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The Psychology of Aging explores the psychological processes and changes that occur as individuals grow older. This course examines cognitive, emotional, social, and physical aspects of aging, integrating current research and theories to understand how aging affects memory, personality, mental health, and social relationships. Students will analyze age-related challenges and the strategies for successful aging, as well as the impact of cultural, societal, and biological factors on the experience of growing older. The course also considers interventions and policies that promote well-being in late adulthood, preparing students to support aging populations in diverse contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Lifespan Development 4th Edition by Laura E. Berk
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Q1) Tammy's father is an exceptional gymnast. When Tammy was just a toddler, her father believed that Tammy already showed great promise as a gymnast. Tammy's father probably believes that athletic ability is mostly determined by __________.
A) nurture
B) stages
C) nature
D) early experiences
Answer: C
Q2) __________ influences are irregular and do not follow a predictable timetable.
A) Nonnormative
B) History-graded
C) Age-graded
D) Bio-historical
Answer: A
Q3) Which research method is an outgrowth of psychoanalytic theory?
A) naturalistic observation
B) structured observation
C) ethnography
D) the clinical method
Answer: D
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Q1) Dr. Rudy wants to compare the characteristics of family members. Which type of research would you recommend that Dr. Rudy use?
A) kinship study
B) case study
C) structured observation
D) experimental design
Answer: A
Q2) Angela, a cooperative and attentive child, receives more patient and sensitive interactions from her parents than Carlos, who is inattentive and hyperactive. This is an example of a(n) __________ gene-environment correlation.
A) active
B) evocative
C) dynamic
D) passive
Answer: B
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Q1) Newborn infants who are brain damaged or who have experienced birth trauma often __________.
A) display disturbed REM-NREM sleep cycles
B) spend more time alert than those with no brain-functioning problems
C) spend about 20 percent of their total sleep time in REM sleep
D) have very low or inaudible cries
Answer: A
Q2) If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum shrinks, and the __________.
A) cells begin to duplicate
B) one-celled zygote multiplies and forms a blastocyst
C) germinal period begins
D) lining of the uterus is discarded
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is well-developed at birth?
A) visual acuity
B) color vision
C) depth perception
D) sensitivity to touch
Answer: D
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Q1) __________ growth is a return to a genetically influenced growth path once negative conditions improve.
A) Cephalocaudal
B) Proximodistal
C) Catch-up
D) Thyroid-stimulating
Q2) Some responses, such as __________, are very difficult to classically condition in young babies because they do not yet have the motor skills needed to deal appropriately with the stimuli.
A) contentment
B) fear
C) hunger
D) sucking
Q3) Newborn Sam's __________ is nearer to its adult size than any other physical structure.
A) heart
B) brain
C) spinal cord
D) femur

Page 6
Q4) Explain intermodal perception and its importance to perceptual development.
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Q1) __________ control(s) attention by inhibiting impulses and by flexibly directing thought and behavior.
A) Automatic processes
B) Working memory
C) Executive function
D) Mirror neurons
Q2) According to Piaget, adaptation involves __________.
A) creating new schemes
B) using our current schemes to interpret the external world
C) building schemes through direct interaction with the environment
D) adjusting old schemes after noticing that our current ways of thinking are not working
Q3) On Monday, 20-month-old Raoul watches his older brother Carlos stir his applesauce with a spoon. On Thursday, Raoul tries to use a spoon to stir his applesauce. Raoul is using a(n) __________ to imitate Carlos's behavior.
A) reflexive scheme
B) primary circular reaction
C) A-not-B search error
D) mental representation
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Q1) Jaynie is cheerful and upbeat. Alayna is prone to angry outbursts. These descriptions refer to __________.
A) temperament
B) effortful control
C) reactivity
D) self-regulation
Q2) Quality of attachment is usually secure and stable for __________.
A) babies of depressed mothers
B) babies who have experienced maltreatment
C) low-SES babies from families with many daily stressors
D) middle-SES babies experiencing favorable life conditions
Q3) Beckham is 18 months old. His parents want to encourage him to eat fruit. Which approach would be most effective in accomplishing this task using social referencing?
A) slowly nodding when Beckham eats fruit
B) smiling and saying "Yummy!" when Beckham eats fruit
C) frowning when Beckham does not eat fruit
D) smiling and looking surprised when Beckham eats fruit
Q4) Define social referencing. How do babies use it to guide their actions and gather information about the emotions of others?
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Q1) Which statement about preschoolers' ability to generate and follow a plan is true?
A) Young preschoolers can easily adjust their plans to fit task requirements.
B) With respect to planning, children learn very little from directions for playing games.
C) When parents encourage planning in everyday activities, they help children plan more effectively.
D) Preschoolers are not yet capable of planning, even if the tasks are familiar and not too complex.
Q2) Four-year-old Dorrit "reads" familiar signs, but does not yet understand the symbolic function of the elements of print. Dorrit's parents expose her to books, calendars, magazines, lists, and signs. Dorrit's active efforts to understand written language through her informal experiences is known as __________.
A) emergent literacy
B) phonological speech
C) private speech
D) interactive reading
Q3) Describe the benefits of watching educational television, such as Sesame Street.
Q4) Describe the benefits of make-believe play.
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Q1) The more parents __________, the more "emotion words" children use and the better developed their emotional understanding.
A) label and explain emotions and express warmth when conversing with preschoolers
B) encourage peer sociability and demand that their children share with peers
C) label their children's successes and failures and point out when their children make errors
D) expect their children to behave like adults
Q2) Which preschooler is most likely to be shunned by agemates?
A) Chance, a boy who wears nail polish
B) Avery, a boy who plays with building blocks
C) Rena, a girl who wears cowboy boots
D) Dominique, a girl who enjoys art
Q3) Treatment for aggressive children is best begun __________.
A) early, before their behavior becomes well-practiced and difficult to change
B) in mid- to late elementary school, once its impact on academic achievement is verifiable
C) during middle school, after their ability to inhibit impulses becomes well-practiced
D) during mid- to late adolescence, after their behavior patterns have developed
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Q1) The information-processing perspective __________.
A) examines separate aspects of thinking
B) fails to consider biological influences on cognitive development
C) applies only to children in cultures having formal schooling
D) focuses on overall cognitive change
Q2) For most children, joining community athletic teams is associated with __________.
A) decreased self-esteem
B) increased impulsivity
C) increased social skills
D) decreased physical fitness
Q3) U.S. legislation mandates that schools place children who require special supports for learning in __________.
A) "separate, but equal" learning environments
B) the "least restrictive" environments that meet their educational needs
C) fully inclusive "regular" educational settings, alongside typical students
D) "resource rooms" with teachers trained in special education
Q4) Discuss educating gifted children. How well do programs for the gifted nurture children's talents and creativity?
Q5) Discuss the consequences of childhood obesity.
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Q1) When Erica's best friend makes her angry, she takes a deep breath and counts to 10. Erica is using __________.
A) problem-centered coping
B) emotion-centered coping
C) mastery-oriented attributions
D) learned helplessness
Q2) Fernando's parents respond sensitively and helpfully when he is distressed. Fernando is probably __________.
A) empathetic and prosocial
B) low in self-esteem
C) overwhelmed by negative emotion
D) less empathetic than his agemates
Q3) Define problem-centered coping and emotion-centered coping. How do school-age children use these strategies?
Q4) The best way to reduce bullying is to __________.
A) teach victims to be passive when active behavior is expected
B) promote prosocial attitudes and behaviors in youth environments
C) teach victims to fight back and mete out like behaviors
D) support exclusion of bullies from school settings
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Q1) Girls __________ are more likely to develop lesbian or bisexual orientations.
A) who are later in birth order
B) exposed prenatally to very high levels of androgens or estrogens
C) who have a higher-than-average number of older brothers
D) who are gender-deviant in dress or behavior
Q2) G. Stanley Hall described adolescence as a __________.
A) time in which sexual impulses reawaken in the genital stage, triggering psychological conflict and volatile behavior
B) period so turbulent that it resembled the era in which humans evolved from savages into civilized beings
C) generally pleasant time of life in which the social environment is entirely responsible for the range of teenage experiences
D) time when internal stresses and social expectations prompt moments of uncertainty, self-doubt, and disappointment
Q3) __________ is linked to early and frequent teenage sexual activity.
A) Late pubertal timing
B) Small family size
C) Family religious involvement
D) Childhood impulsivity

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Q1) Twelve-year-old Iola spends most of her time with a group of six girls who are friends and have similar family backgrounds, attitudes, interests, and values. This group is Isabel's __________.
A) crowd
B) circle
C) clique
D) club
Q2) Adolescents are __________ likely than younger children to __________.
A) less; experience serious depression
B) more; remain depressed when reassessed at older ages
C) far less; remain depressed when reassessed in adulthood
D) more; bounce back quickly from major depressive episodes
Q3) The connection between more mature moral reasoning and action is __________.
A) nil
B) weak
C) modest
D) strong
Q4) Define and discuss moral identity. What are some factors that strengthen moral identity?
Q5) Discuss gender differences in friendship quality in adolescence. Page 14
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Q1) List and describe the three periods of vocational development.
Q2) Clifton has developed master-level creativity. This means that Clifton probably __________.
A) is able to dismiss information that appears irrelevant at first glance
B) has the capacity to think intuitively with a reduced filter
C) is open to new experiences and intolerant of ambiguity
D) is driven to succeed and unwilling to try again after failure
Q3) Eight-year-old Marci is involved in community theater. She fantasizes about starring in a Broadway musical. Marci's desire to be an actress __________.
A) will probably bear little relation to the vocational decisions that she will eventually make
B) will probably be actualized because she has committed to a career at such a young age
C) is atypical of most young children, who base their preferences on what jobs their parents have
D) is unrealistic because so few actresses are able to secure roles in Broadway musicals
Q4) Describe the theory of biological aging that emphasizes the programmed effects of specific genes.
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Q1) Guadalupe and Julio collaborate in parenting roles, engaging in effective coparenting. Consequently, they are __________ likely to __________.
A) less; feel competent as parents
B) more; use effective child-rearing practices
C) less; have children who are developing well
D) more; be committed to traditional gender roles
Q2) From the college years through career exploration and settling into work roles,
A) other-sex friendships increase
B) same-sex friendships cease to be vital contexts for sharing
C) same-sex friendships decrease in importance
D) siblings become more frequent companions
Q3) Following a social clock of some kind seems to foster __________.
A) feelings of distress
B) occupational flexibility
C) generativity
D) social stability
Q4) Compare and contrast attitudes regarding cohabitation in the United States and Western Europe.
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Q1) Research shows that dietary calorie restriction in nonhuman primates
A) increases blood glucose and insulin levels
B) reduces the incidence of age-related diseases
C) decreases bone density and muscle mass
D) increases accumulation of body fat
Q2) Some theorists believe that a general slowing of __________ underlies nearly all age-related declines in cognitive performance.
A) processing speed
B) synaptic connections
C) verbal and emotional IQ
D) central nervous system functioning
Q3) People with __________ are more likely to be affected by osteoporosis.
A) obesity
B) longer bones
C) a diet rich in vitamin D
D) thin, small-framed bodies
Q4) What is hardiness? How do hardy individuals cope with stress?
Q6) Describe the Type A behavior pattern. How does it affect health? Page 18
Q5) Discuss the changes that the skin undergoes during the aging process.
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Q1) Betty just celebrated her fiftieth birthday. She marked the occasion by taking hang-gliding lessons and purchasing a more mature wardrobe. According to Levinson, Betty is engaged in which developmental task?
A) young-old
B) destruction-creation
C) masculinity-femininity
D) engagement-separateness
Q2) Throughout middle adulthood, parents of grown children __________.
A) receive more emotional support from the children than they give
B) give more financial support to the children than they receive
C) carefully monitor the children's day-to-day activities
D) receive more practical support from the children than they give
Q3) Kindra, a female senior manager, and Lou, a male senior manager, are both promoted to comparable positions. Which statement is more likely to be true?
A) Lou is probably a better manager than Kindra.
B) Kindra is more likely than Lou to receive additional promotions.
C) Kindra probably has earned higher performance ratings than Lou.
D) Lou is more likely than Kindra to encounter a glass ceiling.
Q4) What is the feminization of poverty and how does divorce contribute to it?
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an event-based memory task?
A) taking medicine when an alarm goes off
B) taking medicine every 4 to 6 hours
C) remembering to set the alarm at night
D) remembering a special event from the past, like high school graduation
Q2) An accelerating falloff in cognitive performance or in emotional investment in life is
A) unusual in healthy older adults
B) a sign of loss of vitality and impending death
C) expected in adults soon after age 100
D) due to disuse of skills rather than biological aging
Q3) When Grace reached her 70s, she began having difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, and sleeping deeply. During the day, Grace worried about having sleep trouble. One thing Grace could do to foster restful sleep is __________.
A) take frequent short naps during the day
B) use the bedroom only for sleep
C) take sleeping pills on a regular basis
D) cut back on exercise
Q4) Define and describe terminal decline.
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Q1) Which statement is true about lesbian and gay partnerships in late adulthood?
A) Unlike heterosexual couples, few report happy, highly fulfilling relationships in late adulthood.
B) Compared with same-sex couples not in a legally recognized relationship, sexual minority couples who are married are advantaged in physical and psychological well-being.
C) Unlike their heterosexual counterparts, sexual minority older couples rate their physical and mental health less favorably than their single lesbian and gay agemates.
D) A lifetime of coping with an oppressive social environment may have weakened lesbian and gay couples' skills at managing late-life physical and cognitive changes.
Q2) When they cannot avoid negative experiences, older adults are especially effective at __________.
A) problem-focused evaluation
B) fault finding and blaming others
C) emotion-centered coping
D) ruminating about past disappointments
Q3) Describe George Vaillant's findings regarding successful aging.
Q4) Discuss the concept of gerotranscendence.
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Q1) The five reactions Kübler-Ross observed are best viewed as __________.
A) a fixed sequence
B) universal stages
C) maladaptive, emotion-centered coping
D) coping strategies that anyone may call on in the face of threat
Q2) Kiri is a member of the Maori of New Zealand. As she lies dying, the older adults, clergy, and experts in tribal customs will probably __________.
A) conduct a karakia ceremony
B) chant sutras to calm her mind
C) discourage her from giving away her belongings
D) encourage her to meet death with stoic self-control
Q3) Geraldine's husband died two years ago, just after she turned 81. Which statement is most likely true?
A) Geraldine still displays many negative outcomes.
B) The loss profoundly disrupted Geraldine's life goals.
C) After a period of intense grieving, Geraldine is faring well.
D) Geraldine is experiencing disenfranchised grief.
Q4) What is bereavement overload? Who is at risk for it?
Q5) What is medical aid-in-dying? Is it legal in the United States?
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