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The Psychology of Attitudes and Persuasion explores the mental processes behind how individuals form, maintain, and change attitudes, as well as how these attitudes influence behavior. This course examines key theories and research on the structure and function of attitudes, the dynamics of attitude change, and the principles of effective persuasion. Students will analyze factors such as message framing, source credibility, emotional appeals, and resistance to persuasion. Through real-world examples and experimental findings, the course provides an in-depth understanding of how persuasive communication operates in various domains, including media, advertising, politics, and interpersonal relationships.
Recommended Textbook
Social Psychology 4th Edition by Tom Gilovich
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Q1) While boarding a plane, Doug feels fear when he notices another passenger sitting in his seat looking agitated, sweating profusely, and holding a backpack. In this situation, Doug's
A) emotional reaction is probably controlled by careful, systematic thought.
B) emotional reaction probably occurs before careful, systematic thought takes over.
C) careful, systematic thought is probably controlled by his emotional reaction.
D) careful, systematic thought probably occurs before his emotional reaction takes over.
Answer: B
Q2) Theory of mind is important for group living because it
A) is necessary for language acquisition.
B) can treat autism.
C) can prevent misunderstandings that could lead to aggression or death.
D) decreases selection pressures.
Answer: C
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Q1) Describe the difference between a natural experiment and a true experiment conducted in the laboratory.
Answer: In a natural experiment, a naturally occurring event creates somewhat different conditions (before and after) that can be compared. This comparison can be done with nearly as much rigor as in a True experiment in which the researcher manipulates conditions. A natural experiment differs from a True experiment because there is no random assignment.
Q2) Describe the necessary components of a true experiment.
Answer: Several answers are acceptable, including the following: A True experiment involves randomly assigning participants to experimental and control conditions. The only difference between these conditions must be the level of the independent variable.
Q3) Experiments are different from other research methods in that they encompass which of the following components?
A) self-selection
B) two variables
C) random sampling
D) random assignment
Answer: D
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Q1) Ryan begins his twenty-page sociology paper at about 5 p.m. on the night before the paper is due. At around 6 p.m., Gary requests a favor that would take several hours. Ryan grants the favor and ends up leaving himself just a few hours to complete the paper. Later, when friends ask Ryan about his paper grade, he says, "I got a D because I was helping Gary all night instead of writing." This scenario exemplifies a self-presentation process called
A) self-handicapping.
B) self-fulfilling prophecy.
C) overjustification.
D) self-promotion.
Answer: A
Q2) ________ is useful in developing our self-concept, but it can lead us to lose some self-esteem, at least temporarily.
A) Upward comparison
B) Downward comparison
C) Self-affirmation
D) Self-aggrandizement
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following news headlines would be most likely to make a lasting impression on readers?
A) Baby Elephant Takes First Steps!
B) Stocks Plummet on Release of Dire Economic Forecast!
C) The Prince Marries!
D) Navy Helps Giant Sea Turtles!
Q2) Many members of a street gang believe privately that their initiation process is too harsh and dangerous. However, they do not express these beliefs because they assume that everyone else thinks the initiation process is just fine. This scenario exemplifies
A) pluralistic ignorance.
B) group rationalization.
C) counterfactual conformity.
D) the framing effect.
Q3) Explain how schemas can influence: (a) attention; (b) inferences about other people; and (c) behavior.
Q4) Describe the factors that determine whether a schema is accessible (activated) and whether it is applied.
Q5) Describe top-down processing and bottom-up processing.
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Q1) According to the augmentation principle, which action is most likely to be attributed to the personality of the actor?
A) clapping after a musical performance
B) asking a server for the check after finishing a meal
C) wearing a tropical shirt and shorts to a funeral
D) dancing at a party
Q2) What is a counterfactual thought? Explain the circumstances under which it is most likely to occur.
Q3) What is the just world hypothesis? In addition, explain how this hypothesis is relevant to the fundamental attribution error.
Q4) The self-serving bias tends to reflect all of the following EXCEPT
A) the motivation to feel good about oneself.
B) rational thought processes.
C) sound attributional reasoning.
D) the motivation to be in control.
Q5) Explain the fundamental attribution error. Provide three explanations for why it occurs.
Q6) Defend the position that the self-serving attributional bias is NOT always based on the motivation to maintain self-esteem.
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Q1) Darwin's principle of serviceable habits suggests that facial expressions of emotion
A) arose randomly as a result of genetic mutations.
B) reliably solve challenges in contemporary society.
C) derived from behaviors that proved useful and adaptive to our ancestors.
D) are present only in humans because only humans experience emotions.
Q2) Mohammed is at a bar and notices an attractive woman sitting with her friends. According to what you learned about flirtation and nonverbal behavior, what is Mohammed likely to do first to communicate his interest?
A) look her way and then take a broad stance to look large
B) look her way and then smile coyly
C) walk by her and then provocatively brush her arm
D) walk by her and then provocatively raise his eyebrows
Q3) What are the two measurable components of happiness?
A) communion with God; life satisfaction
B) life satisfaction; emotional well-being
C) emotional well-being; hedonic experience
D) hedonic experience; communion with God
Q4) Describe how the appraisal processes give rise to the experience of emotion.
Q5) Describe the five components of emotion and give an example of each.
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Q1) In the 1930s, a time when anti-Asian sentiments were common, Richard LaPiere toured the United States with a young Chinese couple. Together they visited numerous hotels, auto camps, restaurants, and cafes. LaPiere compared the attitudes of people who managed these various establishments with how well (or poorly) these people actually treated the Chinese couple. The text used this study to introduce an important point, namely, that the effect of ________ than people think.
A) attitudes on behavior is weaker
B) norms on attitudes is stronger
C) attitudes on behavior is stronger
D) norms on attitudes is weaker
Q2) Attitudes do a good job predicting behavior when
A) there is discord among the affective and cognitive components of the attitude.
B) attitudes are measured with Likert scales.
C) attitudes and behavior are measured at the same levels of specificity.
D) introspecting about an attitude that is hard to pin down.
Q3) In what ways does self-perception theory fall short in explaining the relationship between attitudes and behaviors?
Q4) Define attitude and describe the components of an attitude.
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Q1) The process by which small attacks on our beliefs help counteract larger attacks on our beliefs is called
A) thought forewarning.
B) thought polarization.
C) attitude habituation.
D) attitude inoculation.
Q2) Imagine that your local campus police officers need help solving a crime. They have two witnesses whose accounts of the event are inconsistent, which suggests that one of them is lying. Whom should the local police call to best assist them in detecting the liar?
A) a local attorney
B) They do not need help-most people are good at detecting lies.
C) a Secret Service agent
D) a clinical psychology professor on campus
Q3) According to Shanto Iyengar's concept of agenda control, the
A) media directly influence people's moment-by-moment behavior.
B) media shape what people think about, care about, and believe to be true.
C) government controls people's purchasing patterns.
D) government manipulates people's social beliefs.
Q4) Give three examples of how the media can shape our conception of social reality.
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Q1) Reactance theory suggests that compliance may be ________ likely if people ________.
A) more; are aware that others are trying to influence their behavior.
B) less; perceive that their freedom of choice is being threatened.
C) more; are motivated to feel better about themselves.
D) less; are motivated to feel better about themselves.
Q2) Imagine that you work for a student newspaper, and your job is to sell ad space to local shops. Explain how you could increase your chances of getting a shop to buy ad space if you used (a) the that's-not-all technique and (b) the reciprocal concessions (door-in-the-face) technique. In your answer, first define each of these techniques. Then, for each technique, describe what you would do to convince shop managers to buy ad space.
Q3) According to research on informational social influence, Anton is more likely to agree with the recommendations of others on the best tax-preparation company to use if he
A) is in a bad mood.
B) does not know much about tax preparation.
C) wants to be liked.
D) has internalized cultural norms.
Q4) Describe the phenomenon of automatic mimicry and give two reasons why it occurs.
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Q1) The strongest support for the claim that we have a need to belong comes from the finding that
A) when we lose a friendship, we do not seek out new friendships.
B) only humans form long-lasting relationships.
C) relationships are vital to our physical and mental well-being.
D) relationship styles vary among cultures.
Q2) As a child, Veronica was neglected by her parents. Veronica's internal working model of relationships is likely to include the belief that
A) other people can be relied on in times of need.
B) she can reliably provide security to others.
C) other people will be rejecting.
D) she is worthy of love.
Q3) Research conducted by John Gottman and Robert Levenson using the interaction dynamics approach yielded four behaviors that are particularly toxic to relationships. Which of the following is NOT one of these four behaviors?
A) stonewalling
B) contempt
C) defensiveness
D) rationalizing
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Q1) Alec thinks that members of a particular group are hostile, and therefore he acts toward them in a guarded manner. As a result, Alec may elicit a coldness in members of that group that he sees as proof of their hostility. This scenario is an example of A) the self-fulfilling prophecy.
B) ingroup homogeneity.
C) paired distinctiveness.
D) illusory correlation.
Q2) The American journalist Walter Lippmann stated that "the real environment is altogether too big, too complex, and too fleeting, for direct acquaintance. . . . We have to reconstruct it on a simpler model before we can manage with it." By a "simpler model," he is referring to A) priming.
B) discrimination.
C) paired distinctiveness.
D) stereotypes.
Q3) How do threats to self-esteem impact people's attitudes toward outgroup members? Provide one example of a relevant study. According to social identity theory, why do self-esteem threats have this effect?
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Q1) Kari is practicing lines for a school play. According to the research reviewed in the textbook, under what conditions will the presence of others detract from her ability to learn the lines?
A) if the other people are blindfolded
B) if Kari finds the task easy
C) if Kari knows the lines well
D) if Kari finds the task difficult
Q2) In which of the following scenarios is social loafing most likely to occur?
A) during a competitive bike race such as the Tour de France
B) while moving large furniture with a group of friends
C) during a group project where each group member's work will be graded individually
D) when trick-or-treaters are asked to provide their names
Q3) Define the phenomenon of social facilitation and explain Robert Zajonc's three-component theory of when and why it occurs.
Q4) What distinguishes the concept of authority from status and dominance?
A) It is a behavior enacted with the goal of obtaining power.
B) It involves an evaluation of respect and prominence.
C) It involves the use of force to exert power over others.
D) It refers to power that derives from institutionalized roles or arrangements.
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Q1) Research conducted by Phil Tetlock and colleagues (1981) has shown that ________ reasoning can lead to more effective peacemaking between groups in conflict.
A) emotion-based
B) complex
C) logic-based
D) circular
Q2) Ralph killed his wife in order to collect on a large life insurance policy. This scenario is an example of ________ aggression.
A) hostile
B) instrumental
C) modern
D) functionalist
Q3) In what month might you expect that major league baseball pitchers would be more likely to hit batters?
A) April
B) March
C) August
D) September
Q4) Define culture of honor and describe its influence on aggression.
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Q1) Give an example of how construal processes can influence cooperation.
Q2) Trina is a straight-A student who takes detailed notes. Before an exam, four other students approach Trina and ask if she is willing to share her notes with them. Based on research on the situational determinants of cooperation, with whom is Trina most likely to share her notes?
A) Randy, who often studies with Trina
B) Sean, who is also a straight-A student
C) Lenny, who rarely interacts with Trina
D) Kelly, who never comes to class
Q3) The concept of altruism refers to
A) behavior that enhances the survival of one's own genes.
B) unselfish behavior that benefits others without regard to consequences for the self.
C) feelings of compassion toward a needy other.
D) an action intended to benefit both the self and someone else at the same time.
Q4) Imagine that you have lost your wallet. Where would you be more likely to receive help-in a large city or in a small rural town? Justify your answer on the basis of research and theory.
Q5) Describe the tit-for-tat strategy and evaluate its effectiveness.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT likely a mechanism by which optimism is associated with better physical health?
A) Optimists are more likely to engage in good health practices.
B) Optimists are more likely to respond to stress with less HPA axis activity.
C) Optimists are less likely to need to rely on others for support.
D) Optimists are more likely to develop good social support networks.
Q2) If we know that Jon left school after the eighth grade and has been working as a janitor for the past twenty years, what research-based predictions could we make about his health status?
A) Jon is more likely to have chronically low levels of cortisol.
B) Jon is more likely to die at an earlier age than those in higher-status jobs.
C) Jon is less likely to develop heart disease because his job involves less stress.
D) If Jon has children, they will be less likely to die in infancy.
Q3) In psychology, the term rumination refers to the
A) tendency to eat food thoroughly to aid digestion.
B) tendency to think about a stressful event over and over again.
C) digestive system dysfunction associated with exposure to multiple stressors.
D) illusion that we are in control of events.
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Q1) Risk aversion is the
A) general human tendency to stay away from activities that are dangerous, even if they may be fun.
B) reluctance to choose an uncertain option that, on average, pays better than the certain payoff of a second option.
C) reluctance to enter into any transaction in which the outcome is not known with certainty.
D) tendency to seek out activities that are mildly dangerous but thrilling.
Q2) According to the textbook, research has found that people experience greater neural activation when considering ________ than when considering ________.
A) saving; spending
B) spending; saving
C) losses; gains
D) gains; losses
Q3) Define sunk cost fallacy and describe one research finding that demonstrates this phenomenon.
Q4) Explain what is meant by mental accounting and describe the disadvantages of mental accounting for financial decision making.
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Q1) Bob is from a working-class family and is the first in his family to attend college. He receives a welcome letter that emphasizes how he will be able to explore his personal interests and participate in independent research. According to the research discussed in the text, how is Bob likely to respond to this letter?
A) Bob is likely to be excited about attending college and taking advantage of these opportunities.
B) Bob is likely to focus on how he can impress his professors and do well in his classes.
C) Bob is likely to become more stressed about college and worried about making social connections.
D) This particular letter will not influence Bob's thoughts about attending college.
Q2) Entertainment-education is based on the work of the learning theorist
A) B. F. Skinner.
B) Nathan Aaronson.
C) Albert Bandura.
D) Philip Zimbardo.
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Q1) Compare the just desserts and deterrence motives for punishment. In addition, explain how these motives are related to cultural variations in punishment.
Q2) Travis is part of a six-person jury on a money laundering case. Although the majority of jury members believe that the defendant is guilty, Travis believes that she did not do it. He tries to convince the others of his perspective. Why might Travis be more successful in making his case if he was part of a typical twelve-person jury, rather than this six-person jury?
A) Travis is more likely to try harder if he has to convince eleven other people.
B) Travis is more likely to have an ally in a twelve-person jury.
C) By law, twelve-person juries have to deliberate longer.
D) Twelve-person juries have access to more evidence.
Q3) Eyewitness errors have been found to be involved in more than ________ percent of cases of wrongful convictions.
A) 50
B) 25
C) 75
D) 90
Q4) Explain how stereotypes can lead to biases in our criminal justice system.
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