
Course Introduction

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Psychology of Aging explores the psychological changes and challenges individuals face as they grow older. This course examines cognitive, emotional, and social development across late adulthood, addressing issues such as memory changes, personality, mental health, and the impact of physical aging on psychological well-being. Students will learn about the theories of aging, patterns of adaptation, the influence of societal attitudes towards aging, and how families and communities can support healthy aging. The course also considers interventions and strategies to promote mental health and positive aging, preparing students to understand and work with older adults in various professional settings.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Human Development A Life Span View 2nd Edition by Robert V. Kail
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Sample Questions
Q1) The information-processing theory of development likens human cognitive processes to the functions of a
A) motorcycle.
B) cellular phone.
C) computer.
D) television
Answer: C
Q2) Marielle and Dominic have not seen each other since high school, and they are both getting ready to attend their 30-year reunion. Marielle remembers Dominic as being a very playful, funny, and easy-going person. She is looking forward to seeing him, and expects that he will be very much the same as he was 30 years ago. Marielle's expectation demonstrates a belief in
A) universal development.
B) continuity.
C) nurture.
D) nature.
Answer: B
Q3) A subset of a population is called a(n) _______________.
Answer: sample
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sickle-cell disease is a direct result of teratogenic influences, including maternal malnutrition or tobacco use.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Pregnant Patty's body is currently experiencing the event that triggers hormonal changes that will prevent further menstruation. This event is called
A) implantation.
B) conception.
C) dilation.
D) effacement.
Answer: A
Q3) About 10% to 15% of new mother experience the "baby blues," which is a very serious psychological condition that can lead to problems for the child.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you were going to design a public service announcement (PSA) to run on television with the goal of reducing the incidence of SIDS, which of the following might be the motto of your piece?
A) Back to Sleep!
B) Sidestep SIDS!
C) Front and Center!
D) No Diaper, No Problem!
Answer: A
Q2) If you were to follow the advice of your authors, which of the following articles of clothing would you avoid giving to a two- or three-year-old child?
A) A pair of sneakers with Velcro closures
B) A button-down shirt
C) A pair of shorts with a zipper
D) A pair of sweatpants with a drawstring
Answer: B
Q3) The _______________ appears when you stroke a child's foot and the toes fan outward.
Answer: Babinski reflex

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Sample Questions
Q1) Joe is 18 months old, and is playing with his sister. He looks at her holding the inflatable beach ball, and says "up ball" as he holds out his hands. Joe's attempt to communicate using on a few essential words would be described as ____.
A) phonemic
B) morphemic
C) holophrastic
D) telegraphic
Q2) Several criticisms of Piaget's theory of cognitive development have been offered over the years. Which of the following is NOT one of these?
A) The theory underestimates the cognitive skills of infants and young children.
B) The theory overestimates the cognitive skills of adolescents.
C) The theory does not account for variability in children's performance.
D) The theory is based on an excessively large sample.
Q3) According to Piaget, a preoperational child's view of the world is _______________; that is, they believe that others see the world exactly as they do.
Q4) A(n) _______________ is an early infant vowel-like sound.
Q5) The fourth stage of cognitive development in Piaget's model is the _______________ period.
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Erikson, the first three stages of psychosocial development involve the crises of basic trust vs. mistrust, autonomy vs. shame and doubt, and initiative vs. guilt.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All cultures have gender stereotypes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does temperament contribute to attachment?
A) Infants with easygoing temperaments are more likely to form disorganized attachments.
B) Infants who fuss often and are difficult to console are more prone to insecure attachments.
C) Infants with moms who have rigid temperaments tend to form secure attachments.
D) All infants, regardless of temperament, are equally likely to form secure attachments.
Q4) Describe the relationship between gender stereotypes and actual differences between boys and girls. Are any of these stereotypes accurate? Explain.
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Q1) Creativity is strongly linked to ________________ thinking, which refers to the ability to think in novel and unusual directions.
Q2) Your authors note that as children progress through the elementary-school years, they become more adept at selecting appropriate strategies for learning and remembering. These skills fall under the larger heading of
A) metacognition.
B) metamemory.
C) meta-analysis
D) metamorphosis
Q3) Thirteen-year-old Kiki is learning to play the piano, and her teacher is showing her the notes of a standard musical scale. She is struggling to remember which notes go on the lines and which notes go in the spaces, so the teacher says, "To remember that the line notes are E, G, B, D, and F, just say to yourself 'Every Good Boy Does Fine'." This type of memory strategy demonstrates ____.
A) formalizing
B) reversibility
C) operations
D) organization
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of using role-playing to help teach effective parenting strategies?
A) It helps communicate the benefits of an authoritative parenting style.
B) It helps demonstrate the effective use of feedback with children.
C) It helps show how modeling can be used to regulate children's behaviors.
D) It helps illustrate the benefits of a "parent time-out" in the home.
Q2) When Jonathon's son, Graham, misbehaves in the grocery store, Jonathon firmly scolds him and tells him, "If you do not start behaving, I will put back the cookies that you asked for." Jonathon is using a type of feedback called negative reinforcement with his son.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hostile aggression is provoked and occurs with an explicit goal in mind.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One factor that contributes to an increased likelihood that a child will be abused or neglected is _______________, because a lack of money significantly increases the stress of daily life.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents the correct stages of moral development, according to Lawrence Kohlberg?
A) oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
B) childhood, adolescence, emerging adulthood, young adulthood, middle adulthood, late adulthood
C) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations, postformal operations
D) preconventional, conventional, postconventional
Q2) Sedentary lifestyle is an important risk factor for obesity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which word best encapsulates why adolescents become more adept at problem solving and specific skill mastery as compared to young children?
A) scaffolding
B) analysis
C) experience
D) metamemory
Q4) Describe four changes that occur in information processing during adolescence.
Q5) The _______________ level is Kohlberg's highest level of moral reasoning.
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Q1) _______________ tends to become more differentiated as children become adolescents, and develop the ability to evaluate themselves in many different domains.
Q2) The main assumption of Holland's theory is that people
A) develop career goals at different rates.
B) will be happiest in work environments that match their personalities.
C) should take tests to determine which career is best for them.
D) should choose a career based on economic issues.
Q3) Romantic relationships in adolescence tend to diverge markedly from friendships, as the two types of bonds are so different that they bear almost no resemblance to each other.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Research has found that there are several characteristics of youngsters that predict higher levels of aggressive behavior. These include all but which of the following?
A) they are temperamentally difficult
B) they are devoted to their religion
C) they are overly emotional
D) they are inattentive

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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical functioning generally peaks during A) early adolescence.
B) young adulthood
C) middle adulthood.
D) middle adolescence.
Q2) A bar or bat mitzvah, graduating from high school, and getting married are all examples of rites of ________________.
Q3) When presented with a moral dilemma, 52-year-old Ophelia recognizes that there is not one single way to determine the right answer. She looks for contextual cues to guide her thinking, and considers many different sources of information. Ophelia is demonstrating ________________ thought.
Q4) Describe why the terms multidimensional, multidirectional, interindividual variability, and plasticity, as proposed by Baltes and colleagues (2006) may be the most accurate way to describe intelligence in adulthood.
Q5) Related groups of ________________ mental abilities can be clustered in to a half dozen or so broader skills, termed ________________ mental abilities.
Q6) ________________ adulthood is the time when someone is more than an adolescent and less than a full adult.
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Q1) ____ is an approach based on the idea that the more prepared a couple is for marriage, the better the relationship will survive over the long run.
A) No Marriage Left Behind
B) "Connections"
C) Marriage education
D) Contracted relationship consulting
Q2) An important element of foster parenting is the concern over the level of bonding that will take place between a child and the foster parents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) _______________ family consists of parents and children living in a home together.
Q4) In some cultures, women may be killed by their brothers or other male relatives killing the victim because the relatives believe she has violated the family's honor. A)True
B)False
Q5) The "A" in the ABCDE model of adult friendship development stands for
13
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Q1) A study of occupational selection by men and women that was conducted in India found that when a man and woman held the same position, the man was likely to earn higher "respectability" ratings from
A) other men but not women.
B) both other men and women.
C) women but not other men.
D) neither other men nor women.
Q2) Although she is well-liked within the organization and in no danger of losing her job, Tammy has not been promoted for some time due to the fact that she has not kept up with the technological advances in her field. Tammy is most likely experiencing A) the glass ceiling.
B) a career plateau.
C) burnout.
D) vocational maturity.
Q3) The U.S. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1986 protects workers over age A) 30.
B) 40.
C) 50. D) 60.

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Q1) Based on the information presented in your textbook, why do you think that women might be at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis than men?
A) Estrogen depletion is a causal factor in the development of osteoporosis, so when women experience a drop in estrogen it is a greater influence than for men.
B) Women tend to exercise less than men, and a lack of weight-bearing exercise is related to the development of osteoporosis.
C) A deficit of calcium absorption is a major culprit in osteoporosis, and women tend to drink less milk than men, particularly during infancy, when bones are forming.
D) Osteoporosis is a "primary X-delimited chromosomal" problem, and since women have two X chromosomes they have twice as much risk factor.
Q2) The basic indicators or personality _______________ tend to show stability or decline with age.
Q3) Describe the two dimensions of grandparenting noted in your textbook. What other roles do grandparents play in their grandchildren's lives?
Q4) List and give a brief description of each of the Big Five personality traits.
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Q1) By the year 2030, it is estimated that approximately ____ percent of older adults in the United States will have earned a college degree.
A) 45
B) 60
C) 75
D) 90
Q2) Approximately ______ percent of all adults over the age of 85, irrespective of ethnicity, race, or socioeconomic status, suffer from Alzheimer's disease.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 38
D) 50
Q3) Residents of nursing homes and frail older adults are especially prone to deficiencies in which nutrient?
A) vitamin C
B) fiber
C) folic acid
D) protein
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Q1) Medicare Part B covers the cost of physician services, outpatient hospital services, medical equipment and supplies, and other health services and supplies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The people who go through your life with you, providing support in both good times and bad, comprise a social ________.
A) cooperative
B) cohort
C) convoy
D) construct
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of older couples?
A) They have selective memory regarding the occurrence of negative events in their relationship.
B) They have a greater potential for pleasure with their partner.
C) They are similar in terms of their mental and physical health.
D) They have an increased potential for marital conflict.
Q4) When two older adults form a romantic relationship but maintain separate living situations, they are "living ________________."
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Q1) When family members or other surrogates must make decisions about end-of-life care for someone else, they are
A) mostly in agreement with patients' desires.
B) unwilling to talk about patients' end-of-life issues.
C) typically not competent to make such decisions.
D) often wrong about what patients really want.
Q2) A Harris poll released in 2011 revealed that 70% of adults questioned favor the idea that people have a right to choose to end their lives in certain instances. Which of the following was NOT one of the criteria used for that finding?
A) The person in question was terminally ill.
B) The person in question had no family or friends to support them.
C) The person in question was in tremendous pain.
D) The person in question had no chance of recovering.
Q3) Of the following, which would be the BEST example of active euthanasia?
A) disconnecting a patient's ventilator
B) opting not to perform CPR on a person in cardiac arrest
C) administering a shot of a medication designed to stop someone's heart
D) withholding food from a patient in a persistent vegetative state
Q4) Hospice is best thought of as an approach and not a physical place. Explain.
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