Psychology of Deviance Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Psychology of Deviance explores the psychological factors underlying behaviors that diverge from societal norms and expectations. This course examines theoretical perspectives on deviance, including biological, psychological, and sociological explanations, and analyzes the influence of mental health, personality disorders, socialization, and environmental factors on deviant behavior. Topics include the classification of deviant acts, the role of stigma, the impact of labeling, and the social consequences of deviance. Students will critically review case studies and research findings to better understand the causes, functions, and implications of deviant behavior for both individuals and communities.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology Perspectives 5th Edition by David J.A. Dozois
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19 Chapters
1924 Verified Questions
1924 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Concepts of Abnormality Throughout History
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first mental institution in North America was built by the Moors at San Hippolyto in Mexico.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) What do the views of Paracelsus, Teresa of Avila, and St. Vincent de Paul have in common?
A) They all attempted to develop a new system of classification.
B) They believed that religious approaches could lead to a cure.
C) They established asylums to humanely care for the mad.
D) They argue for a more naturalistic approach to viewing mental illness.
E) Each of them contributed to Freud's system of psychoanalysis.
Answer: D
Q3) Many mentally ill people are unpredictable and dangerous to themselves and others.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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3
Chapter 2: Theoretical Perspectives on Abnormal Behaviour
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the text, two of the most eminent advocates of humanistic psychology were
A) Maslow, who discussed self-actualization; and Rogers, who discussed a person-centred approach.
B) Maslow, who discussed self-efficacy; and Rogers, who discussed existential angst.
C) Maslow, who discussed self-actualization; and Rosenhan, who discussed labelling theory.
D) Maslow, who discussed labelling theory; and Rosenhan, who discussed self-actualization.
E) Maslow, who discussed a person-centred approach; and Rogers, who discussed self-actualization.
Answer: A
Q2) Freud felt that the ego develops to curb the desires of the id.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Classification and Diagnosis
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Axis IV were excluded from the DSM-IV-TR, __________ would NOT be considered in the diagnosis.
A) depression
B) chronic back problems
C) physical abuse
D) histrionic personality disorder
E) heroin abuse
Answer: C
Q2) Cultural biases are generally not problematic in the DSM because regardless of where you come from, the symptoms for any one disorder will be similar.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Dissociative Identity Disorder involves individuals suddenly and unexpectedly leaving their home, traveling to a new locale, and taking up a new identity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Psychological Assessment and Research
Methods
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the text, which of the following allows for the greatest confidence in interpreting and generalization of results?
A) The quasi-experiment
B) The experiment
C) The correlational study
D) The psychological test
E) The semi-experiment
Q2) Which of the following is true of the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt test?
A) The main problem with the test is that it produces many false positives.
B) It consists of a series of nine cards containing lines and shapes, which children are asked to copy and then draw from memory.
C) It is rarely used at present, though it was commonly employed in the past.
D) There are currently no standardized scoring systems for this test.
E) It is very difficult to administer.
Q3) Linda is conducting a study in which neither the subjects nor the experimenters know who is getting medication and who is getting the placebo. This study design is most frequently called a double-unaware design.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Anxiety and Related Disorders
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physiological marker of PTSD is
A) decreased cortisol secretion.
B) smaller frontal lobes.
C) a smaller hypothalamus.
D) increased cortisol secretion.
E) an enlarged hippocampus.
Q2) The neural circuit in fear / anxiety is believed to involve (from input to output):
A) sensory systems; frontal cortex; adrenal cortex; brain stem / spinal cord
B) sensory systems; thalamus; amygdala; hypothalamus; midbrain; brain stem / spinal
C) thalamus; hippocampus; basal ganglia; hypothalamus; brain stem / spinal
D) thalamus; occipital cortex; association cortex; motor cortex; brain stem/spinal
E) thalamus; temporal cortex; association cortex; motor cortex; brain stem / spinal
Q3) What does Seligman's biological preparedness theory state? Has the evidence generally supported this theory?
Q4) Several findings are inconsistent with Mowrer's two-factor theory of fear. Briefly discuss two such findings.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Dissociative and Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The somatoform disorder will be renamed somatic symptom disorder in DSM-5. A)True
B)False
Q2) The dissociative and some of the somatoform disorders were viewed by Plato as expressions of __________, which denoted a symptom pattern of emotional excitability and physical symptoms without medical cause, and which was felt to be caused by a _______________.
A) neurosis ; suppression of psychic stress
B) neurosis ; repression of traumatic memories
C) brain degeneration ; an over-excitable brain and nervous system
D) hysteria; repression of traumatic memories
E) hysteria; wandering uterus
Q3) The different unique personalities in an individual diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder are often referred to as
A) alternates.
B) others.
C) egos.
D) splits.
E) alters.
Q4) Describe five patterns of memory loss characteristic of dissociative amnesia.
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Chapter 7: Psychological Factors Affecting Medical Conditions
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Friedman et al. (1986) found that after three years of cardiac counselling implemented through the Recurrent Coronary Prevention Project, patients showed
A) an increase in the amount of type A behaviour.
B) no change in the amount of type A behaviour.
C) half as many occurrences of cardiac events as controls.
D) no difference from controls in the occurrences of cardiac events.
E) half as many occurrences of cardiac events as controls, but also no reduction in measured Type A behaviour.
Q2) In terms of cardiovascular functioning, which of the following is a controllable risk factor?
A) jogging
B) high blood cholesterol
C) exercise
D) marriage
E) high demand occupations
Q3) Explain the evidence for and against the role Helicobacter pylori plays in the formation of gastric ulcers.
Q4) Describe Engel's (1977) argument for a biopsychosocial model of disease.
Q5) Outline the differences between signs and symptoms.
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Chapter 8: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research suggests that the effect of a gene (HTT)
A) directly causes depression.
B) heightens reactivity to stress.
C) lowers levels of serotonin neurotransmitter.
D) causes damage to a brain region associated with mood.
E) causes damage to a brain region involved with perception.
Q2) As a form of treatment, Joanne receives phototherapy, in which she sits in front of a light box for a few hours a day every morning. Judging from this treatment, Joanne most likely suffers from
A) seasonal affective disorder.
B) schizoaffective disorder.
C) bipolar depression.
D) unipolar depression.
Q3) Research showing that there is nothing special about five (DSM) symptoms rather than four or two weeks duration rather than three supports a dimensional model of depression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the algorithm for evaluation of patients with suicidal ideation that may lead to hospitalization.
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Chapter 9: Schizophrenia
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Schizophrenia is characterized by its complexity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dancing down the street is an example of grossly disorganized behaviour.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person with schizophrenia displaying flattened affect
A) withdraws socially.
B) does not express emotion.
C) does not experience physiological arousal.
D) laughs at inappropriate moments.
Q4) It is difficult to determine whether neurological abnormalities are a cause or consequence of schizophrenic symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Digit span performance has been studied as a cognitive marker of schizophrenia.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the five subtypes of schizophrenia in the DSM-IV-TR.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Eating Disorders
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99 Verified Questions
99 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "escape from self-awareness model" of Bulimia Nervosa posits that ____________ offer an escape from ______________.
A) self-induced vomiting behaviors; thoughts and feelings of guilt regarding binge-eating
B) binge-eating episodes; thoughts and feelings about perceived failures
C) caloric restriction and exercise; self-awareness
D) use of laxatives; feelings of guilt about over-eating
E) binge-eating episodes; guilt regarding purging behaviors
Q2) It has been found that ______________ has the highest prevalence, followed by _________________ and _____________________.
A) Eating Disorder - NOS; Anorexia; Bulimia
B) Eating Disorder - NOS; Bulimia Nervosa; Anorexia
C) Bulimia; Anorexia; ED-NOS
D) Bulimia; ED-NOS; Anorexia
E) Anorexia; Bulimia; ED-NOS
Q3) Body dissatisfaction is more central to the diagnosis of bulimia than anorexia
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast the two subtypes of anorexia nervosa.
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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114 Verified Questions
114 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overall, results of psychological smoking cessation programs have been
A) mixed.
B) promising.
C) lacking.
D) not at all encouraging.
E) very encouraging.
Q2) Interventions that involve the family of alcoholics generally target
A) the self-defeating thoughts and distorted beliefs espoused by the family.
B) communication and relationship roles.
C) how families may be causing relapses.
D) the effect of the abuser on other family members.
E) the amount of alcohol that everyone in the family drinks.
Q3) At low doses, barbiturates cause __________ but with large doses they can cause __________.
A) mild euphoria; lowered respiration, blood pressure, and heart rate
B) sleep; coma
C) relaxation of the diaphragm muscles; personality changes
D) slurred speech; mild euphoria
E) blurred vision; muscle paralysis
Q4) Contrast substance abuse with substance dependence.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Personality Disorders
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of people with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?
A) unable to function independently
B) a desire for perfection
C) rigidity and inflexibility
D) preoccupation with rules and order
E) being moralistic and judgmental
Q2) Borderline personality disorder is the most common diagnosis among inpatient psychiatric patients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Create 4 brief personality profiles (no more than a 3 or 4 sentences each), each of a prototypical person with a different personality disorder. Be sure to include the central features of each disorder.
Q4) The term "borderline" was used in the past to describe a person on the border between neurosis and psychosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Sexual and Gender Identity Disorders
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122 Verified Questions
122 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true regarding orgasmic disorders EXCEPT
A) Orgasmic disorders are some of the most commonly reported sexual dysfunctions.
B) female orgasmic disorder is much more common than male orgasmic disorder.
C) women are more likely to experience orgasm through masturbation than with a partner.
D) orgasmic disorder in men and women is also known as anorgasmia.
E) DSM-IV requires a delay in or absence of orgasm following normal excitement, causing distress or interpersonal difficulty.
Q2) The four stages of the sexual response cycle are
A) arousal, intercourse, orgasm, release.
B) arousal, foreplay, orgasm, relaxation.
C) arousal, bodily response, genital response, orgasm.
D) neutrality, arousal, climax, anti-climax.
E) excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution.
Q3) Partialisms are fetishisms with particular items of clothing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the DSM-IV-TR category of sexual pain disorders.
Q5) List the various paraphilias and describe two of them.
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Chapter 14: Developmental Disorders
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are examples of learning disorders EXCEPT
A) disorders of written expression.
B) mathematics disorders.
C) athletic disorders.
D) communication disorders.
E) reading disorders.
Q2) The three domains of adaptive skills used by the AAMR in the definition of mental retardation today are
A) conceptual, social, and practical.
B) social, intellectual, and conceptual.
C) cognitive, social, and emotional.
D) behavioural, social, and emotional.
E) cognitive, social, and practical.
Q3) According to the acculturation framework, assimilation occurs when the minority group participates in the economic, social and cultural life of the dominant society while maintaining its own identity as a unique cultural entity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are echolalia and pronoun reversal, and in what disorder are they seen?
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Chapter 15: Behaviour and Emotional Disorders of
Childhood and Adolescence
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113 Verified Questions
113 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recognition of child psychopathology began in the early 19 century however the importance of parenting factors was not recognized until the teachings of Anna Freud and Melanie Klein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Selective mutism appears to be effectively treated by discussing the cognitive appraisals that give rise to the feelings and behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A gene-environment interaction in the development of conduct disorder was shown in a study by Caspi et al. (2002) in which ___ percent of individuals who were severely maltreated in childhood and had low MAOA activity had CD, compared to _____ percent of individuals maltreated in childhood who had high MAOA activity.
A) 100; 50
B) 90; 10
C) 80; 40
D) 70; 30
E) 65; 35
Q4) Describe the pharmacological treatment of ADHD.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Mental Disorders and Aging
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114 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Point out some of the differences between depressive disorders in younger and older adults.
Q2) Mood disorders are __________ among older adults than younger adults.
A) less common
B) more or less common, depending on the type of disorder
C) equally prevalent
D) more common
E) ten times more common
Q3) Sleeping patterns often change in older adults. All of the following are considered changes EXCEPT
A) circadian rhythms change.
B) changes in the organization of sleep stages.
C) less synchronous Stage 2 EEG activity.
D) decreases in total sleep time.
E) increases in the length of REM periods.
Q4) Late onset schizophrenia is relatively common among the elderly in institutional settings.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the Strength and Vulnerability Integration (SAVI) Model.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an example of criteria for designation as an empirically supported therapy?
A) At least ten single-case-design studies demonstrating efficacy.
B) The treatment effects must have been found by at least five different researchers or research teams.
C) At least two group design studies demonstrating efficacy by being superior to pill, psychological placebo, or another treatment.
D) Studies must be conducted with treatment manuals.
E) The characteristics of the participants must be clearly described.
Q2) Eysenck determined that clients often improve without psychotherapy; there was no evidence that psychotherapy had any demonstrable effect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe meta-analyses and explain the importance of this technique.
Q4) Lithium has been shown to have antidepressant effects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the side effects of MAOIs, tricyclics, and SSRIs.
Q6) What types of therapy have been found effective in treating anxiety disorders?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Prevention and Mental Health Promotion in the Community
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Sample Questions
Q1) List five categories of general risk factors for poor mental health and identify some general protective factors.
Q2) High risk programs always attempt to involve communities that are at risk for particular reasons (i.e., low SES, crime-infested, etc.).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Well-being tends to be the focus of mental health
A) primary prevention.
B) intervention.
C) prevention.
D) tertiary prevention.
E) promotion.
Q4) In a recent review of Canadian programs, Waddell et al. (2007) found that only _________ has demonstrated positive mental health outcomes for children.
A) the Community Action Program for Children (CAPC)
B) the Better Beginnings project
C) the Early Head Start project
D) The Perry Preschool project
E) the Prenatal Early Infancy project
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Chapter 19: Mental Disorder and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is true regarding the four fundamental principles in the Code of Ethics?
A) All four of the principles are considered equally important.
B) Principle III is considered the most important of all four principles.
C) The principles are ranked from most important to least important.
D) It is up to the psychologist to determine which principles is important for him/her.
E) The principles are ranked from least important to most important.
Q2) Robert has assaulted a neighbor. Even though he understands the act itself, he is declared, according to the M'Naghten standard, to be insane. Which of the following would most effectively help us judge the accuracy of this claim?
A) Robert is unable to give a detailed account of his actions at the time of the offense.
B) Robert had been heavily intoxicated at the time of the offense.
C) Robert had a long history of mental illness during his childhood.
D) It has been determined that at the time of his offense, Robert was suffering from a defect of the mind.
E) Robert is unable to understand that the act is wrong.
Q3) Describe the evolution of the insanity defence.
Q4) What are the important elements of the legal definition of mental disorder?
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