Psychology of Aging Exam Review - 2255 Verified Questions

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Psychology of Aging Exam Review

Course Introduction

Psychology of Aging explores the psychological processes associated with growing older, focusing on cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur throughout adulthood and late life. The course examines theories of aging, memory and intelligence changes, personality development, mental health issues common in older adults, and the impact of cultural, biological, and social influences on aging. Students will analyze research findings, discuss the practical implications for caregivers and professionals, and gain insights into promoting successful and healthy aging across diverse populations.

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Essentials of Life Span Development 3rd Edition by John Santrock

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Chapter 1: Introduction

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Q1) _____ has the longest span of any period of development and the number of people in this age group has been increasing dramatically.

A) Middle and late childhood

B) Adolescence

C) Middle adulthood

D) Late adulthood

Answer: D

Q2) Dr. Wong is a cognitive developmental theorist, so we know that he will stress the importance of _____ in understanding development.

A) conscious thoughts

B) repressed memories

C) biological processes

D) the effects of genes and evolution on the development of intelligence

Answer: A

Q3) Riley argues that behavior is strongly influenced by biology; it is tied to evolution, and characterized by critical or sensitive periods. What theoretical orientation, does Riley most likely take?

Answer: Ethology

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Chapter 2: Biological Beginnings

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Q1) The outermost layer of the embryo is called the _____.

A) mesoderm

B) cytoderm

C) endoderm

D) ectoderm

Answer: D

Q2) The _____ is a layer of the embryo, which will become the nervous system and brain, sensory receptors, and skin parts.

A) mesoderm

B) ectoderm

C) trophoblast

D) endoderm

Answer: B

Q3) The nucleus of each human cell contains _____, which are threadlike structures made up of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

A) mitochondria

B) ribosomes

C) chromosomes

D) mesosomes

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Physical and Cognitive Development in Infancy

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Q1) The sequence in which the earliest growth always occurs at the top-the head-with physical growth in size, weight, and feature differentiation gradually working from top to bottom.

Answer: Cephalocaudal pattern

Q2) Sensitivity to taste:

A) is present even before birth.

B) develops two days after birth.

C) is not seen in newborns.

D) develops a month after birth.

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following is a requirement of joint attention?

A) An ability to manipulate objects

B) An ability to track another's behavior

C) A lack of interest in others

D) An intense interest in a particular object

Answer: B

Q4) Memory without conscious recollection. This includes memories ofof skills and routine procedures (e.g., crawling) that are performed automatically.

Answer: Implicit memory

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Chapter 4: Socioemotional Development in Infancy

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Q1) Which of the following is the best description of scaffolding?

A) Parents time interactions in such a way that the infant experiences turn-taking with the parents.

B) The caregiver and infant focus on the same object or event.

C) Mothers and their infants interact in a dance-like pattern of closely coordinated actions.

D) The child is presented with a series of introductions, separations, and reunions with the caregiver.

Q2) Infants show _____ when they are in familiar settings.

A) more stranger anxiety

B) no separation protest

C) less stranger anxiety

D) more separation protest

Q3) Mariposa is in the Strange Situation; she moves freely away from her mother but keeps track of where she is through periodic glances. She would most likely be classified as _____.

A) insecurely attached

B) extremely inhibited

C) securely attached

D) difficult

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Chapter 5: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood

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Q1) Michelle, 4, talks to herself frequently, especially when she is trying to solve a difficult problem. Lev Vygotsky would say that Michelle is:

A) engaging in egocentric and immature thinking.

B) likely to be socially competent.

C) functioning at the upper limit of her zone of proximal development (ZPD).

D) engaging in scaffolding.

Q2) Four-year old Nathan is good at stacking his playing blocks to make tall structures. However, he still knocks them over occasionally. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?

A) His gross motor skills are deficient.

B) He tries to place each block perfectly on top of the other, upsetting those already stacked.

C) His coordination skills are not developing normally for his age.

D) He is showing signs of dyslexia.

Q3) Which of the following is a second substage of preoperational thought?

A) Formal operational

B) Intuitive thought

C) Concrete operational

D) Symbolic function

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Socioemotional Development in Early Childhood

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Q1) Social cognitive theory provides several important principles to help us understand moral behavior of children. Which one of the following is NOT one of those principles?

A) Moral behavior is always influenced by the situation.

B) Self-control is evidenced by the child's ability to delay gratification.

C) Punishment will always increase modeling of moral behavior.

D) Cognitive factors are important in the development of self-control.

Q2) The primary social theories of gender include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) evolutionary psychology view.

B) social role theory.

C) psychoanalytic theory.

D) social cognitive theory.

Q3) Research linking corporal punishment and child behavior has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

A) higher levels of immediate compliance.

B) lower levels of mental health.

C) higher levels of moral internalization.

D) higher levels of aggression.

Q4) The support that parents provide one another in jointly raising a child.

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Chapter 7: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle and Late Childhood

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Q1) Which of the following has been found to be better at improving the behavior of children with ADHD in most cases?

A) A combination of stimulant medication and sedatives

B) Primarily stimulant medication

C) Primarily behavior management

D) A combination of stimulant medication and behavior management

Q2) Eight-year-old Ella can use scissors to cut small paper dolls out of construction paper, something she could not do at age 3. What best accounts for her improving dexterity?

A) Cortical thickening in the temporal lobe

B) Increased myelination of the central nervous system

C) Increased bone ossification

D) Increased muscle development

Q3) A theory that states that memory is best understood by considering two types of memory representation: verbatim memory trace and gist.

Q4) Discuss what Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) does.

Q5) These theorists proposed the fuzzy trace theory in understanding the development of memory.

Q6) This theorist developed the triarchic theory of intelligence.

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Chapter 8: Socioemotional Development in Middle and Late Childhood

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Q1) Keith is trying to help his son, Judd, deal with the devastating floods that left 40,000 people in the Midwest homeless. Judd's mother and two sisters were among those who lost their homes and all of their belongings in this natural disaster. One strategy Keith should NOT implement is to:

A) allow his son to tell and retell the details of the event.

B) encourage his son to talk about his nightmares.

C) allow his child to watch repeated news footage of the tragedy.

D) reassure his son that this type of tragedy is rare, and that he is safe.

Q2) Compared to nonaggressive children, which of the following observations is NOT TRUE of aggressive boys searching for cues to determine a peer's intention(s)?

A) They respond more rapidly.

B) They respond less efficiently.

C) They respond less reflectively.

D) They respond more ambiguously.

Q3) This theorist criticizes most theories of moral development and argues that they reflect a gender bias. He/she proposed an alternate perspective that emphasizes connectedness with others.

Q4) How do schools in low-income areas compare with those in high-income areas?

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Q5) List and describe the levels of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development.

Chapter 9: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence

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Q1) Which of the following is one of the main characteristics that applies to people suffering from anorexia nervosa?

A) Precocious puberty in girls

B) Amenorrhea in girls who have reached puberty

C) Body weight that falls in the 98th percentile of the BMI scale

D) Binge eating followed by purging

Q2) In a study, almost 50 percent of high school dropouts cited _____ reasons for leaving school.

A) economic

B) peer-related

C) school-related

D) family-related

Q3) Katie weighs less than 85 percent of what is considered normal for her age and height. Yet, she sees herself as too fat and starves to become thinner. Katie most likely suffers from:

A) anorexia nervosa.

B) bulimia nervosa.

C) sickle-cell anemia.

D) hypochondria.

Q4) What are the characteristics of the formal operational stage?

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Chapter 10: Socioemotional Development in Adolescence

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Q1) An individual's body image encompasses his/her _____.

A) sexual identity

B) personality

C) relationship identity

D) physical identity

Q2) Conflict with parents often escalates during:

A) early adolescence.

B) middle adolescence.

C) late adolescence.

D) the college years.

Q3) Late bloomers comprise approximately 10 percent of _____ who say that they have had no experience with romantic relationships.

A) 14- to 16-year-olds

B) 17- to 19-year-olds

C) 12- to 13-year-olds

D) 15- to 16-year-olds

Q4) How can parents help their adolescents to develop the ability to attain autonomy, gain control over their behavior, and make mature decisions?

Q5) Explain the concept of psychosocial moratorium.

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Chapter 11: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early

Adulthood

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Q1) Which of the following statements about the benefits of exercise is true?

A) About 50 percent of adults get the recommended levels of physical activity.

B) Exercise can be as effective in reducing depression as psychotherapy.

C) Only intense physical activities will produce important physical gains.

D) Exercise has little impact on self-concept and in reducing anxiety.

Q2) Emerging and young adults are more likely than adolescents to understand that their thinking is influenced by _____.

A) logic

B) emotions

C) hypothetical reasoning

D) postconventional reasoning

Q3) Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi discovered that creative people regularly experience a state he called _____, which represented a heightened state of pleasure experienced when people engage in mental and physical challenges that absorb them.

A) bliss

B) nirvana

C) euphoria

D) flow

Q4) What is postformal thought like in practice?

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Socioemotional Development in Early

Adulthood

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Q1) When all three dimensions of Sternberg's triarchic theory of love are present in a relationship, what type of love are people experiencing?

A) Affectionate love

B) Consummate love

C) Fatuous love

D) Passionate love

Q2) Women's friendships tend to be characterized not only by _____ but also by _____.

A) talk; silence

B) competition; camaraderie

C) depth; breadth

D) intimacy; rivalry

Q3) This theorist proposed a triarchic theory of love.

Q4) Juggling the competing demands of intimacy, identity, and independence becomes a central task of _____.

A) childhood

B) adolescence

C) parenthood

D) adulthood

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Chapter 13: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle

Adulthood

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Q1) Cholesterol can be lowered in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

A) regular exercise.

B) changes in diet to include foods low in saturated fat.

C) changes in diet to include foods that are low in cholesterol.

D) liposuction.

Q2) Which of the following BEST explains why middle adulthood comes later and lasts longer now than in the early 1900s?

A) People today have fewer children than people in the early 1900s.

B) People today have a higher income than people in the early 1900s.

C) People today have less anxiety in their lives than people in the early 1900s.

D) People today have healthier lifestyles than people in the early 1900s.

Q3) According to John Horn, _____ steadily declines from middle adulthood onward.

A) fluid intelligence

B) crystallized intelligence

C) verbal memory

D) kinesthetic intelligence

Q4) The midlife transition, for both men and women, in which fertility declines.

Q5) The mental "workbench" in the mind where individuals manipulate information and solve problems.

Q6) List four strategies that distinguish an expert from a novice. Page 15

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Chapter 14: Socioemotional Development in Middle

Adulthood

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Q1) As he looks back over his life, Chris realizes that his work was not as important to him as he believed, and that he lost too much valuable time with his children. If he could do it over again, he would work less and spend more time with his children. According to Erikson, Chris is experiencing some degree of _____.

A) social rejection

B) apathy

C) generativity

D) stagnation

Q2) According to Levinson, which of the following should occur at the end of one's teens?

A) A transition from dependence to independence

B) An increase in generativity

C) An increase in feelings of stagnation

D) A transition from conventional to postconventional reasoning

Q3) Middle-aged Americans agree that a major component of their well-being involves:

A) physical health.

B) positive relationships.

C) recovery from midlife crisis.

D) better financial situation.

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Chapter 15: Physical and Cognitive Development in Late

Adulthood

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Q1) _____ is the most common chronic disorder in late adulthood.

A) Glaucoma

B) Diabetes

C) Arthritis

D) Kidney disease

Q2) Cognitive neuroscience has uncovered some important links between aging, the brain, and cognitive functioning. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

A) Decline in neural circuits is linked to poorer performance by older adults on complex reasoning tasks.

B) Older adults are more likely than younger adults to use both hemispheres of the brain.

C) Older adults show greater activity in the frontal and parietal regions while engaging in simple tasks.

D) In older adults, the functioning of the hippocampus declines more than the functioning of the frontal lobes.

Q3) Describe shrinking of the brain in the aging process.

Q4) A transitional state between cognitive changes of normal aging and very early Alzheimer disease and other dementias.

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Chapter 16: Socioemotional Development in Late

Adulthood

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Q1) Which of the following is true of the usage of Internet among older adults?

A) Older adults visit fewer Web sites than their younger counterparts.

B) Older adults spend less money on the Internet than their younger counterparts.

C) Increasing numbers of older adults use e-mail to communicate with relatives.

D) Older adults are especially interested in going online for social networking.

Q2) Adult daughters are _____ times more likely than are adult sons to give parents assistance with daily living activities.

A) three

B) five

C) two

D) four

Q3) For older adults, social support is linked to a(n):

A) increased probability of becoming institutionalized.

B) higher socioeconomic status.

C) increase in mortality rates.

D) reduction in symptoms of disease.

Q4) Prejudice against individuals because of their age, especially prejudice against older adults.

Q5) Describe the selective optimization with compensation model.

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Chapter 17: Death, Dying, and Grieving

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Q1) Discuss "good death."

Q2) In the Gond culture of India, death is believed to be caused by:

A) natural forces.

B) an angry supreme being.

C) the ill will of others in the community.

D) magic and demons.

Q3) Describe Kübler-Ross' first stage of dying.

Q4) Ada knows that she has liver cancer and will not live much longer. In her prayers, she asks God to let her live one more year, and she will promise to set everything right with her family and loved ones. Which of Kübler-Ross' stages of dying is Ada currently in?

A) Bargaining

B) Denial

C) Anger

D) Acceptance

Q5) The type of grief reaction that involves enduring despair and is still unresolved over an extended period of time.

Q6) Define hospice and explain its focus.

Q7) How does denial impact individuals' adaptation to approaching death?

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Q8) What are the advantages of letting dying individuals know that they are dying?

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