Psychology of Crime and Justice
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Psychology of Crime and Justice explores the psychological factors that influence criminal behavior, the functioning of the legal system, and the experiences of victims, offenders, and legal professionals. The course examines theories of criminality, the roles of mental health and personality in offending, and the impact of social and environmental factors on crime. Students will analyze the processes of criminal investigation, trial, and sentencing from a psychological perspective, including issues such as eyewitness testimony, jury decision-making, and rehabilitation. Emphasis is placed on understanding how psychological research informs practices and policies related to crime prevention and justice.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo
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Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious
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Q1) Are there any problems with having trial judges as the gatekeepers? How can the system be improved?
Answer: Main points:
Under the Daubert standard, judges are to decide whether to allow expert testimony. Judges are expected to be "amateur scientists".
Judges do not have the training in research and thus cannot discern between good and not-so-good science.
To improve the system, judges need to undergo mandatory training in research methods and be kept abreast of new scientific knowledge in the field of forensic psychology and other social sciences through continuing education.
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Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Precedents can best be described as:
A) legal cases that have established a rule that are then used to decide future cases with similar issues.
B) past decisions dictating all future cases, regardless of the "goodness-of-fit."
C) reviews of facts in a case that occurred in a similar jurisdiction.
D) rulings on the matters that were raised by the same parties that are participating as plaintiff and defendant in the current case.
Answer: A
Q2) The knowledge and skills of developmental psychologists might be relevant for the legal system in which one of these cases?
A) When studying the dynamics of jury deliberation.
B) When assessing a mentally ill defendant for potential risk of violence.
C) When deciding whether the eyewitness is able to remember the scene of crime.
D) When evaluating the state of mind of a teenager who brought guns to school.
Answer: D
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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of amicus curiae briefs over expert testimony?
A) Research studies cited in the brief are listed in a reference section.
B) Amicus curiae briefs are typically written by a team of researchers.
C) Amicus curiae briefs are often reviewed by a professional organization.
D) Amicus curiae briefs are typically more expensive to produce.
Answer: D
Q2) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court make explicit use of research provided by social scientists for the first time?
A) Brown v. Board of Education.
B) Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc.
C) General Electric Co. v. Joiner.
D) Brandeis v. United States.
Answer: A
Q3) After Daubert, judges are more likely to:
A) permit expert testimony in federal cases.
B) exclude expert testimony even if it's based on valid science.
C) allow expert testimony, but only with regard to competency to stand trial.
D) be required to obtain education in social scientific research methods.
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.
Q2) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?
Q3) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) False confessions may occur as a result of:
A) intimidation.
B) deception.
C) fatigue.
D) All of these may lead to false confessions.
Q2) The ultimate goal of questioning suspects is to:
A) elicit a confession.
B) define parameters for search.
C) determine best search techniques.
D) provide a basis for DNA analysis.
Q3) Daniela was _____and she waived her Miranda rights during arrest, and decided to tell the police her side of the story without waiting for an attorney. The most likely reason she did that is because she has _____.
A) innocent; nothing to hide
B) guilty; something to hide
C) guilty; no reason to worry
D) afraid; no reason to worry
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) In the United States, all of the following interrogation techniques are legal EXCEPT:
A) telling the suspect that he will get a reduced sentence if he confesses to the crime.
B) assembling a phony lineup and telling the suspect he was identified by a witness.
C) holding the suspect in a cell without visitors or phone calls for 16 days.
D) having an informant pose as an inmate to the suspect offering protection from other inmates for a confession.
Q2) After a long interrogation, an innocent suspect comes to believe he has committed a crime despite having no memory of doing so. His interrogators have told him that he must have either "blacked out" during the commission of the crime or "repressed" his memory because the experience was so traumatic. His subsequent confession would be classified as an:
A) instrumental-coerced false confession.
B) instrumental-voluntary false confession.
C) authentic-coerced false confession.
D) authentic-voluntary false confession.
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Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection
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Q1) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.
Q2) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).
Q3) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection
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Q1) Marissa is being polygraphed using the guilty knowledge test (GKT). This test focuses on whether Marissa:
A) knows facts that one would expect that only the criminal would know. B) understands facts that were published about the crime in the media.
C) is willing to share information that is uncomfortable for most people to share. D) remains unwilling to be tested, which amounts to her admission of guilt.
Q2) Jared was questioning a suspect using the Reid technique, and after a long and exhausting interrogation, the suspect falsely confessed to the crime just to put an end to the interrogation. When hearing this confession, Jared felt even more confident that the suspect was guilty. This is an illustration of the phenomenon that psychologists call: A) false-positive bias. B) attribution bias.
C) exhaustion bias.
D) confirmation bias.
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Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection
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Q1) The theory behind the polygraph test is based on the assumption that:
A) the act of lying will cause increased brain activity.
B) telling the truth will cause increased gastrointestinal activity.
C) the act of lying will cause physiological arousal.
D) telling the truth will cause a decrease in neural impulse activity.
Q2) Experimental research has demonstrated that when actual interrogation training videos are used, training _____ the ability to detect deception and makes people _____ confident about their judgments.
A) improves; less
B) does not improve; more
C) improves; more
D) does not improve; less
Q3) Lucas is very worried that somebody may find out about his activities in drug trade. When asked questions about drug selling, he would deny any involvement and likely experience the following physiological changes detected by the polygraph:
A) lower blood pressure, fatigue, and constipation.
B) changes in breathing, eye movements, and body temperature.
C) decrease in skin moisture, coughing, and dry mouth.
D) changes in blood pressure, breathing, and skin conductance.
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Q1) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?
Q2) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?
Q3) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.
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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Q1) The tendency to seek out information that supports our beliefs is known as:
A) expected outcome.
B) integration of thought.
C) confirmation bias.
D) attribution error.
Q2) Bullet-matching results:
A) are inconsistent and unproven, even after they have been used in thousands of trials.
B) are generally confirmed by scientific studies to be reliable and can be safely used in court.
C) can always match to a particular suspect, if the gun is recovered.
D) demonstrate that each bullet is unique and can be identified as such.
Q3) Nicholas was brought in for questioning as a result of detailed police work and asked to provide his fingerprints. Based on fingerprint evidence, he was excluded as a suspect. This means that the latent prints were:
A) too smudged to prove to be his.
B) incomplete and could not be matched.
C) found to be from someone else.
D) inconclusive.
Page 13
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Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic
Trace Evidence
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Q1) Who pioneered the use of fingerprints in establishing identity?
A) Alphonse Bertillon
B) Francis Galton
C) James Watson
D) Charles Darwin
Q2) For many years, _____ forensic evidence, like bullet matching or handwriting analysis, has been used _____ in the courts.
A) questionable; widely
B) solid; rarely
C) questionable; rarely
D) solid; widely
Q3) Features of fingerprints are referred to as _____, and the prints found at the scene of a crime are called _____.
A) whorls; finite loops
B) loops; friction ridges
C) minutiae; latent prints
D) ridges; hidden metrics
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?
Q2) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).
Q3) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) The process of drawing inferences about a suspect's personality, behavior, motivation, and demographic characteristics based on crime scene information is referred to as:
A) profiling.
B) characterization.
C) development of personality.
D) visionary types.
Q2) According to the text, the courts have been reluctant to allow expert testimony based on psychological autopsies. However, that is NOT the case in:
A) Jackson v. State of Florida (1989).
B) Sysyn v. State (2000).
C) Brown v. Board of Education (1954).
D) Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals (1993).
Q3) The reliance on maps and mathematics to develop predictions about possible locations of future crimes is referred to as:
A) criminal profiling.
B) characterization.
C) geographic profiling.
D) the NASH system.
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Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of most serial killers?
A) A history of childhood abuse.
B) Brain injury that impairs rational thinking.
C) The use of firearms in killing.
D) The use of alcohol or drugs before killing.
Q2) Whereas _____ profiling relies on instinct, _____ profiling relies on maps and mathematics.
A) criminal; psychological
B) psychological; mathematical
C) musical; actuarial
D) psychological; geographic
Q3) Psychological autopsies are typically used in cases involving:
A) serial murder.
B) equivocal death.
C) mass murder.
D) unequivocal death.
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Explain the voir dire process.
Q2) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
Q3) How effective is scientific jury selection?
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Lawyers have two types of challenges they can pose to remove a potential juror: challenges for cause and:
A) challenges for bias.
B) challenges for prejudice.
C) peremptory challenges.
D) predisposition challenges.
Q2) _____ attorneys get more peremptory challenges because _____ at the trial.
A) Prosecuting; they take precedence
B) Defense; their clients have more to lose
C) Prosecuting; it requires the judge to agree
D) Defense; they do not get the opportunity to take the stand first or last during the trial
Q3) According to the Jury Selection and Service Act of 1968, the voter registration list is the "__________ source" of eligible jurors.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) only
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Just like early juries, modern juries are intended to be _____; unlike early juries, modern juries are intended to be _____.
A) impartial; equal
B) equal; representative
C) representative; impartial
D) impartial; exclusive
Q2) In civil cases, the standard of proof for being held liable is _____, while in criminal cases, it is _____.
A) beyond a reasonable doubt; clear and convincing evidence
B) clear and convincing evidence; preponderance of the evidence
C) preponderance of the evidence; beyond a reasonable doubt
D) reasonable person standard; clear and convincing evidence
Q3) An attorney may use a peremptory challenge to:
A) dismiss a potential juror because of bias or prejudice.
B) dismiss a potential juror without giving a reason.
C) request a change of venue or a retrial.
D) find evidence inadmissible at trial.
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Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
Q2) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
Q3) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) According to the text, estimates of time during the course of a stressful event are _____ the actual length of the event.
A) about half of
B) almost twice C) three to four times
D) over ten times
Q2) When describing memory, _____ is the first component required in the process necessary for retention.
A) storage
B) retrieval
C) top-down processing
D) encoding
Q3) Research is an important part of understanding how eyewitness accounts are derived. As such, a range of factors are often considered. Those factors that are within the control of the justice system are:
A) system variables.
B) dependent variables.
C) independent variables.
D) estimator variables.
22
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Which one of the following Manson criteria CONTRADICTS research findings?
A) The witness's level of attention.
B) The amount of time between witnessing the crime and making the identification.
C) The degree of certainty asserted by the witness.
D) The witness's opportunity to view the perpetrator.
Q2) The three component processes in memory are:
A) recall, recognition, and cognition.
B) encoding, storage, and retrieval.
C) acoustic, semantic, and sensory.
D) sensation, perception, and cognition.
Q3) Tracy witnessed two men holding up a bank, both wearing camouflage pants. When questioned about the crime, she had a good recall for the pants and described these pants in detail to the policemen. When she was questioned about the crime a month later, she still remembered the pants but had a poor recall for other details. This phenomenon is known as:
A) decay theory.
B) retrieval inhibition.
C) unconscious transference.
D) the bystander effect.
Page 23
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
Q2) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
Q3) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) According to research completed by Grisso and his colleagues (2003), the differences between adolescents (ages 11 to 17) and young adults (ages 18 to 24) in terms of their functioning on CST-related abilities were:
A) minimal.
B) moderate.
C) significant.
D) not present.
Q2) If the accused is deemed nonrestorable, then criminal charges are:
A) refiled within the next 3 years.
B) continued in conjunction with therapy.
C) dismissed or suspended.
D) reevaluated by the jury.
Q3) Competency to stand trial (CST) refers to the psychological state of the accused:
A) at the time of the offense.
B) at the time of sentencing.
C) at the time of the trial.
D) before the offense was committed.
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Some forensic psychologists argue that all of the following conditions should trigger an automatic competency evaluation for juveniles EXCEPT:
A) history of developmental disability.
B) family history of mental illness.
C) low or "borderline" intelligence.
D) age 12 or younger.
Q2) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court limit the period of confinement to the time necessary to determine if the defendant could be returned to competence in the foreseeable future?
A) Jackson v. Indiana (1972).
B) Washington v. Harper (1990).
C) Sell v. United States (2003).
D) Ford v. Wainwright (1986).
Q3) Most states limit the period of confinement for defendants found to be incompetent to somewhere between:
A) 4 and 18 months.
B) 2 and 3 years.
C) 30 and 90 days.
D) 40% to 50% of the sentence if the defendant were to be convicted.
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Page 26
Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
Q2) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
Q3) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Today, there is general agreement that committing a criminal act without a guilty mind is:
A) enough to convict.
B) not enough to convict.
C) a way to deter crime.
D) retribution.
Q2) There are unique problems that are presented by insanity evaluations that make developing a test to evaluate insanity extremely difficult. All of the following are valid reasons for this EXCEPT:
A) a retrospective evaluation of a person's state of mind is involved.
B) the legal elements of what constitutes insanity are more vague than for CST.
C) CST and insanity can be evaluated using similar test instruments and techniques.
D) there are considerable variations from state to state in legal definitions of insanity.
Q3) The Durham standard took into consideration:
A) mental disease or mental defect in a person.
B) the presumption that defendants are sane at the time of their alleged crime.
C) whether the defendant knew the nature and quality of their actions.
D) the defendant's criminal history.
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) In legal terminology, the guilty mind that must accompany the wrongful behavior is known as:
A) actus reas.
B) habeas corpus.
C) mens rea.
D) the Magna Carta.
Q2) Which famous case prompted shifting the burden of proof of insanity from prosecution to defense?
A) Durham
B) Hinckley
C) M'Naghten
D) Smith
Q3) What definition of insanity is used in most states currently?
A) the Durham test.
B) the ALI standard.
C) the M'Naghten rule.
D) the "wild beast" test.
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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q3) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) Which of the following statements correctly describes the current state of BWS validity?
A) BWS is accepted by many practitioners and criticized by many researchers.
B) Both practitioners and researchers uniformly reject this diagnosis.
C) Both practitioners and researchers have been more accepting of BWS recently.
D) There is a great deal of research supporting the validity of BWS.
Q2) Because BWS and RTS are often difficult for the prosecution to integrate into a trial, many have advocated for testimony about posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) instead. One reason why the use of this diagnosis proves to be more helpful in cases in which the victim kills the batterer is that:
A) no one understands BWS.
B) RTS has not been documented.
C) PTSD is better established as a mental disorder.
D) victims of PTSD have public support.
Q3) One of the most criticized components of the battered woman syndrome (BWS) is _____.
A) cycle of abuse.
B) acute battering.
C) learned helplessness.
D) hypervigilance.
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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What was the reason that both judges in the Ibn-Tamas case used to prohibit expert testimony on battered woman syndrome (BWS) in front of the jury?
A) Expert testimony is generally unnecessary during jury trials.
B) The expert did not have the required credentials and expertise.
C) BWS is not generally accepted as legitimate in the field of psychology.
D) All of the above were offered as the reasons by both judges.
Q2) All of the following are descriptions of what syndrome is EXCEPT:
A) a pattern of behaviors describing a group of similar people.
B) a cluster of related symptoms that lead to a significant dysfunction.
C) a set of psychological and emotional reactions to a specific event.
D) a group of symptoms that women experience but men don't.
Q3) Lenore Walker has identified several characteristics that she thought most battered women shared. Which one is NOT among these characteristics?
A) Belief that women should be submissive to their husbands.
B) Tendency to accept responsibility for the abuse.
C) Poor self-image.
D) Poor family upbringing.
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
Q2) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
Q3) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) What is the best description of the NICHD Investigative Interview protocol?
A) This is a technique designed to reduce biased questioning and elicit true responses from children.
B) This is a technique using closed-ended questions to interview alleged victims who are children.
C) This is a protocol for using Bobo Dolls to release children's desire for letting their anger out.
D) This is coercive approach to interviewing intended to overcome the resistance of concealing the abuse.
Q2) One reason why adult hearsay witness testimony may be perceived differently from that of a child, is that:
A) adults are more confident in their testimony.
B) children are less nervous.
C) adults are more likely to lie without being caught.
D) children are more likely to make eye contact.
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) There were several experiments conducted by researchers to evaluate children's susceptibility to suggestive questioning. These studies probably underestimate the children's tendency to agree with misleading questions for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A) questioning techniques in real cases were much more forceful than in experiments. B) in real cases, children were questioned multiple times by different interviewers.
C) information obtained by interviewers in real cases was shared with parents who also questioned their children.
D) children in the experiments were much older than children in the day care center cases.
Q2) Extensive research shows that the use of anatomically detailed dolls:
A) tends to have no effect on children's accounts in sexual abuse investigations.
B) increases the number of false allegations of children in sexual abuse cases.
C) decreases the number of true allegations by children in sexual abuse cases.
D) only has an effect on girls but not on boys in recalling sexual abuse.
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Q1) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
Q2) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
Q3) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
Makers
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Q1) Children may also be screened by psychologists in custody cases. Generally, three categories of tests are administered:
A) personality, intelligence, and aptitude evaluations.
B) intelligence, personality, and achievement evaluations.
C) projective, personality, and aptitude evaluations.
D) intelligence, personality, and projective evaluations.
Q2) One criticism of the majority of currently used projective tests is that they:
A) have high reliability.
B) have low validity.
C) have high validity.
D) are not criterion referenced.
Q3) One problem with the BICS is that it can:
A) reduce conflict between the judge and the parents.
B) escalate conflicts between parents.
C) adequately predict the future.
D) promote healthy development in children.
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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a weakness of the best interest of the child standard (BICS)?
A) Vagueness of the criteria for custody decisions.
B) Possible escalation of conflicts and litigation between parents.
C) Asking courts to predict the future.
D) Presumption that mother is entitled to custody.
Q2) According to the text, which of the following is NOT a reason for the paucity of research on the long-term effects of divorce on children?
A) Longitudinal research is difficult, expensive, and time-consuming to conduct.
B) It is difficult to determine whether psychological problems predated the divorce or were caused by it.
C) It is difficult to publish this type of research in scientific journals because it is interdisciplinary.
D) It is difficult to measure the variables indicating healthy adjustment in children.
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q2) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
Q3) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) When jurors change their votes under the pressure from other jurors, even though they did not change their minds, this phenomenon is also referred to as:
A) open conflict.
B) informational influence.
C) normative influence.
D) leniency bias.
Q2) In a post verdict survey, it was discovered that _____ of jurors stated that they had adequate opportunities to express their views.
A) about a quarter
B) a half
C) about 75%
D) over 95%
Q3) Interestingly, if a defendant is injured in the course of committing a crime:
A) jurors are more likely to hand down a harsh sentence.
B) jurors are more likely to hand down a lenient sentence.
C) judges and jurors are more likely to disagree about a sentence.
D) judges and jurors are more likely to agree about a sentence.
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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a factor likely to lead to a hung jury?
A) Unanimous decision rules.
B) Ambiguity of evidence.
C) Length of trial.
D) Attorney skills.
Q2) Which of the following states requires judges to pre-instruct juries?
A) Arizona.
B) California.
C) New Mexico.
D) New York.
Q3) For centuries, English law dictated that a jury should have _____ people. In the United States, the minimum constitutionally allowed number of jurors is _____.
A) 12; 6
B) 8; 12
C) 8; 6
D) 6; 12
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Chapter 14: Section 1: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
Q2) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
Q3) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) The strategy whereby psychologists predict future violence that does not entail specific rules of how to collect information is called:
A) unstructured clinical judgment.
B) scientific approach.
C) experimental approach.
D) observational study.
Q2) The burden of proof for civil commitment is:
A) beyond a reasonable doubt.
B) clear and convincing evidence.
C) a preponderance of the evidence.
D) dependent on the defendant's prior criminal and hospital record.
Q3) _____ is a method of prediction that requires that relevant risk factors be statistically evaluated to calculate the probability of future violence.
A) Clinical prediction
B) Idiographic prediction
C) Actuarial prediction
D) Mathematical equation
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a historical, or "static", marker?
A) Major mental disorder.
B) Personality disorder.
C) Impulsivity.
D) Age at first offense.
Q2) Many states and the federal government have passed sexually violent predator civil commitment laws. The basis of these laws is to protect vulnerable citizens, or exercise the _____ power, and to restrain violent individuals, or exercise the state's _____ power.
A) parens patriae; police
B) police; parens patriae
C) double jeopardy; substantive
D) substantive; double jeopardy
Q3) Actuarial instruments _____ clinical judgement in predicting violence, though scientists raised some concerns about _____.
A) clearly outperform; their impersonal nature
B) clearly outperform; their generalizability
C) do not outperform; the usefulness of either method
D) do not outperform; the questionable scientific techniques involved
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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
Q2) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
Q3) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk
Assessment
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Q1) Sexually harassing behaviors may be attributed to a range of motives. According to the text, job type may be a component of how and why harassment occurs. For example, positions considered traditionally held by women may contribute to harassment because they elicit protectiveness and _____. Conversely, for women in jobs historically held by men, the harassment is linked to _____ a female coworker's job performance.
A) a desire for intimacy; defining B) domination; interfering with C) "putting her in her place"; dominating D) sexual attention; undermining
Q2) The sexual discrimination law is an amendment to:
A)the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
B)the Don't Ask Don't Tell policy.
C)the Bill of Rights.
D)the Right to Vote Act.
Q3) Studies have shown that the most likely targets of harassment are:
A) attractive young men.
B) young, unmarried women.
C) divorcees.
D) minorities.
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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) On the basis of their studies, Fiske and Glick made several recommendations for reducing the incidence of harassment. Which of the following is NOT included in their recommendations?
A) Making clear standards for what is appropriate and not appropriate in professional settings.
B) Eliminating sexually explicit materials in the workplace.
C) Ensuring gender neutrality in promotion and hiring decisions.
D) Posting the rules of conduct prominently displayed in several locations in the workplace.
Q2) Studies conducted on desegregation after the Brown v. Board of Education ruling in 1954 found that:
A) desegregation had no effect on prejudice.
B) desegregation led to an increase in prejudice of Whites toward Blacks.
C) desegregation led to a decrease in prejudice of Whites toward Blacks.
D) desegregation only decreased prejudice in schools but not in the workplace.
Q3) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964:
A) outlawed discrimination based on race.
B) outlawed discrimination based on gender.
C) specifically addressed the issue of sexual harassment in the workplace.
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D) outlawed discrimination based on race and gender.
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Chapter 16: Section 1: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
Q2) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
Q3) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) In the early 1800s, a move away from attributing a religious cause to criminal behavior, such as individuals being born evil, occurred. The more secular approach recognized that the cause might not only be placed on the individual, but some responsibility could be attributed to:
A) family history.
B) developmental issues.
C) social disorganization.
D) environmental deterioration.
Q2) One way that criminals were punished in the American colonies was through _____, which included being placed into stocks.
A) imprisonment
B) work release
C) public shaming
D) probation
Q3) Prisons generally hold criminals:
A) for a long period of time.
B) for a short period of time.
C) until they receive a hearing.
D) while they await trial.
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) When an inmate is released from prison before his or her entire sentence has been served, to remain under the supervision of an officer in the community, this is called:
A) probation.
B) parole.
C) suspended sentence.
D) general deterrence.
Q2) The rate of HIV/AIDS among state and federal prisoners is about _____ times higher than the rate for the general population.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 12
Q3) Crime rates have been _____ for the last 15 to 20 years. However, the rate of incarceration in the United States is _____ that of other industrialized democracies.
A) falling; getting close to B) rising; getting close to C) rising; much lower than D) falling; still several times higher than
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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Q1) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
Q2) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
Q3) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Mitigating factors in capital cases are characteristics that make:
A) sure the death penalty will be fast and painless.
B) the need for execution clear.
C) a case for humane execution.
D) execution less appropriate.
Q2) Following Gregg v. Georgia and its companion cases, all death sentences are:
A) upheld.
B) considered unconstitutional.
C) deemed appropriate.
D) reviewed by state supreme courts.
Q3) In Gregg v. Georgia, and in companion cases, the Supreme Court set up a series of reforms. These reforms are referred to as:
A) formal edicts.
B) recommendation statutes.
C) guided discretion statutes.
D) state laws.
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Since the abolition of slavery, there has been an enduring effect of race on how the defendant was sentenced. Evidence of racial discrimination in administering the death penalty is clearest in cases involving:
A) rape.
B) treason.
C) gang-related murder.
D) aggravated incest.
Q2) Baldus, Woodworth, and Pulaski (1990) analyzed 594 homicides in Georgia and found that blacks convicted of killing whites were sentenced to death in _____ of capital cases, while whites convicted of killing blacks were sentenced to death in _____ of capital cases.
A) 100%; 25%
B) 22%; 3%
C) 31%; 52%
D) 50%; 63%
Q3) How many states have NO death penalty?
A) 18
B) 29
C) 31
D) 37
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