, leading to the need for increased communication and cooperation, which would have also influenced the development of the human brain. Overall, climate changes could have played a significant role in shaping the evolution of the human brain by driving the need for increased cognitive abilities, problem-solving skills, and social intelligence.
Q4) What are memes and how do they influence our evolution?
Answer: no answer
Page 3
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Q1) More advanced nervous systems often have similar structures on the left and right sides (e.g. ,the left and right hemispheres of the brain).This concept is known as:
A) mirroring.
B) bilateral symmetry.
C) bilateral structures.
D) mirror symmetry.
Answer: B
Q2) The first artistic relics were made by modern humans approximately:
A) 100,000 years ago.
B) 55,000 years ago.
C) 30,000 years ago.
D) 10,000 years ago.
Answer: C
Q3) Individual variation in plants and animals was first explained by:
A) Charles Darwin.
B) Gregor Mendel .
C) neither Charles Darwin nor Gregor Mendel.
D) both Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel.
Answer: B
Page 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Answer: The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are two branches of the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate.
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response. When activated, it increases heart rate, dilates the airways, and redirects blood flow to the muscles, preparing the body for physical activity. This response is triggered in times of stress or danger.
On the other hand, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "rest and digest" response. When activated, it slows down heart rate, constricts the airways, and stimulates digestion. This response helps the body to relax and recover after a stressful situation.
In summary, the sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for action and stress, while the parasympathetic nervous system promotes relaxation and recovery. These two systems work in balance to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The role of glial cells is primarily:
A) to carry out information processing in the brain.
B) to send signals from one brain region to another.
C) to modulate the activity of neurons.
D) to process sensory input.
Q2) The primary function of the cerebellum is:
A) control of sleeping and waking.
B) control of movement.
C) control of heart rate and respiration.
D) sensory processing.
Q3) Following a recent stroke Jim experiences difficulty with directing movements toward objects.The stroke is most likely to have occurred in his:
A) frontal lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) occipital lobe.
D) parietal lobe.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the major functions of Schwann cells? How do they assist in the recovery from nerve damage?
Q2) What is phenotypic plasticity?
Q3) Differentiate between Santiago Ramón y Cajal's and Camillo Golgi's views on brain cell functioning.
Q4) How does genetic engineering help us understand the human condition?
Q5) What are the major functions of ependymal cells?
Q6) What are three major types of neurons? How are they functionally different?
Q7) What are the major functions of astroglia?
Q8) Differentiate between dominant and recessive genes.
Q9) List the types of genetic engineering.
Q10) What are the five types of glial cells,and what are their primary functions?
Q11) List the functions of the cell nucleus.
Q13) List the internal components of a cell. Page 7
Q12) What are the three types of brain tumors? How do they differ from one another?
Q14) What is Huntington disease,and what are its genetic determinants?
Q15) What role do Golgi bodies play inside of neurons?
Q16) What functions do proteins contribute to cell function?
Q17) What is Down syndrome,and what are its genetic determinants?
Q18) What is epigenetics? Why is studying it important?
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ are a special type of interneuron found in the cerebellum.
A) Purkinje cells
B) Motor neurons
C) Bipolar neurons
D) Glial cells
Q2) Mitochondria and lysosomes are analogous to:
A) power and transportation.
B) transportation and power.
C) fence and power.
D) power and fence.
Q3) The simplest neuron is a(n):
A) somatosensory neuron.
B) motor neuron.
C) bipolar neuron.
D) interneuron.
Q4) Humans have approximately:
A) 20,000 genes.
B) 75,000 genes.
C) 125,000 genes.
D) 175,000 genes.
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Transmit Information? Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between depolarization and hyperpolarization?
Q2) What are the symptoms of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease)? What neural structures are damaged?
Q3) What is multiple sclerosis (MS)? What are some of the identified risk factors for MS?
Q4) What is the function of myelin? How does it influence the conduction of a nerve impulse?
Q5) How do nerve impulses produce movement?
Q6) What is the patch technique?
Q7) What are voltage-sensitive ion channels?
Q8) Differentiate between a diffusion and a concentration gradient.
Q9) How does the sodium-potassium pump work?
Q10) What are the two primary reasons refractory periods are important for the conduction of nerve impulses?
Q11) What is an electroencephalogram (EEG)and how is it recorded?
Q13) What is a voltmeter? Page 10
Q12) What processes participate in maintaining the resting potential?
Q14) Differentiate between a negative and a positive pole.
Q15) What is significant about the giant axon of the squid?
Q16) What processes are involved in initiating an action potential?
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Sample Questions
Q1) On larger myelinated axons,nerve impulses can reach speeds of up to _____ meters per second.
A) 100
B) 50
C) 120
D) 30
Q2) The notion that opposites attract best describes:
A) a concentration gradient.
B) a voltage gradient.
C) diffusion.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) _____ is a neurological disorder that is linked to periods of excessive neural synchrony.
A) Epilepsy
B) Parkinson disease
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Stroke
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following presynaptic events are in correct chronological order?
A) calcium ion influx,action potential reaches axon terminal,vesicle fuses with membrane,diffusion of neurotransmitter
B) action potential reaches axon terminal,calcium ion channels open,exocytosis,diffusion of neurotransmitter
C) exocytosis,calcium ion influx,action potential reaches axon terminal,membrane depolarization
D) action potential reaches axon terminal,calcium ion channels open,neurotransmitter diffusion,exocytosis
Q2) _____ is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain whereas _____ is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain.
A) GABA;glutamate
B) Glycine;glutamate
C) Glutamate;GABA
D) Aspartate;glycine
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the four main amino acid transmitters and what are their functions?
Q2) How did chemical transmitters originate?
Q3) What are transmitter-activated receptors?
Q4) What are second messengers? What role do they play in neural transmission?
Q5) What behaviors are associated with the serotonergic system?
Q6) What neurotransmitter system is used in the somatic nervous system (SNS)? How does it activate lead to depolarization?
Q7) What is the function of storage granules?
Q8) What is the difference between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors?
Q9) List four peptide transmitters.
Q10) What is a neurotransmitter?
Q11) What are the four major classes of neurotransmitters?
Q12) Define habituation.What is the synaptic basis of the habituation response?
14
Q13) What are the three ways a synapse can change in order to accommodate learning?
Q14) What is the difference between axoaxonic and axosynaptic synapses?
Q15) Define sensitization.What is the synaptic basis of sensitization?
Q16) What are the differences between chemical synapses and electrical synapses? What functions do they serve?
Q17) What are the differences between excitatory and inhibitory synapses?
Q18) Describe the synthesis of the amine neurotransmitters.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between substance abuse and substance dependence?
Q2) What are endorphins?
Q3) What negative effects on the nervous system have been associated with monosodium glutamate (MSG)?
Q4) Describe the processes that are involved in starting and stopping the stress response.?
Q5) What are the five major categories of psychoactive drugs? Give examples for each category.
Q6) What is the organizational hypothesis?
Q7) Define homeostasis and give examples of homeostatic hormones.
Q8) Describe the disinhibition theory of alcohol use.
Q9) What is the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia? What evidence supports the dopamine hypothesis?
Q10) What is fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD),and what are its major symptoms?
Q12) Differentiate between agonists and antagonists. Page 16
Q11) What are the effects on the brain of chronically high cortisol levels?
Q13) What are MAO inhibitors used for?
Q14) Describe the incentive-sensitization theory of addiction.
Q15) Why is the neurotransmitter acetylcholine important? What are the effects of curare on acetylcholine?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sensitization has been linked with:
A) changes in receptor number on the postsynaptic membrane.
B) changes in transmitter metabolism in the synapse.
C) changes in transmitter reuptake on the presynaptic side.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) Anticonvulsant drugs that are used to treat epilepsy are also effective in treating: A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) anxiety.
D) bipolar disorder.
Q3) Nicotine acts as a(n):
A) acetylcholine agonist.
B) serotonin agonist.
C) acetylcholine antagonist.
D) dopamine antagonist.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give an example of an animal model for a human neurological disease.How are animal models useful for understanding neurological diseases?
Q2) What are the differences between an MRI and an fMRI?
Q3) How does cerebral voltammetry work?
Q4) Differentiate extracellular from intracellular recording.
Q5) What is optogenetics? How is it used to excite and inhibit neurons?
Q6) How does brain stimulation work? How is it used to treat Parkinson's disease?
Q7) How does transcranial magnetic stimulation work? What does it study?
Q8) What is an EEG? What are the features of the brain revealed by an EEG?
Q9) What is a magnetoencephalogram (MEG)? How is it similar to an electroencephalogram and event-related potentials?
Q10) What are spatial and temporal resolutions? Why are these concepts important for brain imaging?
Q11) How does an MRI work?
Q13) What is microdialysis? What does it study? Page 19
Q12) What is near-infrared spectroscopy? Why is it useful?
Describe epigenetics.
Q15) What is a stereotaxic apparatus? What is it used for?
Q16) How does a CT scan work?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following uses a rat model?
A) Parkinson disease
B) stroke
C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) fMRI has high _____ but low _____.
A) temporal resolution;spatial resolution
B) spatial resolution;temporal resolution
C) radiation exposure;imaging clarity
D) None of the answers is correct.
Q3) Cerebral voltammetry is used to measure:
A) neurotransmitter levels.
B) electrical activity using scalp electrodes.
C) electrical activity using large electrodes placed in the brain tissue.
D) electrical activity of single neurons.
Q4) One advantage of cerebral voltammetry over microdialysis is that it:
A) costs far less.
B) is not destructive in nature.
C) does not require chemical analysis of the extracellular fluid.
D) None of the answers is correct.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are neural stem cells so important?
Q2) Differentiate between cell adhesion molecules and tropic molecules.
Q3) From what does the nervous system develop? What is the subventricular zone?
Q4) What is the chemoaffinity hypothesis?
Q5) Compare and contrast the symptoms of autism spectrum disorder and Asperger syndrome.
Q6) List the seven stages of brain development.
Q7) What brain regions demonstrate increased activation for second languages?
Q8) How are the brains of individuals who have schizophrenia different from the brains of individuals who do not have schizophrenia?
Q9) Define the term critical period and its relation to development.
Q10) Define masculinization.What hormones are responsible for masculinization and on what brain areas do they have the greatest influence?
Q11) Describe the process of myelination and its relationship to neural development.
Q13) Differentiate between a zygote,an embryo,and a fetus. Page 22
Q12) What function do radial glial cells play in development?
Q14) Describe Piaget's four stages of development.
Q15) List the changes to the brain that occur as a result of complex environment exposure.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The idea of preformation would imply that:
A) an embryo is a miniature adult.
B) embryos of different species look different.
C) embryos should look nothing like an adult.
D) embryos of different species look different and embryos should look nothing like an adult.
Q2) Which of the following statements about synaptic pruning is NOT true?
A) Synaptic pruning probably can be influenced by drugs.
B) Synaptic pruning is proportionally larger in smaller-brained animals.
C) Synaptic pruning is probably influenced by hormones.
D) Synaptic pruning is probably influenced by experience.
Q3) The _____ is thought to contain a primitive map or blueprint of the cortex that tells developing neurons to which location to migrate.
A) brainstem
B) thalamus
C) subventricular zone
D) hippocampus
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between magnocellular cells and parvocellular cells? Specifically,what types of visual signals do they carry,and where do their inputs come from?
Q2) What parts of the eye make up the left and right visual fields?
Q3) Why is there a blind spot in each eye?
Q4) What is the difference between the dorsal and ventral visual streams?
Q5) Compare and contrast the symptoms of visual-form agnosia and optic ataxia.What do these two disorders tell us about how the visual system is organized?
Q6) What is an on-center off-surround cell?
Q7) What is the opponent theory of color vision? At what point in the visual system is opponent-process color coding initiated?
Q8) To what stimulus does a simple cortical cell respond?
Q9) To what stimulus does a hypercomplex cell respond?
Q10) To what types of visual features do neurons in the temporal cortex respond?
Page 25
Q11) Differentiate between the functions of blob and interblob regions of visual cortex?
Q12) What type of vision loss would occur following damage to the right optic nerve compared with damage to the right lateral geniculate nucleus?
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Q1) Orientation detection is first coded by:
A) the lateral geniculate cells.
B) simple cortical cells.
C) complex cortical cells.
D) hypercomplex cortical cells.
Q2) Light is bent first by the _____ before entering the pupil.
A) lens
B) cornea
C) sclera
D) fovea
Q3) Optic flow tells us:
A) how fast we are going.
B) whether we are going in a straight line or up or down.
C) whether we are moving or the object is moving.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Compared with retinal ganglion cells,cells in V1 have _____ receptive fields.
A) larger
B) smaller
C) equally sized
D) upside down
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the three main physical properties of sound waves and how do they influence auditory perception?
Q2) List the structures in the auditory pathway in the correct order from cochlea to cortex.
Q3) Differentiate between the dorsal and ventral streams of auditory processing.
Q4) What decibel (dB)levels are safe for human hearing? What decibel levels can cause hearing damage?
Q5) What speech area did Penfield map in the human brain? How are these regions influenced by electrical stimulation?
Q6) List the variables that affect birdsong.
Q7) Define perfect pitch.What is its probable origin?
Q8) Differentiate between the roles of the outer and inner hair cells in the ear.
Q9) What is a cochlear implant and how does it work?
Q10) What is prosody and what brain regions control it?
Q12) Frequency and amplitude are equivalent to what properties in sound perception? Page 28
Q11) What is the difference between the tectorial membrane and the basilar membrane?
Q13) Differentiate between receptive aphasia and expressive aphasia.
Q14) How are blind humans able to use echolocation to identify objects? Which brain regions are involved?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stirrup sits against the: A) eardrum.
B) oval window.
C) round window.
D) cochlea.
Q2) Movement of hair-cell cilia in a direction toward the shortest cilia results in: A) hyperpolarization.
B) polarization.
C) depolarization.
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) Since James's recent stroke he has had a lot of difficulty speaking meaningful sentences.For example,the other day when a nurse asked him how he was doing,he said,"Colorful bicycles sleep furiously." It appears James may have damage to his:
A) right frontal lobe.
B) left temporal lobe.
C) left frontal lobe.
D) right temporal lobe.
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Page 30

Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the causes and symptoms of cerebral palsy?
Q2) What kinds of movement problems arise following damage to premotor cortex?
Q3) Differentiate between paraplegia and quadriplegia,including the regions of the spinal cord that are involved.
Q4) What are the components of the vestibular system? What is the role of the vestibular system in somatosensation?
Q5) What are the roles of the direct and indirect pathways in the basal ganglia?
Q6) Compare and contrast the roles of the prefrontal cortex,the premotor cortex,and the primary motor cortex in the control of movement.
Q7) What are the three major classes of somatosensory receptors? What role does each of these classes of receptors play in somatosensation?
Q8) Describe the effects of caudate-putamen damage.
Q9) What is hapsis? What receptors are responsible for our sensation of haptic information?
Q10) What are the basal ganglia? What role do the basal ganglia play in motor control?
Q11) Compare and contrast the roles of the posterior and anterior spinothalamic tracts.
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Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following receptors are rapidly adapting receptors?
A) Meissner corpuscles
B) Pacinian corpuscles
C) Ruffini corpuscles
D) All of these are rapidly accepting receptors.
Q2) Both the posterior and anterior spinothalamic tracts send their signals to the _____ nucleus of the thalamus.
A) ventrolateral
B) ventromedial
C) mediodorsal
D) lateral geniculate
Q3) The vestibular system is in the:
A) brainstem.
B) cerebellum.
C) middle ear.
D) inner ear.
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Q1) Pheromones are detected by:
A) glomeruli.
B) mitral cells.
C) the vomeronasal organ.
D) the olfactory mucosa.
Q2) One reason that adults and children may have such different food preferences is because:
A) children enjoy being picky eaters.
B) adults have more taste receptors than children and so are more sensitive to different tastes.
C) children have more taste receptors than adults and so are more sensitive to different tastes.
D) there is no difference between taste receptors in children and adults.
Q3) The MOST prevalent psychiatric disorder is:
A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) anxiety disorder.
D) personality disorder.
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Q1) Define innate releasing mechanism and give a specific example.
Q2) Differentiate between osmotic and hypovolemic thirst.
Q3) List the effects of sensory deprivation in Hebb's experiment with college students.
Q4) What is the function of the amygdala in the experience of emotion?
Q5) Compare and contrast the role of the orbital prefrontal cortex and the pyriform cortex in smell perception.
Q6) Differentiate between aphagia and hyperphagia.Which regions of the brain need to be lesioned to cause aphagia and hyperphagia?
Q7) What is a homeostatic mechanism?
Q8) What are the effects of dorsolateral frontal-cortex lesions on motivated behavior in humans?
Q9) List the hormones (and their functions)that are produced by the anterior pituitary gland.
Q10) What neural structures are part of the circuit of Papez? What roles do these structures play in emotion?
Q11) How does the hypothalamus influence sexual behavior?
Q12) Compare and contrast regulatory and nonregulatory behaviors.List some specific Page 34
examples of each.
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Sample Questions
Q1) John is participating in a sleep study.While examining John's EEG pattern,the researcher notices that the waves are extremely regular,with a frequency of 7 to 11 Hz.Based on this observation the researcher can conclude that:
A) John is still wide awake and alert.
B) John is asleep.
C) John is dreaming.
D) John is awake but relaxed,with his eyes closed.
Q2) Cues that maintain rhythmicity are known as:
A) circadian rhythms.
B) cyclers.
C) pacemakers.
D) Zeitgebers.
Q3) Sleep spindles and K complexes are associated with:
A) REM sleep.
B) NREM sleep.
C) dreaming.
D) daydreaming.
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Page 36

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Sample Questions
Q1) What is narcolepsy? How is it treated?
Q2) What is the reticular activating system,and what are its functions in relation to sleep and wakefulness?
Q3) What are the symptoms of sleep apnea? What are its main causes?
Q4) Why does jet lag occur? Why is jet lag worse flying east than west?
Q5) List the most common Zeitgebers.Which is the most powerful for humans?
Q6) How is sleep measured in the laboratory?
Q7) What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in biological rhythms? What role do core and shell neurons play in biological rhythms?
Q8) What is restless legs syndrome?
Q9) What evidence supports the notion that memories are consolidated during sleep?
Q10) What are Zeitgebers,and how do they affect biological rhythms? Give an example.
Q11) What evidence do scientists have that the suprachiasmatic nucleus plays an essential role in biological rhythms?
Q12) What role does melatonin play in circadian rhythms?
Q13) What is a circadian rhythm? Give an example.
Q14) Describe the activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreaming. Page 37
Q15) What are the main causes of insomnia?
Q16) Describe the coping hypothesis of dreams.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are often found in patients with:
A) herpes encephalitis.
B) Huntington disease.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) Alzheimer disease.
Q2) Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF):
A) increases the number of new neurons.
B) increases myelination.
C) increases the size of axons.
D) increases the number of dendrites and synapses.
Q3) The patient J.K.had Parkinson disease.He showed a deficit in:
A) verbal memory.
B) visuospatial memory.
C) implicit memory.
D) explicit memory.
Q4) Injecting epidermal growth factor into the ventricle of a live animal:
A) produces only progenitor cells.
B) will produce functional regrowth in a brain-damaged animal.
C) produces cells that eventually differentiate into neurons and glia.
D) produces only cells that turn into glia.
Page 39
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27 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78864
Sample Questions
Q1) What evidence supports the idea that the hippocampus is critical for spatial memory?
Q2) What are neurotrophic factors? What role do they play in the recovery from brain injury?
Q3) What role do NMDA and AMPA receptors play in long-term potentiation (LTP)?
Q4) What memory systems and brain regions are affected in Alzheimer disease?
Q5) What brain circuits participate in generating implicit memories?
Q6) Differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processing.How are these two types of processing related to explicit and implicit memory?
Q7) Outline a purported neural circuit for explicit memory.
Q8) Which brain circuits are critical for forming emotional memories?
Q9) What role do the frontal lobes play in memory? What happens following frontal lobe damage?
Q10) Describe the visual recognition and object position tasks used to study memory in monkeys.Which brain structures are critical for performing these tasks?
Q11) Why are fear and eyeblink conditioning paradigms used for studying the brain?
Q12) How does an enriched environment alter the brain?
Q13) List H.M.'s memory deficits and his maintained memory systems following his Page 40
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90 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78866
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most analogous to an orchestra conductor?
A) temporal lobes
B) frontal lobes
C) parietal lobes
D) occipital lobes
Q2) Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to lead to extinction in a patient with a right hemisphere injury?
A) The patient is shown a pencil in the left visual field.
B) The patient is shown a spoon in the right visual field.
C) The patient is shown a pencil in the left and right visual fields at the same time.
D) The patient is shown a pencil in the left visual field and a spoon in the right visual field at the same time.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the type of problem that a patient with a prefrontal cortex injury might have on the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test?
A) The patient has difficulty learning to sort according to a rule.
B) The patient has difficulty switching strategies to use a new sorting rule.
C) The patient is never able to remember the categories.
D) All of the statements are correct.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78867
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the anatomical asymmetries in the human brain.
Q2) Why was Alex the parrot so unusual?
Q3) What is functional connectivity MRI (fcMRI)? What does it allow researchers to study?
Q4) List the tasks that are better performed by females than males.
Q5) Describe the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test.What does it measure? What types of brain lesions impair performance on this test?
Q6) What is neuroeconomics? What has neuroeconomics taught us about decision making?
Q7) Describe the symptoms you would observe in a patient with a lesion to the temporal association cortex.
Q8) What tasks are better performed by either males or females? Why might these sex differences in cognition have evolved in the first place?
Q9) Describe the symptoms that follow left and right parietal injury.
Q10) What techniques can be used to demonstrate functional asymmetry in the healthy brain?
Q11) Differentiate between divergent and convergent intelligence.What brain regions are associated with each of them?
Q12) What is extinction? How is it related to contralateral neglect? Page 43
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Q1) Differentiate between coup and contrecoup effects during a traumatic brain injury.Give an example.
Q2) What are the anatomical correlates of Alzheimer disease?
Q3) What are the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? What brain regions does it affect?
Q4) What are the proposed causes of multiple sclerosis?
Q5) What are neuroprotectants? Why are they used?
Q6) Describe and explain at least four of the major challenges faced by researchers who want to study the disordered brain.
Q7) List the six diagnostic symptoms of schizophrenia.
Q8) List at least five factors that may lead to the onset of seizures.
Q9) What kinds of neurosurgeries have been used in treating Parkinson disease?
Q10) What effects do antidepressant drugs like SSRIs have on the brain?
Q11) What processes following an ischemic stroke result in further brain damage?
Q12) What are the symptoms and causes of phenylketonuria?
Page 45
Q13) What neurotransmitter system(s)are involved in anxiety? What types of drugs are used to treat anxiety disorders?
Q14) What is electroconvulsive therapy? Why is it used? How does it affect the brain?
Q15) What two kinds of behavioral effects result from traumatic brain injuries?
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