Psychology for Nursing Review Questions
Course Introduction
Psychology for Nursing provides an essential foundation in psychological principles and concepts relevant to nursing practice. This course explores human behavior, emotions, cognition, and development across the lifespan, emphasizing their impact on health and illness. Students learn about psychological responses to stress, coping mechanisms, mental health conditions, and communication strategies for supporting patients and families. The course also addresses the therapeutic nurse-patient relationship, cultural and social influences on mental health, and the psychological needs of diverse patient populations, equipping future nurses with skills to deliver empathetic and holistic care.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology 9th Edition by James W. Kalat
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animal studies are most likely to be used by a psychologist who takes a __________ approach.
A) cognitive
B) transpersonal
C) clinical
D) behavioral
Answer: D
Q2) Which type of psychologist would be most interested in the genetic makeup of an individual?
A) cognitive
B) behaviorist
C) biological
D) psychoanalytic
Answer: C
Q3) The field of psychology today is
A) extremely diverse in the subjects it explores.
B) devoted mainly to the study of laboratory animals.
C) devoted mainly to studying anxiety and depression.
D) no longer interested in studying mental processes.
Answer: A
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Chapter 1: A --What Is Psychology
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Q1) An ____________________ psychologist would be most interested in studying built-in behavior tendencies that serve adaptive functions?
Answer: evolutionary
Q2) Contemporary psychologists are no longer interested in cognitive processes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A human factors specialist (or ergonomist), attempts to facilitate the operation of machinery so that ordinary people can use it efficiently and safely.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Contemporary psychologists have now resolved the old nature-nurture issue in favor of nature.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) When most people think of psychologists, they think of ____________________. Answer: clinical psychologists
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Chapter 2: Scientific Methods in Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advantage of randomly assigning participants to the experimental group and the control group is that random assignment
A) guarantees that participants will know what is expected of them in the experiment.
B) avoids the need to perform statistical tests on the results.
C) eliminates or reduces the influence of independent variables.
D) reduces the possibility that the groups differ greatly at the start of the experiment.
Answer: D
Q2) The main difference between a correlational study and an experiment is that in an experiment,
A) the participants are aware of the hypothesis being tested.
B) all individuals receive the same treatment.
C) the participants are observed without interference in their normal life.
D) the investigator manipulates the independent variable.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: A--Scientific Methods in Psychology
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Q1) Professor Smith conducts a study, and he finds that his results are not statistically significant. This means that Professor Smith must conclude that his hypothesis was wrong.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The word science derives from a Latin word meaning ____________________.
Q3) A correlation coefficient of -.7 represents a stronger relationship between variables than a correlation coefficient of +.5.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ____________________ theory is one that makes clear, easily tested predictions.
Q5) A ____________________ is one of the most difficult to obtain, but is best-suited for generalizing to the whole population?
Q6) The smaller the random sample, the smaller the probability that the results will differ significantly from the whole population.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A ____________________ is the entire group of individuals to be considered.
Page 6
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Chapter 3: Biological Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain and the spinal cord make up the __________ nervous system.
A) central
B) peripheral
C) somatic
D) autonomic
Q2) Which of the following refers to a set of glands that produces and releases hormones?
A) limbic system
B) endocrine system
C) sympathetic nervous system
D) autonomic nervous system
Q3) A neurotransmitter is released into a synapse by which part of a neuron?
A) dendrite
B) myelin
C) cell body
D) terminal button
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Page 7
Chapter 3: A--Biological Psychology
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Q1) A physiological explanation describes the mechanisms that produce a behavior. A)True
B)False
Q2) The three parts of a neuron are the cell body, the ____________________, and the ____________________. or
Q3) When the axon is not stimulated, its membrane has a resting potential.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An action potential takes place by the movement of ____________________ ions across the membrane.
Q5) Damage to the prefrontal cortex is likely to produce poor performance on a delayed-response task, which indicates a difficulty in remembering what has just happened.
A)True B)False
Q6) Brain volume tends to get smaller in old age. A)True
B)False
Q7) Nicotine is classified as a ____________________.
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Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can psychologists determine what the world looks like to a red-green color-blind person?
A) Ask a person with red-green color vision deficiency to describe what he or she sees.
B) Ask someone who is red-green color blind in one eye to describe what he or she sees.
C) Study the pattern of light that reflects off the retina of the person with color vision deficiency.
D) Record the brain waves from an area of the scalp over the occipital lobe.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of motion parallax?
A) You feel tension in your eye muscles when you focus on a nearby object.
B) As you travel in a car, nearby objects pass by faster than distant objects do.
C) An illuminated point in an otherwise dark room appears to move.
D) People notice a slowly moving object even if they had not been paying attention to it before it started to move.
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Chapter 4: A--Sensation and Perception
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Q1) The Gestalt psychologists described several principles of how we organize perceptions into meaningful wholes. Define the principles of (a) proximity, (b) similarity, (c) continuation, and (d) closure.
Q2) In the human ear, the ability to perceive low frequencies (up to about 100 Hz) depends on neurons working according to the ____________________ principle.
Q3) The absolute sensory threshold for audition refers to the softest sound any human has ever accurately detected.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Vision is possible because a form of energy comes out of our eyes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ is a field that focuses on our ability to perceive overall patterns.
Q6) After you stare at something red and look away, you see ____________________. This observation supports the ____________________ theory of color vision.
Q7) The optic nerve exits the retina at the ____________________.
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Q8) The ____________________detects the position and acceleration of the head?
Chapter 5: Nature, Nurture, and Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maintaining a sense of dignity in old age is
A) more important to men than it is to women.
B) more important to people in Eastern cultures.
C) dependent on how older people are viewed in a particular culture.
D) no longer rated as important as it was in previous generations.
Q2) An experimenter shows a child two equal glasses of water and then pours the water from one of them into a glass of a different shape. Then the experimenter asks whether the new glass has more or less water than the other one. What concept is the experimenter testing?
A) assimilation
B) object permanence
C) conservation
D) hypothetical reasoning
Q3) We now know that the detrimental effects of alcohol in infants is caused by A) a decrease in the total excitation of neurons, so that they eventually self-destruct.
B) the fetus not being able to get enough oxygen during the second trimester.
C) pregnancy which is not detected early enough.
D) an increase in the neurotransmitter responsible for growth and cognitive development.
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Page 11
Chapter 5: A--Nature, Nurture, and Human Development
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Q1) An investigator who uses a ____________________ design examines different groups of people at the same time.
Q2) Tommy tells his mom about an event at preschool in a way that assumes his mom knows what he is talking about. Developmental psychologists would describe Tommy's thinking as egocentric.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Researchers have found that exercise programs designed to increase older people's physical activity levels also lead to improvements in their memory and cognition.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define theory of mind and give an example of a situation involving a child that has not yet developed theory of mind.
Q5) Sections along each chromosome, known as ____________________, control the chemical reactions that direct development.
Q6) According to Vygotsky, every child has a ____________________, which is the distance between what a child can do alone and what the child can do with help.
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Page 12
Chapter 6: Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Pavlov's experiments he paired the presentation of food with a buzzer and measured salivation to each. In this experiment the salivation was
A) the unconditioned stimulus.
B) the conditioned stimulus.
C) the conditioned response, but not unconditioned response.
D) both the conditioned and the unconditioned response.
Q2) Negative reinforcement is a procedure in which a response
A) is weakened because it leads to the omission of a favorable stimulus.
B) is strengthened because it removes an unfavorable stimulus.
C) is weakened because it leads to an unfavorable stimulus.
D) is weakened because it is followed by nothing.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a secondary reinforcer?
A) food
B) money
C) electric shock
D) the "silent treatment"
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Chapter 6: A--Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) In operant conditioning, there are a number of types of rein forcers and punishment that can be used to either increase or decrease behavior. Alexander's mother is trying to change his behavior in terms of teaching him to be more responsible for his fish. Alexander likes to spend all of his time playing video games, but his mother is trying to reduce the number of hours he spends playing video games and increase the number of times that he cleans his fishbowl. Currently, he is given a timeout everyday when he does not clean his fishbowl. Give an example of how his mother could attempt to change Alexander's behavior using; negative reinforcement, positive reinforcement, negative punishment, and punishment.
Q2) A rat learns to press a lever to escape from an electric shock. This is an example of ____________________.
Q3) A chimpanzee pulling the lever on a slot machine to get banana chips is an example of ____________________.
Q4) Another name for negative punishment is ____________________.
Q5) Pavlov presumed that animals are born with certain automatic connections-called unconditioned reflexes.
A)True B)False
Q6) Early behaviorism was sometimes referred to as ____________________ psychology.
Page 14
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Chapter 7: Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient H.M. suffered severe anterograde amnesia as a result of damage to which part of his brain?
A) cerebellum
B) fornix
C) hippocampus
D) corpus callosum
Q2) You are supposed to memorize a list of 20 words. To improve your memory, you group them into a group of 10 birds, 5 mammals, and 5 fish. You have improved your memory by
A) making use of context-dependent memory.
B) making use of the serial-order effect.
C) increasing your depth of processing of individual items on the list.
D) increasing your processing of the organization of the list.
Q3) According to the principle of encoding specificity, if you want to do well on a particular exam you should
A) study in a variety of places.
B) make your study conditions as similar as possible to the conditions under which you will be tested.
C) study at different times of the day.
D) try to study as much material as possible the night before the exam.
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Chapter 7: A--Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) One conclusion that emerges from all the research on brain damage and amnesia is that we clearly have different types of memory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The information-processing model compares human memory to that of a computer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) John spends ten hours studying for a test, and he spreads those ten hours over several days. Julie spends ten hours studying for the same test, but she studies all ten hours the day before the test. Because they spent an equal amount of time studying, they should get about the same scores on the test (assuming they are students of equal ability).
A)True
B)False
Q4) You memorize a list of paired associates including "stone-rock." Later someone asks you what word on the list refers to a kind of music, and you do not think of the word "rock." This result is an example of the ____________________ principle.
Q5) Remembering how to play the piano is an example of ____________________ memory.
Page 16
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Chapter 8: Cognition and Language
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is TRUE?
A) It is currently diagnosed in 40% of 7<sup>th</sup> graders.
B) No environmental correlates have been identified.
C) It is easy to differentiate children with ADHD from those with normal high energy.
D) It is diagnosed more frequently in boys than in girls.
Q2) The system for converting a deep structure into a surface structure in a language is called ____ grammar.
A) transformational
B) situational
C) structural
D) paradoxical
Q3) People who rely on the representativeness heuristic tend to overlook which kind of information?
A) creativity information
B) reaction-time information
C) script information
D) base-rate information
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Chapter 8: A--Cognition and Language
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Q1) When experts made predictions about U.S. and world politics over the next several years, their accuracy was generally__________, and they were __________ confident in their predictions.
Q2) Research on the framing effect has demonstrated that people tend to choose the risky strategy when considering gains and avoid taking risks when considering losses. A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ a concept gets it started. Reading or hearing one word makes it easier to think or recognize a related word.
Q4) Students were asked difficult questions (e.g., How long is the Nile River?) and asked to give a range of answers they were 90% confident included the correct answer. On difficult questions, students tend to be more confident than correct.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define phoneme and morpheme. Identify the number of phonemes and number of morphemes in the following sentence: "The cat runs quickly."
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Chapter 9: Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do critics complain about questions on IQ tests that ask for factual information?
A) such questions do not predict performance in school
B) such items measure knowledge, not necessarily ability
C) factual knowledge is unrelated to problem-solving ability
D) these questions fail to differentiate among people who take the tests
Q2) Binet and Simon developed the first intelligence tests in order to measure A) creativity.
B) the skills that children need for success in school.
C) cognitive impairment in victims of head injury.
D) job skills in adult factory workers.
Q3) What does it mean to say that Raven's Progressive Matrices is a "culture-reduced" test?
A) Performance on this test has been declining over the years in our culture.
B) It measures abilities that are taught in some cultures and not in others.
C) It calls for little factual information or use of language.
D) It was prepared by representatives of all the world's major cultures.
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Chapter 9: A--Intelligence
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Q1) Someone who has learned a great deal of specific information and who has acquired many specialized skills can be said to have a great deal of ____________________ intelligence.
Q2) ____________________ is a possible explanation for the Flynn effect.
Q3) Contemporary intelligence researchers such as Howard Gardner and Robert Sternberg have proposed theories claiming there are many different kinds of intelligence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When psychologists want to evaluate the accuracy or fairness of a test, they examine specific kinds of evidence. The main ways of evaluating any test are to check its reliability and validity. Define reliability and validity. Can a test have high reliability and low validity or vice versa?
Q5) Raven's Progressive Matrices test is designed to reduce the influence of ____________________ on test scores.
Q6) For someone to be classified as intellectually gifted, they must score at least ____________________standard deviation(s) above the mean score on an IQ test.
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Page 20
Chapter 10: Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) REM sleep is also called paradoxical sleep because
A) the brain is very active, but heart rate, breathing rate, and temperature fluctuate greatly and the muscles are relaxed.
B) the brain is relatively inactive and the heart rate is very low.
C) the large muscles are very active but the temperature is very low.
D) the large muscles are relaxed and heart rate is low.
Q2) One well-established effect of hypnosis is to
A) inhibit pain.
B) give people greater strength than they could otherwise have.
C) improve memory.
D) eliminate certain bad habits forever.
Q3) Hypnotized adults often report detailed memories of childhood events or even past lives. Which of these memories seem to be accurate?
A) childhood memories, but not past lives
B) previous life memories, but not those from childhood
C) both childhood and past life memories
D) neither childhood nor past life memories
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Chapter 10: A--Consciousness
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Q1) Hypnosis can be used as a method for reducing the emotional response to pain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Larger animal species need more sleep than smaller species.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Neural activity is the same when stimuli are consciously perceived as compared to when they are not consciously perceived.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ____________________ experience is the sense that an event is uncannily familiar.
Q5) What is spatial neglect? Describe what you would expect to see in someone with spatial neglect trying to read a book. Lastly, is it more likely that someone with spatial neglect has damage to the left or right hemisphere?
Q6) Although a person's brain is quite active during REM sleep, the large muscles of the body are deeply relaxed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Motivated Behaviors
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Q1) One criticism of Maslow's hierarchy theory is that it
A) is to general.
B) is culture-specific.
C) is not relevant.
D) has to many levels.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic motivation?
A) writing a story just for the fun of it
B) writing a story to submit to a magazine for pay
C) writing a story because your instructor requires you to write it
D) writing a story to submit for a competition
Q3) Most of the intersexed individuals who have spoken out publicly have said that they recommend
A) rearing all intersexes as "neuters," neither male nor female.
B) avoiding all surgery until or unless an intersexed person requests it as an adult.
C) concealing the fact of early intersexed appearance, even from intersexed people themselves.
D) administering female hormones to intersexed children beginning at the age of 12.
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Chapter 11: A--Motivated Behaviors
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Q1) Research suggests that there are different types of psychological factors that arouse individuals to act towards meeting a desired goal. Psychologists distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic motivations. Define intrinsic and extrinsic motivation and give an example of each type of motivation in the context of reading a book.
Q2) A revised concept of homeostasis is ____________________, defined as maintaining levels of biological conditions that vary according to an individual's needs and circumstances.
Q3) Research indicates that people, on the average, eat more when they alone than they would eat with a group of friends.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The causes of anorexia are currently unknown.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Like many other important concepts in psychology, motivation is difficult to understand. There are four theories of motivation described in your text. Select two of the theories and briefly describe the views proposed in the theories.
Q6) Job satisfaction is ____________________ correlated with job performance.
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Chapter 12: Emotional Behaviors, Stress, and Health
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Q1) One difference between the guilty-knowledge test and the standard lie-detector test is that the guilty-knowledge test
A) measures different physiological variables.
B) is given in a written format instead of orally.
C) requires the investigators to know facts that have not been publicized. D) can be given to a large group of suspects at the same time.
Q2) People with pure autonomic failure have
A) very strong heart rate and other responses, and very weak emotions.
B) very strong heart rate and other responses, and very strong emotions.
C) only random changes in heart rate and other responses, and very weak emotions.
D) only random changes in heart rate and other responses, and very strong emotions.
Q3) Phineas Gage, an accident victim in 1848, showed little emotion after an iron bar damaged his:
A) spinal cord. B) medulla.
C) corpus callosum. D) prefrontal cortex.
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Chapter 12: A--Emotional Behaviors, Stress, and Health
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Q1) The National Academy of Sciences, after reviewing the research on polygraphs, concluded that polygraph tests should not be used for national security clearances.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Psychologists use physiological measurements, such as PET and fMRI scans, to determine which emotion a person is experiencing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Women who displayed a Duchenne smile in their college yearbook photos were found to report feeling happy and competent decades after graduation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People are more likely to display facial expressions when they are with other people compared to when they are alone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Activity of the ____________________ decreases heart rate and increases digestion.
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Page 26
Chapter 13: Social Psychology
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Q1) In one study, subjects were asked whether their own behavior and the behavior of other people depended mostly on their personality traits or whether it depended on the situation. They were most likely to say "depends on the situation" when they were asked about
A) people they knew well (such as their close relatives).
B) themselves.
C) people they did not know personally (such as a news announcer).
D) people they knew moderately well (such as a person they had met a few weeks ago).
Q2) The Implicit Association Test (IAT) measures
A) personality disorders such as schizophrenia.
B) unconscious attitudes.
C) intelligence as defined by mainstream psychologists.
D) ability to form new friendships.
Q3) One effective way to break down the stereotypes that individuals form about one another is to
A) arrange tasks that encourage them to compete.
B) make use of the sleeper effect.
C) arrange tasks that encourage them to cooperate.
D) make use of the forewarning effect.
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Page 27
Chapter 13: A--Social Psychology
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Q1) You are going to play a prisoner's dilemma game with the same partner every day for a week. According to the research, the choice that is most likely to lead to a big pay-off over the course of the week is for you to choose to compete as frequently as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you base your explanation of somebody's behavior on attitudes or personality traits, this would be based on ____________________ attribution. If you base your explanation on the day's events or rewards associated with certain acts, this would be based on ____________________ attribution.
Q3) The vast majority of students at Really Big State University wear backpacks with straps over both shoulders. The vast majority of students at the University of Some Distant State wear backpacks with just a single strap over one shoulder. Students at both universities say they wear their backpacks that way because it is the most comfortable for them. The students' backpack wearing behavior at both schools reflects normative influence.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Personality
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Q1) Which of the following is not characteristic of the self-actualized personality?
A) treating people with unconditional positive regard
B) a good sense of humor
C) a self-centered outlook
D) an accurate perception of reality
Q2) Criminal profiling can be thought of as an example of applied personality testing. At this point in time, which of the following would be the fairest conclusion about profiling?
A) Criminal profilers are able to consistently develop accurate and detailed profiles.
B) The idea of profiling appears to be largely a hoax--profilers consistently develop worse profiles than undergraduate psychology students.
C) The results have been relatively unimpressive so far, although it would be premature to say profiling is impossible.
D) In almost every study, psychics have developed the most accurate, detailed profiles.
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Chapter 14: A--Personality
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Q1) According to Freud, the ____________________ is the rational, decision-making aspect of the personality.
Q2) A psychologist is interested in validating her new personality questionnaire. One common method of validating the test is to correlate scores on the test with measures of relevant behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Studying a particular person in great detail illustrates the nomothetic approach to personality.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to Freud, children go through five stages of psychosexual development, and each leaves its mark on the adult personality. If normal sexual development is blocked or frustrated at any stage, part of the libido becomes fixated at that stage. Describe Freud's five stages of sexual development and the sexual interest that accompanies each stage.
Q5) According to research, our personality gets more ____________________ as we age.
Q6) ____________________ is defined as a tendency to experience unpleasant emotions relatively easily.
Page 30
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Chapter 15: Abnormality, Therapy, and Social Issues
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Q1) Self-help groups differ from most other forms of therapy in that they do NOT
A) maintain members' anonymity.
B) deal with problems people are having.
C) involve a therapist.
D) involve communication between people.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a psychological disorder that is classified in Axis II of DSM-IV?
A) anorexia nervosa
B) depression
C) schizophrenia
D) mental retardation
Q3) How do success rates compare for different kinds of therapy?
A) Psychoanalysis is usually the most effective.
B) Person-centered therapy is usually the most effective.
C) Behavior therapy works best for men; cognitive therapy works best for women.
D) All the common types of therapy are about equally effective.
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Chapter 15: A--Abnormality, Therapy, and Social Issues
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/62689
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Q1) ____________________ means the removal of patients from mental hospitals.
Q2) Groups such as Alcoholics Anonymous which provide support for people with similar problems without using a trained therapist are ____________________ groups.
Q3) One reason that more behavior is now labeled as "mental illness" is that insurance companies are more likely to pay for treatment if the person has a diagnosed mental illness.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The predominant view of abnormal behavior in Western cultures today is the ____________________ view.
Q5) The early pioneers of psychotherapy almost exclusively saw their clients individually. While individual treatment has advantages, such as privacy, treating people in groups has become increasingly common. Describe briefly the advantage of group therapy and two common types of group therapy; self-help groups and family systems therapy.
Q6) The ____________________ legal rules requires a therapist to warn a person if they believe they have a patient that might harm them
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Chapter 16: Specific Disorders and Treatments
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Q1) Depression with a seasonal pattern
A) is only a myth-modern research has not found evidence for depression that follows a seasonal pattern.
B) has only been reported in a few countries in extreme northern Europe.
C) is also known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD).
D) is a mild form of the bipolar disorder, also known as bipolar II.
Q2) Antipsychotic drugs, such as haloperidol and chlorpromazine
A) increase the neurotransmitter, tardive dyskinesia, in the brain.
B) cure schizophrenia if used over a period of months.
C) block dopamine synapses in the brain.
D) increase activity at dopamine and norepinephrine synapses.
Q3) Statistics on the prevalence of suicide tend to
A) understate its frequency because many people disguise their suicides as accidents.
B) overstate its frequency because all drug overdoses are automatically ruled to be suicides.
C) overstate its frequency because the police prefer to label doubtful cases suicide instead of murder.
D) understate its frequency because most people who commit suicide are listed as missing.
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Page 33
Chapter 16: A--Specific Disorders and Treatments
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Q1) A key symptom of panic disorder is ____________________.
Q2) _____________________ is a fear of open or public places.
Q3) One explanation of why people develop fears of some objects more readily than other objects is that we are predisposed to develop fears for items that have been dangerous in our history. This explanation supports a/an _____________________ view of phobias.
Q4) In John B. Watson's analysis of phobia learning, the conditioned stimulus was ____________________ and the unconditioned stimulus was
Q5) People diagnosed with schizophrenia typically have two or more personalities that alternate taking control of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____________________ is a fear of open or public places.
Q7) People who find it difficult or impossible to quit a self-destructive habit are said to have a ____________________ on it or an ____________________ to it.
Q8) A repetitive, unwelcome train of thought is known as ____________________.
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Q9) A ____________________ is an extreme, persistent fear that interferes with normal living.
Chapter Extenssion: S 1-16--Final Examination
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Q1) Unsurelock the detective knows that one of 20 suspects has committed a crime. He proposes to administer a lie-detector test to all 20 and to arrest anyone who fails the test. Which error of thinking has he made?
A) He has failed to distinguish between a hypothesis and a prototype.
B) He has used the availability heuristic.
C) He has used the representativeness heuristic.
D) He has overlooked the base-rate information.
Q2) Which of the following qualifies as an operational definition?
A) Depression is a condition of unhappiness with a feeling of helplessness and worthlessness.
B) Conscientiousness is the percentage of assignments one finishes before the time they are due.
C) Retrograde amnesia is the loss of memories for events that happened prior to some trauma.
D) Self-actualization is the achievement of one's full potential as a human being.
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