Psychology I Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Psychology I provides an introduction to the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. The course explores foundational concepts, theories, and research methods in psychology while examining key topics such as perception, learning, memory, development, personality, and motivation. Students will gain insight into biological influences on behavior, psychological disorders and their treatments, and the application of psychology to everyday life. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, self-reflection, and the ethical considerations involved in psychological research.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology Themes and Variations 3rd Canadian by Dr. Wayne Weiten
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35 Chapters
5874 Verified Questions
5874 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A: The Evolution of Psychology
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233 Verified Questions
233 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr. Kline takes an eclectic approach in treating psychological disorders. She often prescribes medications that influence neurotransmitter levels, but she also works with her clients to change their behaviour and understand the impact of social factors in their problems. Which underlying theme does Dr. Kline's approach to therapy illustrate?
A)Differing theoretical perspectives can provide a more complete understanding of behaviour.
B)Motives and expectations can colour our experiences.
C)Unconscious motivation has little impact on overt behaviour.
D)Our cultural backgrounds exert a considerable influence over our behaviour.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following areas is most similar to clinical psychology?
A)school psychology
B)social psychology
C)industrial psychology
D)counselling psychology
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 1: B: The Evolution of Psychology
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following professionals is a medical doctor?
A)physiological psychologist
B)clinical psychologist
C)psychiatrist
D)counselling psychologist
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following types of psychologists would be most interested in Alex's research?
A)a clinical psychologist
B)a structuralist
C)an evolutionary psychologist
D)a humanist
Answer: C
Q3) Which psychological perspective emerged in the 1950s and 1960s and reflected a renewed interest in the study of the physiological bases of behaviour?
A)philosophical perspective
B)biological perspective
C)mental perspective
D)cognitive perspective
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: A: The Research Enterprise in Psychology
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218 Verified Questions
218 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which measure of central tendency is your grade point average an example of?
A)mode
B)mean
C)median
D)midpoint
Answer: B
Q2) Mice who received gingko biloba in their diets made fewer errors in a maze-running task than mice who had not received gingko biloba. What does this suggest about the use of gingko biloba and maze-running errors among mice?
A)Use of gingko biloba and maze-running errors are positively correlated.
B)Use of gingko biloba and maze-running errors are weakly correlated.
C)Use of gingko biloba and maze-running errors are uncorrelated.
D)Use of gingko biloba and maze-running errors are negatively correlated.
Answer: D
Q3) In this study, what is the operational definition of efficiency?
A)difference between speed and satisfaction
B)size of the group
C)satisfaction ratings
D)speed of decision making
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: B: The Research Enterprise in Psychology
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141 Verified Questions
141 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT possible with the use of PsycINFO?
A)searching for research articles authored by a specific individual
B)searching for research articles related to a specific topic
C)seeing online a complete version of a specific research article published in a journal
D)seeing online a brief summary of a specific research article published in a journal
Q2) If Beth wants to determine whether there are significant differences between conditions in her study, which type of statistic should she use?
A)measures of central tendency
B)descriptive
C)correlation coefficients
D)inferential
Q3) What is the range of possible values for a correlation coefficient?
A)between -10.00 and +10.00
B)between -1.00 and +1.00
C)between 0 and +1.00
D)between 0 percent and 100 percent
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Chapter 3: A:The Biological Bases of Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nadine had a stroke that was confined to the right side of her brain. What sort of task will be most difficult for Nadine, based on hemispheric lateralization studies?
A)mathematics and logical reasoning skills
B)fine motor coordination, such as for handwriting
C)spatial skills, such as fitting together puzzle pieces
D)language and communication skills
Q2) If a brain has several synapses that are not particularly active, and those synapses are eliminated, what does this reflect?
A)the pruning of synapses in order to increase the efficiency of neural networks
B)overactive immune reactions in the nervous system
C)a loss of function that is typically associated with aging
D)a process similar to natural selection, where strong synapses 'kill' weaker synapses
Q3) For most people, which area of the brain is associated with language?
A)left cerebral hemisphere
B)right cerebral hemisphere
C)central cerebral hemisphere
D)posterior cerebral hemisphere
Q4) Compare and contrast the nervous system and the endocrine system.
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Chapter 3: B: The Biological Bases of Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which nervous system would you find cerebrospinal fluid?
A)peripheral
B)central
C)primary
D)autonomic
Q2) Which neurotransmitter is released by motor neurons and results in movement of the voluntary muscles?
A)monoamines
B)acetylcholine
C)endorphins
D)dopamine
Q3) Which of the following techniques would be most useful for research in sleep laboratories?
A)transcranial magnetic stimulation
B)electrical stimulation of the brain
C)electroencephalography
D)lesioning
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8
Chapter 4: A: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vanessa describes a new melody that she heard at a concert by telling you each of the individual notes, in the order that they were played. In providing this type of description, which type of processing does Vanessa appear to use?
A)opponent-process
B)bottom-up
C)figure-ground
D)top-down
Q2) Which of the following accurately describes the role of culture for pain perception?
A)Race has a larger impact on pain perception than does culture.
B)Culture has no impact on pain perception or attitudes toward pain.
C)Culture affects willingness to tolerate pain, but not the process of pain perception.
D)Cultural rules dictate the amount of pain experienced, but only above a certain innate threshold.
Q3) Use appropriate examples from everyday situations to illustrate the basic concepts from signal-detection theory.
Q4) Compare vision and hearing with regard to the proximal stimulus and information processing for each sense.
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Chapter 4: B: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents the main pathway that visual signals travel from the eye to the visual cortex?
A)optic nerve, thalamus, optic chiasm, occipital lobe
B)optic nerve, thalamus, optic chiasm, temporal lobe
C)optic nerve, optic chiasm, thalamus, occipital lobe
D)optic nerve, optic chiasm, thalamus, temporal lobe
Q2) Which of the following is the most general of the Gestalt principles describing how individual elements are grouped into higher-order figures?
A)continuity
B)simplicity
C)similarity
D)proximity
Q3) Which depth perception cue is based on the observation that parallel lines converge in the distance?
A)linear perspective
B)height in plane
C)interposition
D)retinal disparity
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Chapter 5: A: Variations in Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which stage of sleep do the slowest brain waves occur?
A)stage 1
B)stage 2
C)REM
D)stage 4
Q2) Abigail had a dream in which she was riding a bicycle toward some beautiful mountains. Abigail is convinced the dream represents an unconscious desire to quit her current job. What are the bicycle and mountains in Freudian terms?
A)the latent content of Abigail's dream
B)an interpretation of random neural activity in lower brain centres
C)the manifest content of Abigail's dream
D)an attempt to work through problems she is currently experiencing in her life
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding sleepwalking is most accurate?
A)It is unsafe to awaken a sleepwalker.
B)Sleepwalking typically occurs while the person is dreaming.
C)There appears to be a genetic predisposition to sleepwalking.
D)Sleepwalking is generally a manifestation of underlying psychological problems.
Q4) Compare and contrast the "role-playing" and "altered state" views of hypnosis.
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Chapter 5: B: Variations in Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) While serving as a subject in a laboratory sleep study for several nights, Luka was awakened whenever he entered REM sleep. What effect would this have on Luka's waking performance the next day?
A)It would have little effect.
B)He would hallucinate.
C)He would be exhausted all day.
D)He would be emotionally unstable.
Q2) Which of the following best reflects the term "insomnia"?
A)chronic problems in getting adequate sleep
B)chronic difficulties in remaining asleep
C)chronic difficulties in falling asleep
D)occasional problems in getting adequate sleep
Q3) Melanie has a tendency to do what she is told, without questioning anything. Which aspect of hypnotizability does this reflect?
A)induction
B)absorption
C)dissociation
D)suggestibility
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12
Chapter 6: A: Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jeremy stops gambling five minutes after his slot machine last paid off; Jessica is still gambling, even though her slot machine hasn't paid off in over an hour. Which of the following describes their behaviours?
A)Jeremy has been classically conditioned while Jessica has been operantly conditioned.
B)Jeremy shows resistance to extinction, while Jessica shows resistance to discrimination.
C)Jeremy shows low resistance to extinction while Jessica shows high resistance to extinction.
D)Jeremy is controlled by conditioned stimuli while Jessica is controlled by unconditioned stimuli.
Q2) What is the stimulus that naturally evokes an unlearned response in classical conditioning?
A)conditioned stimulus
B)conditioned reinforcer
C)unconditioned reinforcer
D)unconditioned stimulus
Q3) Design a self-modification program to improve your study habits.
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Chapter 6: B: Learning
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137 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is supported by research on instinctive drift and conditioned taste aversions?
A)There are universal laws of learning.
B)Given enough learning trials, any association can be learned.
C)Some species learn faster than others.
D)There are biological constraints on learning.
Q2) What is reflected by Francine's tendency to respond most to the smell of baking bread, but also to other baking smells?
A)preparedness
B)resistance to extinction
C)operant conditioning
D)stimulus generalization
Q3) What is a procedure called when a response is strengthened by following it with a rewarding stimulus?
A)negative reinforcement
B)punishment
C)primary reinforcement
D)positive reinforcement
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Chapter 7: A: Human Memory
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236 Verified Questions
236 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leah is surprised to receive a second notice regarding her electric bill. She is sure that she mailed in the cheque. As a matter of fact, she can see herself writing out the cheque and mailing it. However, when she goes through her duplicate cheques, she cannot find a copy of the cheque to the electric company. What likely happened to Leah in this example?
A)She experienced proactive interference.
B)She made a source-monitoring error.
C)She made a misinformation error.
D)She made a reality-monitoring error.
Q2) Why is the use of hypnosis to recover repressed memories considered to be a problem?
A)Hypnosis tends to increase memory distortions so that the memories are inaccessible.
B)The memories are so vivid that vulnerable clients are highly distressed when they remember violent or disturbing incidents.
C)Hypnosis tends to make clients more confident about inaccurate memories.
D)Hypnosis may recover the target memory, but will lead to repression of other memories.
Q3) Outline some strategies that can be used to improve everyday memory.
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Page 15
Chapter 7: B: Human Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Featured Study on the Neuroscience of Time Travel, which area of your brain is active when you are both trying to remember what you had for dinner last night, as well as trying to imagine what you will have for dinner tomorrow?
A)amygdala
B)hippocampus
C)parietal cortex
D)hypothalamus
Q2) Which phenomena provides evidence in support of late-selection models of selective attention?
A)habituation to ambient noise in the environment
B)retrograde amnesia
C)slower reaction time among people who drive while using cell phones
D)the cocktail party effect
Q3) Which area of the brain is associated with the consolidation of long-term memories?
A)cerebral cortex
B)medulla
C)hypothalamus
D)hippocampal region
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Page 16
Chapter 8: A: Language and Thought
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do we make so many errors in decision-making, according to the theory of bounded rationality?
A)Our brains have evolved to solve problems that are different from many of the problems we currently face in our modern environment.
B)We are incapable of actually considering all the factors necessary to make an optimal decision.
C)We have poor mathematical abilities, and so we miscalculate risks and benefits.
D)We are far too affected by our emotions to make difficult decisions.
Q2) The concept of field dependence-independence highlights the importance of which of the following in determining problem-solving skills?
A)nativistic factors
B)expertise
C)behavioural factors
D)cultural factors
Q3) How does risky decision making differ from making decisions about preferences? How do people generally make each type of decision?
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17
Chapter 8: B: Language and Thought
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what age range do infants typically say their first word?
A)6 to 9 months
B)10 to 13 months
C)14 to 17 months
D)18 to 21 months
Q2) Research suggests that bilingual individuals tend to score higher than monolingual individuals on some psychological measures. Which of the following pairs tend to be higher for bilingual individuals?
A)intelligence and analytical reasoning
B)cognitive flexibility and analytical reasoning
C)language-processing speed and cognitive flexibility
D)language-processing speed and intelligence
Q3) People often find it difficult to solve a problem by using a familiar object in a novel way. What is this called?
A)a mental set
B)unnecessary constraints
C)irrelevant information
D)functional fixedness
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18
Chapter 9: A: Intelligence and Psychological Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following countries are IQ tests least likely to be used?
A)Britain
B)France
C)China
D)Australia
Q2) Madison has just completed a two-year internship with a law firm. She takes a test that is designed to assess her current knowledge of general legal principles. What type of test is being used, in this case?
A)projective test
B)achievement test
C)intelligence test
D)aptitude test
Q3) How did Charles Spearman conceptualize intelligence?
A)It is made up of a "core factor" common to all intellectual abilities.
B)It is seen only in certain "school-type" problems.
C)It can change from time to time.
D)It is a series of unrelated factors.
Q4) In what ways do you think sociohistorical context may have influenced the investigation of creativity?
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Chapter 9: B: Intelligence and Psychological Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percentage of IQ scores fall between 85 and 115?
A)33
B)50
C)68
D)95
Q2) What is the mean and standard deviation of modern IQ tests?
A)mean of 500 and standard deviation of 100
B)mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10
C)mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15
D)mean of 100 and standard deviation of 10
Q3) Which term is used to describe individuals who are highly intelligent, but may underperform in school for reasons other than intellect?
A)masked eminence
B)underachiever
C)hidden gifted
D)subgenius
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Page 20
Chapter 10: A: Motivation and Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the evolutionary hypothesis tested by Buss and his colleagues in a cross-cultural study of mating preferences?
A)Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be the same for females but differ for males from culture to culture.
B)Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will differ from males to females.
C)Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be the same from culture to culture.
D)Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be basically the same for males but differ for females from culture to culture.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding human motives is least accurate?
A)Humans have a larger number of social needs than biological needs.
B)Most biological motives reflect survival needs.
C)Everyone shares the same set of social needs.
D)The strength of social needs varies from person to person.
Q3) In what ways are motivation and emotion similar to each other and different from each other?
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Chapter 10: B: Motivation and Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which theory of emotion proposes that the conscious experience of emotion results from one's perception of autonomic arousal?
A)James-Lange theory
B)Cannon-Bard theory
C)facial-feedback theory
D)common-sense theory
Q2) Which theory of emotion proposes the conscious experience of emotion results from one's cognitive interpretation of an event that caused autonomic arousal?
A)facial-feedback theory
B)James-Lange theory
C)Cannon-Bard theory
D)Schachter two-factor theory
Q3) Which of the following theories of emotion suggest that one's conscious experience of emotion occurs after autonomic arousal?
A)James-Lange theory
B)Cannon-Bard theory
C)both Cannon-Bard and Schachter two-factor theories
D)both James-Lange and Schachter two-factor theories
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Chapter 11: A: Human Development Across the Life Span
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which area of the brain appears to be the last to fully mature?
A)visual cortex
B)limbic system
C)prefrontal cortex
D)parietal lobes
Q2) Which of the following does not belong with the others, in relation to age?
A)babbling
B)separation anxiety
C)gradual mastery of object permanence
D)postconventional moral reasoning
Q3) At what age does an infant typically first exhibit separation anxiety?
A)one to two weeks
B)one to two months
C)around one year
D)six to eight months
Q4) What is the cause of roughly 70 percent of all cases of dementia?
A)neuronal loss that is part of the normal aging process
B)Parkinson's disease
C)Alzheimer's disease
D)strokes and cerebral hemorrhages
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Chapter 11: B: Human Development Across the Life Span
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Sample Questions
Q1) Young Benny can reach for his Cheerios with his arm, but cannot yet pick them up with his fingers and hands. Which developmental trend is illustrated by this example?
A)cephalocaudal
B)proximocaudal
C)cephalodistal
D)proximodistal
Q2) What is the term used to categorize alcohol, prescription drugs, environmental toxins and other substances that can harm a developing embryo or fetus?
A)tetrodotoxin
B)teratogen
C)semiochemical
D)maladaptation
Q3) At which level of moral development do individuals tend to use a personal code of ethics to guide their moral reasoning and behaviour?
A)concrete
B)conventional
C)postconventional
D)preconventional
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24
Chapter 12: A: Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment
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Q1) Amy has always done well in her math courses and, even though she has never taken a statistics class before, she is confident she will do well in the statistics course she has signed up for next semester. What does Amy show evidence of in this example?
A)high self-efficacy in math
B)a mathematical neurosis
C)low self-efficacy in math
D)high incongruence with respect to math
Q2) What did Raymond Cattell use in order to identify clusters of closely related personality traits and the factors underlying them?
A)analysis of variance
B)normal distribution
C)factor analysis
D)multifactorial averaging
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a criticism of the behavioural approach to personality?
A)failing to provide unifying structural concepts
B)overdependence on animal research
C)providing a fragmented view of personality
D)using extensive empirical research
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Chapter 12: B: Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment
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Q1) According to Sigmund Freud, fixation at which stage results in smoking, overeating, and habitual gum chewing?
A)genital
B)phallic
C)oral
D)anal
Q2) Whenever Greg updates his status on Facebook, he is usually seeking attention. Sometimes he brags about how great he is at sports, or the number of phone numbers he solicited at the bar. Other times he will write about how tough it is to be taken seriously because he's too good looking. Many of his friends started out finding Greg charming and fun, but now most of them are tired of his selfishness. Which personality type matches this description of Greg?
A)narcissistic
B)extraverted
C)neurotic
D)introverted
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Chapter 13: A: Stress, Coping, and Health
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Q1) Thelma goes to a nightclub and flirts with dozens of men whenever she feels neglected and ignored by her husband. What coping mechanism would Freud suggest that Thelma is using, in this example?
A)overcompensation
B)undoing
C)fantasy
D)intellectualization
Q2) Tiana was walking down the street late one evening when a stranger suddenly stepped out of the shadows. Her initial reaction was one of total panic, but then she began to think of all her options. Although her heart was still pounding, she quickly crossed to the other side of the street and began walking in the opposite direction. What was Tiana experiencing, according to Selye's general adaptation syndrome?
A)an alarm reaction
B)autonomic rebound
C)a resistance reaction
D)physiological exhaustion
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Chapter 13: B: Stress, Coping, and Health
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Q1) Which individual is least likely to use a condom to prevent transmission of disease?
A)someone with high anxiety levels
B)Someone who is sober
C)someone who believes in a 'just world'
D)someone with high self-esteem
Q2) Why does stress contribute to impaired task performance?
A)Stress disrupts arousal.
B)Stress increases desire.
C)Stress disrupts attention.
D)Stress increases motivation.
Q3) According to the precocity-longevity hypothesis, which individual will have the shortest life span?
A)someone who is very creative and thinks in an abstract fashion
B)someone who works very hard
C)someone who has very early career success
D)someone who has very high self-efficacy
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28
Chapter 14: A: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) What is the most likely cause of psychogenic amnesia and fugue?
A)neurotic personality
B)unconscious recollections of childhood trauma
C)neurotransmitter imbalance
D)extreme stress
Q2) Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning the onset of bipolar disorder?
A)The peak age of onset is during middle or late adulthood (age 40 and on).
B)The onset of bipolar disorder is spread evenly across almost all age groups.
C)The peak age of onset is usually in early adulthood (age 20 through 29).
D)The symptoms tend to be most severe when the disorder has a late onset.
Q3) Which of the following is true, according to the medical model?
A)All physical illnesses have a psychological component.
B)Abnormal behaviour can be thought of as a disease.
C)All mental illnesses are caused by biological factors.
D)All mental illnesses can be treated using drugs.
Q4) It has been said that not all deviant behaviour is maladaptive, but all maladaptive behaviour is deviant. Discuss this idea, based on what you've learned about the definition and criteria of abnormal behaviour.
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Chapter 14: B: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) What is the most likely immediate legal consequence of the man's actions?
A)He will be judged unfit to stand trial.
B)He will be convicted and sentenced to a psychiatric facility.
C)He will be formally charged, but found not guilty by reason of insanity.
D)He will be formally charged, but found not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder.
Q2) Violent behaviour by an individual with a psychological disorder generally receives more attention than nonviolent behaviour. What does this lead to?
A)The availability heuristic leads people to overestimate the likelihood of violence by those with psychological disorders.
B)The conjunction fallacy leads people to overestimate rates of comorbidity.
C)Hindsight bias leads people to predict future episodes of violent behaviour.
D)The representativeness heuristic leads people to underestimate the number of individuals with mental disorders.
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Chapter 15: A: Treatment of Psychological Disorders
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Q1) What is the basic learning principle used in Wolpe's systematic desensitization?
A)operant conditioning
B)counterconditioning
C)negative reinforcement
D)positive reinforcement
Q2) What is the purpose of having decentralized, outpatient facilities for treatment of individuals with mental disorders?
A)Patients can remain home, or close to home, with access to both treatment and social support networks.
B)Patients can escape the stressful conditions in their current living environments.
C)Patients have better access to the benefits of treatment within large urban centres, away from their homes.
D)Patients can have treatment in their own homes.
Q3) What is the key task for the therapist in client-centred therapy?
A)clarification
B)cognitive evaluation
C)behaviour modification
D)interpretation
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Chapter 15: B: Treatment of Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is a major reason North American minority groups tend to underutilize mental health services?
A)belief that psychological disorders are caused by supernatural forces
B)lack of awareness of maladaptiveness of mental disorders
C)lack of services in rural areas
D)distrust of large institutions like hospitals and community mental health centres
Q2) Mohamed suffers from chronic anxiety. He tends to worry constantly and is uncomfortable in a wide variety of situations. He decides to seek therapy. Mohamed's primary goal is to simply reduce the level of anxiety and tension he is experiencing, and to do so with minimal effort. Which type of therapy is Mohamed most likely to select?
A)emotion
B)behaviour
C)biomedical
D)insight
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Chapter 16: A: Social Behaviour
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Q1) How do we tend to perceive people with baby-faced features (e.g., large eyes, smooth skin)?
A)competent and hardworking
B)intelligent and nonconforming
C)honest and trustworthy
D)dominant and perceptive
Q2) A number of studies have shown that attitudes are only mediocre predictors of behaviour. Which of the following is an explanation for this finding?
A)Researchers failed to operationalize the concept of an attitude.
B)General beliefs and feelings aren't likely to predict specific behaviours very well.
C)Researchers failed to take variations in attitude strength into account.
D)Subjects often intentionally lie about both their attitudes and their behaviour.
Q3) Which of the following would definitely be categorized as a group?
A)5 people in different cities who work collaboratively on a book
B)15 people who live in the same neighbourhood
C)5 people sitting in a doctor's waiting room
D)15 people who belong to the same international fan club
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Chapter 16: B: Social Behaviour
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Q1) Which branch of psychology is concerned with the way individuals' thoughts, feelings, and behaviours are influenced by others?
A)social
B)individual
C)abnormal
D)cultural
Q2) In Festinger and Carlsmith's classic study of cognitive dissonance, which group of subjects experienced both a high level of cognitive dissonance and exhibited more attitude change?
A)subjects who were offered $20 to "lie" and refused the offer
B)subjects who were offered $1 to "lie" and accepted the offer
C)subjects who were offered $1 to "lie" and refused the offer
D)subjects who were offered $20 to "lie" and accepted the offer
Q3) Which term is defined as widely held beliefs that people have certain characteristics because of their membership in a particular group?
A)person perception
B)social schemas
C)stereotypes
D)prejudice
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Chapter 17: Appendix B: Statistical Methods
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Q1) How is the median determined?
A)Add up all the scores and divide by the number of scores.
B)Arrange the scores in increasing order and find the middle score.
C)Divide the middle score by the number of scores.
D)Find the most frequently occurring score.
Q2) In gym class, everyone was tested to determine how many sit-ups they could do in one minute. Ming's performance was at the 61st percentile. Which of the following is true?
A)Ming did fewer sit-ups than 61 percent of the students in the class.
B)Ming did 61 sit-ups.
C)Ming was one standard deviation above the mean.
D)Ming did more sit-ups than 61 percent of the students in the class.
Q3) When a trait has a normal distribution, approximately what percentage of scores falls within plus or minus one standard deviation from the mean?
A)34 percent
B)40 percent
C)50 percent
D)68 percent
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Chapter 18: Appendix C: Industrialorganizational Psychology
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Q1) Bindi and Keller work for XYZ Corporation. They both believe that the employer plans to continue to employ them for the rest of their careers. Bindi just started working for the corporation, while Keller has been working there for more than two years. According to Rousseau's notion of the psychological contract, what is likely to be true?
A)The company is more likely to abandon its perceived commitment to Bindi, because she is female.
B)Bindi will feel that she owes more to the company than does Keller.
C)The two employees will feel equally committed, so long as the company lives up to its promise.
D)Keller will feel that he owes a great deal to the company, while Bindi will be less committed.
Q2) Which educational model reflects the training of industrial/organizational psychologists?
A)experimental utility
B)industrial researcher
C)clinical
D)scientist-practitioner
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Chapter 19: Appendix D: Evaluating the Quality of
Web-Based Resources
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Q1) Under what conditions would it be professionally acceptable to use resources that are "anonymous"?
A)when the accounts are associated with some sort of organization or foundation
B)when you already know who "anonymous" is
C)when the accounts have a "ring of truth" to them and seem logical
D)when you wish to examine first-person accounts dealing with sensitive personal issues, like descriptions of abuse or sexuality
Q2) What is the key to finding quality resources online?
A)Actively exercise judgment and critical thinking.
B)Limit your search to peer-reviewed sites.
C)Start with a common resource like Wikipedia and follow links from that source.
D)Rely on resources that have been referred to you by those you trust.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an important criterion when evaluating materials on the Internet?
A)Who is the publisher or sponsor of the website?
B)What is the quality of the online presentation?
C)How popular is the site, or how many "hits" has it received?
D)What is the identity and qualification of the author?
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