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Psychology of Abnormal Behavior provides an in-depth examination of psychological disorders, exploring their origins, symptoms, classifications, and treatment approaches. This course covers a broad spectrum of abnormal behaviors, including mood disorders, anxiety disorders, psychotic disorders, personality disorders, and neurodevelopmental disorders. Students will analyze historical and contemporary perspectives on mental illness, delve into diagnostic criteria outlined in the DSM, and consider cultural, biological, and environmental influences on abnormal behavior. Emphasis is placed on empirical research, case studies, and ethical issues related to assessment and intervention in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Abnormal Psychology 8th Edition by V. Mark Durand
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Q1) A psychological dysfunction refers to
A)a breakdown in cognitive functioning.
B)a breakdown in emotional functioning.
C)a breakdown in behavioral functioning.
D)all of these are correct
Answer: D
Q2) According to Sigmund Freud, the Electra complex, the psychosexual conflict that occurs at the phallic stage of development in girls, is characterized by A)castration anxiety.
B)Oedipal conflicts.
C)penis envy.
D)latency lust.
Answer: C
Q3) Seventeenth century treatments for depression included19
A)insulin shock therapy.
B)reserpine therapy.
C)hydrotherapy.
D)induced vomiting.
Answer: D
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Q1) When comparing the brains of rats raised in a rich environment requiring lots of learning and motor behavior with the brains of rats raised as "couch potatoes" (Greenough, et al., 1990), the cerebellums of the more active rats
A)contained more neuronal connections and dendrites.
B)contained fewer neuronal connections but more dendrites.
C)were less likely to possess pathological neurotransmitter circuits.
D)were exactly the same as the inactive rats.
Answer: A
Q2) More than 80 percent of the neurons contained in the brain are
A)located in the cerebral cortex.
B)located in the brain stem.
C)are glial cells.
D)are unused and represent untapped human potential.
Answer: A
Q3) The autonomic and somatic nervous systems are segments of the
A)peripheral nervous system.
B)somatic nervous system.
C)parasympathetic nervous system.
D)central nervous system.
Answer: A
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Q1) A researcher collects data comparing people with and without a disorder. The researcher is particularly interested in inherited tendencies that are not part of the disorder but that occur with much greater frequency in the people afflicted with it. The researcher is conducting a(n)
A)genetic linkage analysis.
B)association study.
C)family study.
D)DNA analysis.
Answer: B
Q2) Compare and contrast the DSM-IV-TR and the DSM 5.
Answer: Compare: both the DSM-IV-TR and the DSM 5 use categories to group disorders, create a standardized basis for the diagnosis of disorders, and were the product of a broad perspective gained from the contributions of a wide range of experts and specialists in the field. Contrast: The DSM 5 restructured and reorganized the categories into three main sections as opposed to five, the use of dimensional axes for rating severity, and new disorders have been introduced into the DSM while other disorders have been re-classified.
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Q1) A relative of yours who suffers from panic disorder asks you what treatment would have the most long-lasting benefits. Since you have just read about the double-blind NIMH research study evaluating psychological treatments with and without medication, you tell your relative to first try A)the drug imipramine.
B)psychological treatment along with medication.
C)panic control treatment that includes cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).
D)any available treatment, since patients in all treatment conditions achieved the same long-lasting gains.
Q2) Recent research by Britton et al, (2013) and others indicates that vulnerability to anxiety disorders is related to A)an over responsive limbic system.
B)the number of unexpected occurrences in one's life.
C)the number of siblings in one's family.
D)genetic or biological factors only.
Q3) Define agoraphobia and discuss the concept of "safety" for a person with this condition. Explain what is meant by interoceptive avoidance.
Q4) Discuss the different types of specific phobias and how they are acquired.
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Q1) Anxiety, mood, and personality disorders are commonly found in individuals with A)depersonalization-derealization disorder.
B)dissociative amnesia.
C)somatic symptom disorder.
D)conversion disorder.
Q2) The average length of time between an individual's first symptoms of dissociative identity disorder and the identification and diagnosis of the disorder by a professional is A)one year.
B)20 years.
C)less than one month.
D)seven years.
Q3) Historically, "hysteria" was thought to be the result of a A)dysfunctional ovary.
B)tense vagina.
C)wandering uterus.
D)flip-flopped fallopian tubes.
Q4) Describe three ways that a person with a conversion disorder might differ from an individual with a biologically caused physical malfunction.
Q5) Describe the subtype of dissociative amnesia referred to a dissociative fugue.
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Q1) Experiences associated with _____________ trigger mania in vulnerable individuals.
A)negative emotions
B)positive life events, like the arrival of a new baby,
C)striving to achieve important goals
D)unexpected changes in life
Q2) In research looking at the biological causes of mood disorders, studies have shown that if one of a set of twins is unipolar, the chances that the other twin is bipolar are A)high.
B)moderate.
C)low.
D)slim to none.
Q3) Describe the differences between feeling sad and depressed versus experiencing a major depressive disorder. Be sure to mention the diagnostic criteria for major depressive disorder in your answer.
Q4) Explain the differences between hypomania and mania in terms of symptoms and severity.
Q5) Identify and explain the risk factors associated with suicide.
Q6) Describe two psychological treatments for depression.
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Q1) The immune system is weakened in AIDS patients because the human immunodeficiency virus directly attacks the lymphocytes called A)killer T cells.
B)T4 (helper) cells.
C)suppressor T cells.
D)B cells.
Q2) Endogenous opioids have been implicated in a variety of psychopathological conditions, including A)eating disorders.
B)phobias.
C)obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D)personality disorders.
Q3) In which of the following ways do psychological and social factors influence health?
A)They can affect basic biological processes resulting in illness and disease.
B)Unhealthy lifestyles can increase the risk of developing physical disorders.
C)Both of these are correct
D)Neither of these are correct
Q4) Discuss prevention and intervention programs implemented in antismoking efforts in China.
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Q1) An important aspect of the cognitive-behavioral approach to the treatment of bulimia nervosa is that it involves
A)changing patients' dysfunctional thoughts regarding their weight, body shape, and previous weight control strategies.
B)helping the patient's family learn new ways of interacting with each other and with the patient.
C)changing the type and frequency of reinforcement associated with being an identified patient.
D)making sure that the patient has a lot of quiet time when he or she can be alone.
Q2) Individuals with a sleep efficiency of 90%
A)spend more of their "bed time" awake than asleep.
B)have a diagnosable sleep disorder.
C)need to increase the number of hours in bed.
D)spend 10% of their "bed time" awake.
Q3) Describe the psychological treatments that are generally used for the treatment of insomnia disorder, listing at least five "sleep hygiene" behaviors that are associated with improved sleep.
Q4) Describe insomnia disorder and contrast it with hypersomnia. and narcolepsy.
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Q1) Of the following, the individual who would most likely be diagnosed with gender dysphoria is
A)Joe, who gets sexually aroused by wearing women's bras.
B)Lisa, who is a lesbian and has many traditional masculine traits.
C)Mark, who feels like a woman trapped in a man's body.
D)Sid, who can only become sexually aroused while dressed like a woman.
Q2) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, ____% of men and ____% of women had 15 or more partners during their lifetime.
A)15; 10
B)21; 8
C)10; 15
D)26; 6
Q3) The individual with the greatest likelihood of hypoactive sexual desire disorder or sexual interest/arousal disorder is a(n)
A)18-year-old male.
B)30-year-old male.
C)30-year-old female.
D)45-year-old female.
Q4) Describe Masters and Johnson's approach to sex therapy.
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Q1) Auburn has a cup of coffee every morning, smokes 10 cigarettes a day, and has a beer with dinner. This is an example of A)substance use.
B)a substance use disorder.
C)polysubstance abuse.
D)substance intoxication.
Q2) In a large survey among college-aged men and women, it was found that A)about 75% of the respondents said that they had gone on a binge of heavy drinking once in the preceding two weeks.
B)there was no relationship between frequency of drinking and grades.
C)students with a grade-point average of "A" had no more than one drink per week. D)"D" and "F" students averaged 11 alcoholic drinks per week.
Q3) Gambling disorder affects approximately ____% of adult Americans.

Q4) Describe typical practices and dangers associated with inhalant use disorder.
Q5) Discuss the various component treatments for substance use disorders
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about borderline personality disorder?
A)It is observed in every culture and seen in about 5% of the population.
B)Emotional dysfunction is one of the best predictors of suicide in this group.
C)Long-term outcomes are discouraging, with many relapsing within five years.
D)A high number, almost 12%, succeed at suicide.
Q2) One of the contributing factors in the developmental history of individuals with antisocial personality disorder appears to be that their parents were more likely to have utilized
A)firm discipline.
B)inconsistent discipline.
C)an overly protective parenting style.
D)physical discipline.
Q3) One prominent theory of antisocial personality disorder suggests that the behaviors are caused by an imbalance between the brain's
A)behavioral inhibition system and fight-or-flight system.
B)fight-or-flight system and reward system.
C)cortical stimulation system and behavioral inhibition system.
D)behavioral inhibition system and reward system.
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Q1) Recent and highly sophisticated research focusing on neurochemical abnormalities as the cause of schizophrenia involves all of the following EXCEPT
A)deficiency in the stimulation of prefrontal dopamine D1 receptors.
B)excessive stimulation of striatal dopamine D2 receptors.
C)alterations in prefrontal activity involving glutamate transmissions.
D)changes in temporal lobe function associated with serotonin receptor activity.
Q2) People who experience hallucinations appear to have intrusive thoughts, but they believe they are coming from somewhere or someone else. They then engage in A)denial that they are having these thoughts.
B)meta-worry that leads to increased anxiety and depression symptoms.
C)behaviors that distract them from these thoughts.
D)efforts to seek help through counseling.
Q3) Discuss some of the causative factors of schizophrenia, including genetic influences, neurotransmitter imbalances, prenatal viral exposure, and psychological stressors.
Q4) Explore the concept of psychosocial interventions for schizophrenia. Discuss the goals and effectiveness of these treatment programs.
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Q1) Which of the following is currently being researched as a possible cause of autism?
A)The neuronal structure of the hippocampus
B)The levels of the neuropeptide oxytocin
C)The mercury used as a preservative in childhood vaccines
D)All of these are correct
Q2) Cross-cultural research has indicated that autism is
A)universal across cultures and countries.
B)predominantly found in the United States.
C)predominantly found in Western cultures and countries.
D)more common in wealthy countries.
Q3) Delirium brought on by withdrawal from alcohol or other drugs is generally treated
A)with rest and reassurance.
B)with antipsychotic medication.
C)with antidepressant medication.
D)by restraining the patient until the withdrawal symptoms are over.
Q4) Explain the relationship that has been observed between formal education and the development of Alzheimer's disease. What theoretical and neurological explanations have been offered for this observation?
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Q1) Since Roberto has been found incompetent to stand trial, he will be committed to a mental health facility. After a reasonable period of time, the law requires any one of the following outcomes EXCEPT that
A)he must be found competent.
B)he must be set free.
C)he must be medicated.
D)he must be committed under civil law.
Q2) With regard to the mentally ill, popular opinion holds that
A)the mentally ill are more dangerous than those who are not mentally ill.
B)the mentally ill are less dangerous than those who are not mentally ill.
C)normal people and mentally ill people are equally dangerous.
D)normal people are more dangerous than the mentally ill.
Q3) According to the text, the legal concept of mens rea generally refers to A)a "guilty mind."
B)criminal intent.
C)one's mental state.
D)all of these are correct
Q4) Trace the historical changes in civil commitment procedures, noting previous and current criteria.
Q5) Define the terms grave disability and parens patriae, giving examples of each.
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