Psychology for Social Sciences Exam Review
Course Introduction
Psychology for Social Sciences introduces students to the fundamental concepts, theories, and methods of psychology as they pertain to understanding human behavior within social contexts. The course covers key topics such as perception, motivation, learning, cognition, personality, group dynamics, and social influence, with an emphasis on how psychological principles shape and are shaped by culture, society, and interpersonal interactions. Students will analyze real-world social issues through a psychological lens, develop critical thinking skills, and gain insight into the application of psychological research in various social science disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by
David G. Myers
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56 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The empirical approach is best described as
A) a system for examining assumptions and discerning hidden values.
B) a method of self-reflective introspection.
C) an evidence-based method that draws on observation and experimentation.
D) the study of the evolved functions of our thoughts and feelings.
Answer: C
Q2) A helping profession devoted to assisting people with problems often related to school,work,or marriage is known as A) personality psychology.
B) counseling psychology.
C) cognitive psychology.
D) social psychology.
Answer: B
Q3) Ivan Pavlov pioneered the study of A) learning.
B) perception.
C) personality.
D) mental illness.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher would be most likely to discover a negative correlation between A) body height and body weight.
B) self-esteem and depression.
C) education and personal wealth.
D) intelligence and academic success.
Answer: B
Q2) Each time Samantha has observed a person using government food vouchers to pay for groceries,the person has been an Hispanic female.Samantha has fallen victim to A) sampling bias.
B) naturalistic observation.
C) a case study.
D) random sampling.
Answer: A
Q3) In an experiment,the experimental group is the group that A) receives a placebo.
B) is informed about which treatment they are receiving.
C) is exposed to the treatment being tested by the experiment.
D) is not fully debriefed following the completion of the experiment.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professor Woo noticed that the distribution of her students' scores on the last biology test had an extremely small standard deviation.This indicates that the A) test was given to a very small class of students.
B) test was a poor measure of the students' knowledge.
C) students generally performed very well on the test.
D) students' scores tended to be very similar to one another.
Answer: D
Q2) In a single day,45 babies were born in hospital X,65 babies in hospital Y,and 25 babies in hospital Z.At which hospital is there the greatest probability that more than 60 percent of the babies are of the same sex?
A) hospital X
B) hospital Y
C) hospital Z
D) The probability is the same at all three hospitals.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a professor accused you of cheating on a test,your adrenal glands would probably release ________ into your bloodstream.
A) endorphins
B) acetylcholine
C) epinephrine
D) insulin
Q2) The endocrine system consists of the
A) communication network that includes all the body's neurons.
B) regions of the brain that regulate emotion.
C) interneurons within the spinal cord.
D) glands that secrete hormones.
Q3) Biological psychology is best described as the scientific study of the links between A) physiological activity and psychological events.
B) genes and neurotransmitters.
C) sensory and motor neurons.
D) the CNS and the PNS.
Q4) The basic building blocks of our neural information system are neurons.Explain what neurons are,how they work,and how they communicate or transmit information?
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Chapter 5: The Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reticular formation is a nerve network that travels from the ________ into the thalamus.
A) spinal cord
B) amygdala
C) hypothalamus
D) cerebellum
Q2) Basic automatic survival functions,such as heartbeat and breathing,are controlled by the
A) pons.
B) brainstem.
C) thalamus.
D) reticular formation.
Q3) Which baseball-sized structure at the rear of the brainstem serves many functions,including helping you to judge time and to discriminate sounds and textures?
A) amygdala
B) cerebellum
C) hippocampus
D) corpus callosum
Q4) Compare and contrast the various ways that neuroscientists study the brain.
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Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The auditory hallucinations experienced by people with schizophrenia are most closely linked with the activation of areas in their A) motor cortex.
B) parietal lobes.
C) temporal lobes.
D) somatosensory cortex.
Q2) An area at the rear of the frontal lobes that controls voluntary movements is called the
A) somatosensory cortex.
B) motor cortex.
C) corpus callosum.
D) frontal association area.
Q3) People's moral judgments are most likely to seem unrestrained by normal emotions if they have suffered damage to their A) hippocampus.
B) somatosensory cortex.
C) corpus callosum.
D) frontal cortex.
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8
Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only smiling face in a crowd of anxious-looking people may be so strikingly distinct that people cannot help but notice it.This best illustrates A) dual processing.
B) blindsight.
C) the cocktail party effect.
D) popout.
Q2) The simultaneous processing of information on many parallel tracks is most closely associated with
A) sequential processing.
B) the cocktail party effect.
C) popout.
D) unconscious mental activity.
Q3) Normally sighted people whose visual cortex is disabled with magnetic stimulation can nevertheless sense the emotion expressed in faces.This best illustrates our capacity for
A) choice blindness.
B) unconscious information processing.
C) inattentional blindness.
D) sequential information processing.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humans continuously exposed to bright light are most likely to experience a disruption of their A) narcolepsy.
B) sleep apnea.
C) alpha waves.
D) circadian rhythm.
Q2) Jordanna has decided to go to bed early.Although her eyes are closed and she's very relaxed,she has not yet fallen asleep.An EEG is most likely to indicate the presence of A) delta waves.
B) alpha waves.
C) sleep spindles.
D) rapid eye movements.
Q3) A recurring difficulty in falling or staying asleep is called A) narcolepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) paradoxical sleep.
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Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sodium pentothal has sometimes been called a "truth serum" because it relaxes people and enables them to more freely disclose personally embarrassing experiences.It is most likely that sodium pentothal is a(n)
A) barbiturate.
B) amphetamine.
C) hallucinogen.
D) form of cocaine.
Q2) Depressant drugs include alcohol,
A) marijuana,and LSD.
B) barbiturates,and opiates.
C) nicotine,and caffeine.
D) cocaine,and amphetamines.
Q3) Amphetamines are classified as ________ and barbiturates are classified as ________.
A) hallucinogens;depressants
B) stimulants;depressants
C) hallucinogens;stimulants
D) stimulants;hallucinogens
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11
Chapter 10: Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with fraternal twins,identical twins are
A) less similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and less similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.
B) more similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and more similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.
C) equally similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and more similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.
D) more similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and equally similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.
Q2) The subfield of biology that studies the molecular structure and function of genes is called
A) heritability studies.
B) molecular genetics.
C) behavior genetics.
D) epigenetics.
Q3) Mark and Paul are identical twins.Explain what can be expected in terms of similarities and differences (their personality,for instance).Use research findings to support your answer.
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Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our adaptive flexibility in responding to different environments contributes to our fitness,which refers to
A) random errors in the replication of genes.
B) competition for survival.
C) our ability to survive and reproduce.
D) the interaction of our genes with the environment.
Q2) Charles Darwin advanced the principle of A) universal moral grammar.
B) social scripts.
C) sexual overperception bias.
D) natural selection.
Q3) Critics of evolutionary psychology would be most likely to suggest that it has difficulty accounting for
A) differences in the behavior patterns of males and females.
B) similarities in the behavior patterns of males and females.
C) differences in the behavior patterns of Asians and Americans.
D) similarities in the behavior patterns of Asians and Americans.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teased by his older sister,9-year-old Waldo does not cry because he has learned that boys should never cry.Waldo's behavior best illustrates the importance of A) individualism.
B) gender roles.
C) testosterone.
D) menarche.
Q2) Brain scans suggest that a woman's brain,more often than a man's,is wired in a way that enables
A) creative problem solving.
B) happy moods.
C) social relationships.
D) quick reflexes.
Q3) Because of an insensitivity to male sex hormones during prenatal development,Pat,a genetically male baby,was born with external genitals characteristic of a female baby.Pat most clearly shows signs of A) a high level of testosterone.
B) an intersex condition.
C) gender dysphoria.
D) having primary sex characteristics.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fusion of a sperm cell and an egg into a single cell is called A) secure attachment. B) assimilation. C) maturation.
D) conception.
Q2) From 2 weeks to 8 weeks after conception,the human organism is known as a(n) A) embryo.
B) fetus.
C) zygote.
D) ovum.
Q3) What are the three major issues in developmental psychology? Provide an example of each.
Q4) Boys first begin producing sperm during A) embryonic development.
B) fetal development.
C) the first year after birth. D) puberty.
Q5) Design an experiment to show how the process of habituation can help us to demonstrate human infants' capacities for perception,learning,and memory.
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Chapter 14: Hearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our enduring personality traits are first evident in our differing A) birth weights.
B) schemas.
C) temperaments.
D) reflex responses.
Q2) Questions about the extent to which secure attachments are influenced by infant temperament or by responsive parenting are most directly relevant to the issue of A) object permanence and stranger anxiety.
B) critical periods and imprinting.
C) nature and nurture.
D) assimilation and accommodation.
Q3) Mrs.Kaufman spends a lot of time stroking,cuddling,and rocking her infant son and seems to be highly aware of the baby's actions and needs.Mr.Kaufman worries that his wife's interactions with the baby may eventually lead the child to (a)cry easily when frustrated, (b)fearfully cling to his mother, (c)become unfriendly toward other people,and (d)become withdrawn and uninterested in his surroundings.Describe research on social development that supports or refutes each of the father's concerns.
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Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our ________ often forms around our distinctive characteristics.
A) identity
B) social image
C) social identity
D) self-concept
Q2) Avoiding physical punishment is to ________ morality as respecting the laws of society is to ________ morality.
A) conventional;postconventional
B) preconventional;postconventional
C) conventional;preconventional
D) preconventional;conventional
Q3) Giving up immediate rewards to achieve longer-term goals is called
A) postconventional morality.
B) a pruning process.
C) delay of gratification.
D) formal operational thought.
Q4) Compare and contrast the consequences of early pubertal development for both males and females.
Q5) Explain the concept of social identity and provide an example.
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Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The risk of developing a neurocognitive disorder in late adulthood is more than doubled by ________ in midlife.
A) upper respiratory flu
B) menopause
C) heavy smoking
D) breast cancer
Q2) Dr.Anders is a 416-year-old physician who experiences a sense of personal fulfillment in contributing to the well-being of others through her medical practice.Erik Erikson would have suggested that Dr.Anders experiences
A) plasticity.
B) autonomy.
C) attachment.
D) generativity.
Q3) An early sign of Alzheimer's disease would most likely be
A) an inability to recognize oneself in a mirror.
B) the use of profane and abusive language.
C) upper respiratory flu.
D) difficulty in naming familiar objects or people.
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18
Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) After watching a scary television movie,Julie perceived the noise of the wind rattling her front windows as the sound of a burglar breaking into her house.Her mistaken interpretation best illustrates the influence of A) perceptual set.
B) subliminal stimulation.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) bottom-up processing.
Q2) The influence of schemas on our interpretations of unfamiliar information best illustrates
A) context effects.
B) top-down processing.
C) bottom-up processing.
D) sensory adaptation.
Q3) The process by which we organize and interpret sensory information in order to recognize meaningful objects and events is called
A) sensory adaptation.
B) sensation.
C) perception.
D) signal detection.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Q1) The direct link between a single cone and a single ________ preserves the fine details in the cone's message.
A) rod
B) ganglion cell
C) blind spot
D) bipolar cell
Q2) The fact that we recognize objects as having a consistent form regardless of changing viewing angles illustrates A) interposition.
B) closure.
C) perceptual constancy.
D) linear perspective.
Q3) The amount of energy a light wave contains is its A) wavelength.
B) hue.
C) brightness.
D) intensity.
Q4) Describe the Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory and the opponent-process theory of color vision,and explain the solution to the color vision debate.
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Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypnosis involves a state of
A) increased physical stamina.
B) heightened openness to suggestion.
C) improved perceptual skills.
D) elevated physical arousal.
Q2) For some people,hearing certain sounds may activate color-sensitive regions of the cortex so as to trigger a sensation of color.This phenomenon is called A) tinnitus.
B) telepathy.
C) synesthesia.
D) kinesthesia.
Q3) When put in a foul-smelling rather than a pleasant-smelling room,members of a jury perceived immoral acts such as stealing as more disgusting.This best illustrates the importance of A) dissociation.
B) the McGurk effect.
C) embodied cognition.
D) synesthesia.
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21
Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) In classical conditioning,the conditioned stimulus signals the impending occurrence of
A) a neutral stimulus.
B) generalization.
C) an unconditioned stimulus.
D) operant behavior.
Q2) Antonio's football coach frequently yells at him for swearing.As a result,Antonio now experiences anxiety when he's near his coach.The coach is a(n)________ for Antonio's anxiety.
A) neutral stimulus
B) conditioned stimulus
C) secondary conditioner
D) unconditioned stimulus
Q3) In classical conditioning a stimulus is any event or situation that A) triggers imitation.
B) signals a reward.
C) elicits operant behavior.
D) evokes a response.
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22
Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because Mr.Baron demonstrates appreciation only for very good classroom answers,his students have stopped participating in class.Mr.Baron most clearly needs to be informed of the value of A) generalization.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) shaping.
D) partial reinforcement.
Q2) After his mother smiles,Jimmy's request for a snack is reinforced.But if his mother is not smiling,his subsequent request for a snack is not reinforced.By indicating that Jimmy's request for a snack will be reinforced,the mother's smile is a(n)
A) primary reinforcer.
B) discriminative stimulus.
C) respondent behavior.
D) unconditioned response.
Q3) Pretend that you have a teenage daughter who is slacking on her chores.How could you use both reinforcement and punishment to get her to do her chores? Be sure to describe the use of both positive and negative reinforcers,as well as positive and negative punishment.
Q4) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning.
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Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Questions
Q1) Professor Kingston emphasizes that learned fears reflect the interacting influences of a person's inborn emotional reactivity,family life history,and capacity to generalize from previous experiences.The professor's emphasis best illustrates A) behaviorism.
B) intrinsic motivation.
C) prosocial behavior.
D) a biopsychosocial approach.
Q2) Your friend James tells you that he believes the conclusions of a research article that viewing violent media has a minimal effect on aggressive behavior.Based on the text discussion,how would you respond to your friend? How would you describe the opposite view of the research in this area ?
Q3) It has been suggested that ________ are activated when a monkey moves a peanut into its own mouth and when a monkey simply observes other monkeys move a peanut into their mouths.
A) prosocial behaviors
B) intrinsic motives
C) cognitive maps
D) mirror neurons
Q4) Explain how cognitive processes affect operant and classical conditioning.
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Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which measure of memory retention is used by fill-in-the-blank test questions?
A) relearning
B) rehearsal
C) recall
D) recognition
Q2) Iconic memory is to echoic memory as ________ is to ________.
A) short-term memory;long-term memory
B) explicit memory;implicit memory
C) visual stimulation;auditory stimulation
D) shallow processing;deep processing
Q3) Which measure of memory did Ebbinghaus use to assess the impact of rehearsal on the retention of nonsense syllables?
A) recall
B) recognition
C) relearning
D) recitation
Q4) A friend claims that the faster you read,the more you remember.Use your knowledge of effortful processing and effective encoding strategies to refute your friend's claim.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Q1) Damage to the hippocampus would most likely interfere with a person's ability to learn
A) to ride a bike.
B) to eat with a fork.
C) a classically conditioned fear response.
D) the names of newly introduced people.
Q2) We long remember exciting or shocking events due to activation of the limbic system's
A) hypothalamus.
B) amygdala.
C) basal ganglia.
D) cerebellum.
Q3) Hearing the word rabbit may lead people to spell the spoken word hair as h-a-r-e.This best illustrates the outcome of a process known as A) flashbulb memory.
B) the serial position effect.
C) encoding specificity.
D) priming.
Q4) Detail how emotions impact memory.Provide some real-life examples.
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Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Q1) Researchers observed that people exposed to very convincing arguments about the value of frequent toothbrushing tended to
A) quickly forget the arguments if they were in the habit of brushing frequently.
B) quickly forget the arguments if they were not in the habit of brushing frequently.
C) exaggerate how frequently they had brushed their teeth in the past.
D) exaggerate how infrequently they had brushed their teeth in the past.
Q2) In one study,children were periodically asked whether they remembered going to the hospital with a mousetrap on their finger.This experiment best illustrated the dynamics of
A) memory construction.
B) positive transfer.
C) sensory memory.
D) repression.
Q3) Déjà vu refers to the
A) emotional arousal produced by proactive interference.
B) tendency to remember experiences that were actually dreams.
C) unconscious activation of particular associations in memory.
D) eerie sense of having previously experienced a situation or event.
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Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Logical,methodical step-by-step procedures for solving problems are called A) heuristics.
B) fixations.
C) prototypes.
D) algorithms.
Q2) Weather forecasters typically avoid overconfidence when making weather predictions because they A) work with computer-generated algorithms.
B) rely on prototypes for making category judgments.
C) use heuristics to avoid premature conclusions.
D) promptly receive clear feedback on their accuracy.
Q3) Creativity is most likely to be supported by above-average levels of A) belief perseverance. B) intellectual aptitude.
C) extrinsic motivation.
D) confirmation bias.
Q4) Describe several heuristics that you might use or that you have used when deciding whether you should (a)study especially hard for a test and (b)ask someone for a date (or accept a date).Under what circumstances are these heuristics likely to contribute to poor decision making?
28
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Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Q1) Bilingual people,who inhibit one language while using the other,can better inhibit their attention to irrelevant information.This has been called
A) linguistic determinism.
B) implicit memory.
C) the bilingual advantage.
D) universal grammar.
Q2) ________ is an early speech stage in which a child speaks like a telegram using mostly nouns and verbs.
A) Telegraphic speech
B) The two-word stage
C) The one-word stage
D) Babbling
Q3) Those who learn sign language as teens never become as fluent as children exposed to sign language from birth.This best illustrates the importance of ________ for mastering language.
A) statistics
B) telegraphic speech
C) a critical period
D) universal grammar
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Q1) The theorist who opposed Spearman's idea of a g factor and identified seven clusters of primary mental abilities was
A) Howard Gardner.
B) Kim Peek.
C) L.L.Thurstone.
D) Robert Sternberg.
Q2) Andrew is no smarter than his graduate school classmates,but his self-discipline and passionate dedication to long workdays resulted in notably superior academic accomplishments.Andrew's unusual level of success best illustrates the importance of A) grit.
B) the g factor.
C) street smarts.
D) analytical intelligence.
Q3) Which of the following disorders often co-occurs with savant syndrome?
A) existential intelligence
B) practical intelligence
C) reduce perception of emotions
D) autism spectrum disorder
Q4) Compare and contrast the theories of multiple intelligences.
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Q1) Molly has just taken a test of her capacity to learn to be a computer programmer.This is an example of an ________ test.
A) IQ Test
B) achievement
C) interest
D) aptitude
Q2) A test is reliable if it
A) measures what it claims to measure or predicts what it is supposed to predict.
B) yields dependably consistent scores.
C) has been standardized on a representative sample of all those who are likely to take the test.
D) produces a normal distribution of scores.
Q3) The nineteenth-century English scientist Sir Francis Galton believed that
A) mental abilities cannot be measured.
B) superior intelligence is biologically inherited.
C) academic aptitude measures chronological age rather than mental age.
D) intelligence test performance depends on motivation rather than ability.
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Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Q1) Intellectual disability was formerly referred to as
A) mental retardation.
B) Down syndrome.
C) autism spectrum disorder.
D) savant disorder.
Q2) Intelligence scores are most likely to be stable over a one-year period for a(n)
A) preschool student.
B) third-grade student.
C) fifth-grade student.
D) eleventh-grade student.
Q3) Among Americans scoring in the top 1 percent of their age group on the ________ at age 13,more than half have earned doctorates.
A) WAIS
B) Stanford-Binet
C) SAT
D) WISC
Q4) Imagine that you are a scientist who is examining how intelligence changes with age.Design both a cross-sectional and a longitudinal study to examine how intelligence changes from young to middle to late adulthood.What results would you expect from each type of study?
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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Q1) Psychologists would be likely to agree that
A) intelligence tests have greater predictive validity for men than for women.
B) intelligence tests have comparable predictive validity for Whites and Blacks.
C) intelligence tests have less predictive validity for poor students than for rich students.
D) all of these statements are true.
Q2) Sweden and Iceland exhibit little of the gender gap in mathematical abilities found in Turkey and Korea.This best illustrates that mental abilities are
A) polygenetic.
B) genetic.
C) socially influenced.
D) stable.
Q3) Brain scans reveal that identical twins' brains have ________ gray matter volume and ________ white matter volume.
A) similar;dissimilar
B) dissimilar;similar
C) similar;similar
D) dissimilar;dissimilar
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Q1) Ten-year-old Malik is bored unless he is active or playing with other children.Realizing his needs,his parents have involved him in after-school sports and summer camps,and they allow him to play outside with other children as much as possible.His parents understand Malik's high need for A) arousal.
B) homeostasis.
C) incentives.
D) drive-reduction.
Q2) The Yerkes-Dodson law refers to the tendency for optimal performance to be associated with A) homeostasis.
B) moderate arousal.
C) achievement motivation.
D) the arcuate nucleus.
Q3) A physiological need is a A) basic bodily requirement.
B) need or desire that energizes and directs behavior.
C) complex behavior that is rigidly patterned throughout a species and is unlearned.
D) positive or negative environmental stimulus that motivates behavior.
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Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Q1) An individual is considered obese if his or her body mass index (BMI)is
A) 20 and above.
B) 25 and above.
C) 30 and above.
D) higher than 50.
Q2) Sonya has just finished a large birthday dinner.When the waiter offers to give her a complementary birthday dessert,she explains that she is not feeling hungry at the moment.This is likely because her
A) PYY levels are low.
B) ghrelin levels are low.
C) blood glucose level has dropped.
D) level of orexin is high.
Q3) Working with Walter Cannon,A.L.Washburn used a balloon to show that feelings of hunger are accompanied by
A) rising blood glucose levels.
B) reduced secretions of ghrelin.
C) a rising set point.
D) stomach contractions.
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Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) By manipulating a single gene,scientists have been able to control sexual orientation in
A) humans.
B) chimpanzees.
C) fruit flies.
D) all of these organisms.
Q2) The sex hormone secreted in greater amounts by females than by males is A) estradiol.
B) testosterone.
C) refraction.
D) estrogen.
Q3) Fifteen-year-old Juan is experiencing an increase in the hormone ________,which causes his sexual arousal to ________.
A) estrogen;increase
B) estrogen;decrease
C) testosterone;increase
D) testosterone;decrease
Q4) Jackie just woke from a dream that involved strong sexual imagery.Describe how imagined stimuli can influence sexual desire and arousal.
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Chapter 35: Hunger
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Q1) Achievement motivation is the desire for
A) significant accomplishment,for mastery of skills or ideas,for control,and for attaining a high standard.
B) building relationships and feeling part of a group.
C) passion and perseverance in the pursuit of long-term goals.
D) self-love and self-absorption.
Q2) Which of the following is an important component of grit?
A) self-disclosure
B) narcissism
C) self-discipline
D) social networking
Q3) Jackie has a strong sense of competence and autonomy,both in her personal life and professionally.Thus,Jackie is also likely to have a high level of A) self-esteem.
B) ostracism.
C) narcissism.
D) chain migration.
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Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Q1) The arousal that lingers after an intense argument may intensify sexual passion.This best illustrates
A) the Cannon-Bard theory.
B) the spillover effect.
C) the low road of emotional processing.
D) parasympathetic activation.
Q2) The polygraph measures the changes in ________ that accompany emotion.
A) blood sugar level
B) hormone secretions
C) pupil dilation
D) perspiration
Q3) The suggestion that we share a friend's feelings of joy if we smile with him or her best illustrates the logic of the
A) Cannon-Bard theory.
B) the two-factor theory.
C) James-Lange theory.
D) spillover effect.
Q4) Describe how polygraphs are intended to measure lying,and discuss their accuracy.
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Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) When communicating with others electronically,we are at risk for egocentrism because our communications lack
A) vocal nuances.
B) expressive emotions.
C) ambiguous emotion.
D) visual cues to emotion.
Q2) Botox paralysis of the frowning facial muscles ________ people's reading of sadness-related sentences and ________ activity in emotion-related brain circuits.
A) speeds;speeds
B) slows;slows
C) slows;speeds
D) speeds;slows
Q3) The facial expressions associated with particular emotions are
A) learned in early childhood.
B) different in Eastern and Western cultures.
C) the same throughout the world.
D) more similar in adults than they are in children or adolescents.
Q4) Describe the female advantage regarding nonverbal communication.
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Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Experts suggest that an intensely angry person should
A) avoid talking about their angry feelings.
B) release the anger through some aggressive action or fantasy.
C) take time to let the anger and emotional arousal subside.
D) mentally rehearse the exact reasons for the anger.
Q2) According to Carroll Izard,which of the following is considered a basic emotion?
A) love
B) empathy
C) anger
D) pride
Q3) Reduced feelings of tension following aggressive outbursts contribute to A) spontaneous remission.
B) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
C) relative deprivation.
D) the reinforcement of aggression.
Q4) Level of happiness tends to fluctuate around
A) a happiness set point.
B) predictable levels.
C) heritable levels.
D) relative deprivation.
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Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers examined the photographs of 150 Major League Baseball players who had appeared in the 1952 Baseball Register and had died by 2009.Those who lived an average of 80 years rather than 73 years were distinguished by their A) height.
B) smiles.
C) muscularity.
D) skin color.
Q2) The macrophage and lymphocytes are major agents of the A) sympathetic nervous system.
B) immune system.
C) limbic system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
Q3) An overactive immune system puts women at higher risk of ________ than men.
A) high blood pressure
B) stomach cancer
C) lupus
D) AIDS
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Q1) Religiously active people have ________ socially supportive relationships and ________ lifestyles than those who are not religiously active.
A) fewer;less healthy
B) fewer;healthier
C) more;less healthy
D) more;healthier
Q2) After picking one of 30 brands of jam,people may feel regret over bypassing some of the remaining brands.Their regret best illustrates a consequence of
A) an external locus of control.
B) the tyranny of choice.
C) emotion-focused coping.
D) a Type A personality.
Q3) In a famous study,when nursing home patients were encouraged to exert more personal control,93 percent became A) fearful of making a mistake.
B) more withdrawn.
C) more alert and happier.
D) less active.
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Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Juanita is a new second-grade teacher who believes that when correcting the behavior of a child you should explain why the behavior is wrong and how to change the behavior.Her teaching mentor believes that focusing on discipline and correcting each mistake harshly will help avoid behavior problems in the future.Juanita is now using the same harsh discipline.Based on the findings of Zimbardo's prison study,Juanita's change in attitude about her job illustrates the impact of A) cognitive dissonance.
B) peripheral route persuasion.
C) attributions.
D) role playing on attitudes.
Q2) Researchers have filmed two people interacting face-to-face with cameras located just behind each person.Showing each person a replay of their interaction filmed from the other person's perspective increased their tendency to attribute the other person's behavior to
A) dispositional influences.
B) situational influences.
C) personality traits.
D) role playing.
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Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) The understood rules for acceptable and expected behavior are called
A) social contagion.
B) social norms.
C) personal control.
D) mood linkage.
Q2) According to Milgram,the most fundamental lesson to be learned from his study of obedience is that
A) people are naturally predisposed to be hostile and aggressive.
B) even ordinary people,who are not usually hostile,can become agents of destruction.
C) the desire to be accepted by others is one of the strongest human motives.
D) people value their personal freedom and react negatively when they feel they are being coerced to do something.
Q3) Researchers find that conformity to the group is more likely when all of the following occur EXCEPT
A) one is made to feel secure.
B) one has not made a prior commitment to any response.
C) the group is unanimous.
D) one admires the group's status and attractiveness.
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Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Q1) On the basis of what Americans say,in the last half-century
A) gender prejudice has decreased and racial prejudice has increased.
B) gender prejudice has increased and racial prejudice has decreased.
C) gender prejudice has decreased and racial prejudice has decreased.
D) gender prejudice has increased and racial prejudice has increased.
Q2) An explanation of aggression in terms of instinct would have the most difficulty accounting for
A) unexpected and unprovoked outbursts of aggression.
B) wide cultural variations in aggressiveness.
C) aggression that is accompanied by anger and hostility.
D) the use of nuclear weapons to kill millions of unseen victims.
Q3) After watching a large number of sexually violent movies,Ollie will probably be
A) more likely to believe that such movies should be banned.
B) less likely to believe that women are seriously harmed by rape.
C) more likely to favor long prison sentences for convicted rapists.
D) less likely to believe that women enjoy aggressive sexual treatment from men.
Q4) Jason tends to drink too much when he goes out with friends and also is likely to act aggressively after drinking.Explain Jason's increased levels of aggression.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women are attracted to healthy-looking men,but especially to those who seem to be A) submissive.
B) insecure.
C) mature.
D) less attractive than themselves.
Q2) Despite government warnings of a severe shortage of heating fuels,most citizens continue to turn up their home thermostats in the belief that their personal fuel consumption will have little effect on the country's total fuel reserves.This reaction best illustrates the dynamics of
A) the bystander effect.
B) diffusion of responsibility.
C) a social exchange.
D) a social trap.
Q3) Psychologists describe shared goals that override differences among people and require their cooperation as
A) social responsibilities.
B) diffused.
C) companionate.
D) superordinate.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modern research can describe slips of the tongue as A) combining similar verbal choices in our memory network.
B) an unconscious defense mechanism.
C) an expression of repressed urges.
D) an attempt to redirect anxiety by distorting reality.
Q2) Which neo-Freudian theorist emphasized the influence of the collective unconscious in personality development?
A) Carl Jung
B) Alfred Adler
C) Karen Horney
D) Henry Murray
Q3) Freud would have suggested that an excessive fixation is most likely to contribute to A) regression.
B) an inferiority complex.
C) reciprocal determinism.
D) free association.
Q4) Outline Freud's proposed stages of psychosexual development.
Q5) Compare and contrast the modern view of the unconscious mind with that of Freud.
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Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Q1) One of the Big Five personality factors is A) emotional stability.
B) self-actualization. C) agreeableness.
D) self-transcendence.
Q2) The stability of personality during adulthood best illustrates the value of A) a hierarchy of needs. B) a positive self-concept. C) factor analysis.
D) trait theories.
Q3) Omar,who is extraverted,hates being alone,enjoys loud music,and dislikes reading quietly.According to trait theorists,this cluster of behaviors is called a A) human need.
B) self-concept.
C) factor.
D) dimension.
Q4) Generally,how did humanistic theorists view personality? Provide a comparison of the two pioneering humanistic theorists.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Q1) If we are nervous about our personal appearance after adopting a new hairstyle,we are likely to ________ the extent to which others notice our nervousness and we are likely to ________ the extent to which they notice our new hairstyle.
A) overestimate;underestimate
B) underestimate;overestimate
C) overestimate;overestimate
D) underestimate;underestimate
Q2) Card players who attribute their wins to their own skill and their losses to bad luck best illustrate
A) unconditional positive regard.
B) reciprocal determinism.
C) the spotlight effect.
D) self-serving bias.
Q3) Exaggerated feelings of self-importance are most closely linked with A) narcissism.
B) extraversion.
C) the spotlight effect.
D) free association.
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Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Q1) Many clinicians diagnose disorders by using the detailed diagnostic criteria and codes in the
A) OCD.
B) DSM-5.
C) PTSD.
D) ADHD.
Q2) The mass-killing shooters have several things in common,including that they tend to A) be young males.
B) suffer from a psychological disorder.
C) be older men with psychological disorders.
D) be young women with gang affiliations.
Q3) The interaction of genetic predispositions,mental processes,and cultural circumstances is most clearly emphasized by A) the DSM-5.
B) the medical model.
C) the immigrant paradox.
D) the biopsychosocial approach.
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Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Q1) Julie experiences an overwhelming fear of entering a crowded airplane or movie theater because she thinks she might become anxious and feel trapped.Julie most clearly suffers from
A) posttraumatic stress disorder.
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C) social anxiety disorder.
D) agoraphobia.
Q2) It has been suggested that compulsive acts typically exaggerate behaviors that contributed to the survival of the human species.This idea best illustrates the ________ perspective.
A) humanistic
B) conditioning
C) psychoanalytic
D) biological
Q3) Obsessions are
A) persistent,irrational fears of specific objects,activities,or situations.
B) feelings of jumpy anxiety.
C) periodic episodes of intense dread accompanied by frightening physical sensations.
D) offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Q1) Jeremy has responded to the stress of his parents' divorce with excessive alcohol consumption and withdrawal from friends,family,and other sources of social support.These behaviors are most likely to place Jeremy at a heightened level of risk for A) bipolar disorder.
B) major depressive disorder.
C) mania.
D) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder.
Q2) Diet,drugs,and stress can place molecular tags on our chromosomes and thereby play a decisive role in whether we suffer an increased risk of depression.This best illustrates the impact of A) rumination.
B) learned helplessness.
C) epigenetic effects.
D) a negative explanatory style.
Q3) A guest on a TV talk show claims that "major depressive disorder is not a psychological problem;it's a disease that can be medically treated." Evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of this claim.
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Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Q1) Macy developed schizophrenia quite suddenly after being sexually assaulted in a parking lot.Macy is responding to medication and most of her symptoms have abated.Macy's case illustrates ________ schizophrenia.
A) chronic
B) catatonic
C) acute
D) process
Q2) Environmental factors such as viral infections can "turn on" specific genes that predispose schizophrenia.This best illustrates the impact of A) an impaired theory of mind.
B) selective attention.
C) epigenetic factors.
D) positive symptoms.
Q3) Cocaine may ________ symptoms of schizophrenia by ________ dopamine levels.
A) increase;decreasing B) decrease;increasing C) increase;increasing D) decrease;decreasing
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Page 53
Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The suggestion that dissociative identity disorder symptoms are created as defenses against the anxiety caused by one's own unacceptable impulses best illustrates the A) psychodynamic perspective.
B) biopsychosocial approach.
C) learning perspective.
D) social-cognitive perspective.
Q2) Unlike those with bulimia nervosa,those with binge-eating disorder are not likely to ________ following binge eating.
A) experience remorse
B) gain weight
C) purge or fast
D) suffer indigestion
Q3) The major characteristic of dissociative disorders is a disturbance of A) mood.
B) appetite.
C) memory.
D) perception.
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Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Q1) Which of the following is the best description of behavior modification?
A) People are helped to identify a hierarchy of anxiety-arousing experiences.
B) People's actions are influenced by controlling the consequences of those actions.
C) What a client says during the course of therapy is repeated or rephrased.
D) Attention is focused on patients' positive and negative feelings toward their therapists.
Q2) Instead of focusing on unconscious thoughts and impulses,________ therapies focus on conscious thoughts and self-perceptions.
A) behavior
B) humanistic
C) biomedical
D) psychodynamic
Q3) Humanistic therapies aim to boost people's self-fulfillment by helping them to grow in
A) progressive relaxation.
B) systematic desensitization.
C) a token economy.
D) self-acceptance.
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Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) Psychotherapy is MOST likely to be effective in freeing
A) Sharon from the feeling that her life is meaningless and worthless.
B) Portia from her delusions of persecution and auditory hallucinations.
C) Jim from an excessive fear of giving speeches in public.
D) Luther from his antisocial personality disorder.
Q2) At a local community meeting with friends,Jim heard dozens of personal testimonials regarding the amazing relief from depression produced by an over-the-counter herbal supplement.Before committing to purchase this herbal remedy,Jim should first determine whether studies of the effectiveness of this remedy had properly controlled for A) meta-analysis.
B) exposure therapy.
C) the placebo effect.
D) a token economy.
Q3) Statistical summaries of psychotherapy outcome studies indicate that
A) psychotherapy is no more effective than talking to a friend.
B) no single form of therapy proves consistently superior to the others.
C) psychotherapy actually harms just as many people as it helps.
D) it is impossible to measure the effectiveness of psychotherapy.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Yu treats his patients with depression by prescribing antidepressants or,in more serious cases,electroconvulsive therapy.The treatment being applied by Dr.Yu is called
A) biomedical therapy.
B) cognitive-behavioral therapy.
C) psychoanalysis.
D) client-centered therapy.
Q2) Adelle's feelings of unhappiness,low self-esteem,and hopelessness have become so extreme that she has attempted suicide.Which of the following treatments is likely to provide her with the quickest effective relief from her misery?
A) electroconvulsive therapy
B) antipsychotic drugs
C) a lobotomy
D) antianxiety drugs
Q3) SSRIs work by
A) speeding recovery from delusions and hallucinations.
B) slowing the normal reabsorption of excess serotonin from synapses.
C) successfully leveling the emotional highs and lows of bipolar disorder.
D) stimulating the release of norepinephrine into the bloodstream.
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Chapter 56: Appendix
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Q1) Matching people with existing jobs is to ________ psychology as modifying jobs and supervision is to ________ psychology.
A) human factors;organizational
B) organizational;human factors
C) personnel;organizational
D) organizational;personnel
Q2) Shauna is a company executive who encourages employees to voice their opinions and to participate in developing workplace rules and production goals.Shauna best illustrates
A) the experience of flow.
B) a democratic leadership style.
C) strengths-based leadership.
D) managing by objectives.
Q3) Managers who set standards and keep a group focused on its goals are said to excel in
A) task leadership.
B) 360-degree feedback.
C) a democratic management style.
D) human factors psychology.
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Page 58