Psychology for Majors and Non-Majors
Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts, theories, and research methods in psychology, designed for both psychology majors and non-majors. Students will explore key topics such as biological bases of behavior, perception, learning, memory, development, personality, psychological disorders, and social behavior. Emphasis is placed on scientific approaches to understanding human thought and behavior, as well as the application of psychological principles to everyday life. The course encourages critical thinking and self-reflection, providing a broad foundation for further study or for informed engagement with psychological topics in various professional and personal contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by David G. Myers
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Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many studies,including those conducted in college classrooms,confirm that frequent quizzing and self-testing boost students' retention.This provides support for A) the benefit of introspection.
B) the effectiveness of cramming.
C) the testing effect.
D) the SQ3R method.
Answer: C
Q2) Debates as to whether the excessive use of alcohol is biologically determined or culturally influenced are most relevant to the issue of A) nature and nurture.
B) observation and introspection.
C) behavior and mental processes.
D) structuralism and functionalism.
Answer: A
Q3) Thinking about your academic expectations and goals,explain how you can use what you know about psychology to become a better student.
Answer: no answer
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Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Schmidt would like to investigate the effectiveness of a newly invented drug to treat clinical depression.Specifically,he would like to determine if it is more effective than current medications for this disorder.With this in mind,design an experiment using the double-blind procedure and explain how the placebo effect could impact the results of this study.Be sure to identify your dependent and independent variables,as well as any confounding variables.Also,specify your experimental and control conditions.Identify any experimental procedures that would help to ensure the reliability of your research.
Answer: no answer
Q2) Stacey suggests that because children are more impulsive than adults,they will have more difficulty controlling their anger.Stacey's prediction regarding anger management is an example of
A) a hypothesis.
B) informed consent.
C) an operational definition.
D) the placebo effect.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standard deviation is to mean as ________ is to ________.
A) median;mode
B) variation;central tendency
C) bar graph;normal curve
D) skewed;range
Answer: B
Q2) Faustin,a member of his school's golf team,has an opportunity to play against a nationally acclaimed professional golfer.How many holes of golf should Faustin choose to play with the professional in order to maximize his own slim chances of winning?
A) 9
B) 18
C) 27
D) 36
Answer: A
Q3) Five students received the following test scores: 7,11,5,6,and 11.Calculate the mode,median,mean,and range of this distribution of scores.Which measure of central tendency would change the most if an additional test score of 2 was included in the distribution?
Answer: no answer
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Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of a neuron is often encased by a fatty myelin sheath?
A) axon
B) synaptic gap
C) cell body
D) dendrite
Q2) The body's chemical communication system that is much slower than the nervous system is called the
A) somatic system.
B) parasympathetic system.
C) autonomic system.
D) endocrine system.
Q3) The branching extensions of nerve cells that receive incoming signals from sensory receptors or from other neurons are called the A) axons.
B) synapses.
C) dendrites.
D) neurotransmitters.
Q4) The basic building blocks of our neural information system are neurons.Explain what neurons are,how they work,and how they communicate or transmit information?
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Chapter 5: The Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some researchers believe that a reward deficiency syndrome contributes to A) schizophrenia.
B) amygdala lesions.
C) muscular paralysis.
D) substance use disorders.
Q2) A loss of physical coordination and balance is most likely to result from damage to the
A) hypothalamus.
B) cerebellum.
C) hippocampus.
D) amygdala.
Q3) James Olds and Peter Milner located reward centers in the brain structure known as the
A) hypothalamus.
B) cerebellum.
C) medulla.
D) amygdala.
Q4) Compare and contrast the various ways that neuroscientists study the brain.
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Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Roger Sperry's view,the brain creates and controls the mind,which in turn influences the brain.Sperry understands the mind and brain as a
A) cognitive neural prosthetics.
B) holistic system.
C) reward center.
D) complex machine.
Q2) A picture of a dog is briefly flashed in the left visual field of a split-brain patient.At the same time a picture of a boy is flashed in the right visual field.In identifying what she saw,the patient would be most likely to
A) use her left hand to point to a picture of a dog.
B) verbally report that she saw a dog.
C) use her left hand to point to a picture of a boy.
D) verbally report that she saw a boy.
Q3) Teaching a patient to regain use of an impaired limb by limiting his or her use of the good limb is called
A) neurogenesis.
B) constraint-induced therapy.
C) cognitive neural prosthetics.
D) lateralization.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 2009,two Northwest Airline pilots overflew their Minneapolis destination by 150 miles because they were focused on their laptops and in conversation.They also ignored air traffic controllers' attempts to reach them.What may have explained this potentially dangerous error?
A) selective attention
B) consciousness
C) inattentional blindness
D) change blindness
Q2) Although many experienced drivers cannot accurately explain how they do it,most know how to turn successfully from a left to a right lane of traffic.This best illustrates the value of
A) sequential processing.
B) blindsight.
C) choice blindness.
D) unconscious processing.
Q3) Selective attention is best illustrated by A) blindsight.
B) parallel processing.
C) a visual action track.
D) the cocktail party effect.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) The distinction between manifest content and latent content is central to an explanation of dreams that emphasizes
A) neural pathway development.
B) filing memories for permanent storage.
C) satisfaction of one's own wishes.
D) one's current cognitive development
Q2) Nightmares are to ________ as night terrors are to ________.
A) REM sleep;NREM-3 sleep
B) delta waves;alpha waves
C) NREM-3 sleep;NREM-1 sleep
D) NREM-1 sleep;REM sleep
Q3) Compared with alpha and beta waves,delta waves are
A) slower and smaller.
B) faster and larger.
C) slower and larger.
D) faster and smaller.
Q4) Sleep is a necessity for all humans.What are the reasons we sleep,and what happens if we are deprived of sleep? Be sure to provide examples to support your answer.
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Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may occur when a person uses a stimulant such as cocaine?
A) pupils contract
B) heart and breathing rates decrease
C) blood sugar level rises
D) appetite increases
Q2) Young women can become addicted to alcohol ________ quickly than young men because they have ________ of a stomach enzyme that digests alcohol.
A) more;more
B) less;less
C) more;less
D) less;more
Q3) Alcohol,marijuana,cocaine,and a wide variety of other chemical agents that alter perceptions and moods are called A) stimulants.
B) depressants.
C) psychoactive drugs.
D) hallucinogens.
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11
Chapter 10: Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) As members of the human family,we all share a common A) temperament.
B) epigenetic mark.
C) biological heritage.
D) cultural background.
Q2) In one study of more than 900 New Zealanders,emotionally reactive and impulsive 3-year-olds developed into somewhat more impulsive,aggressive,and conflict-prone 21-year-olds.This best illustrates the long-term stability of A) temperament.
B) adaptive capacity.
C) epigenetic marks.
D) shared family environments.
Q3) A behavior geneticist would be most interested in studying hereditary influences on A) skin color.
B) sexual anatomy.
C) physical attractiveness.
D) personality traits.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evolutionary psychologists most clearly emphasize that environmentally adaptive behaviors are those that have promoted
A) reproductive success.
B) personal happiness.
C) cultural diversity.
D) social scripts.
Q2) Evolutionary psychologists are most likely to be criticized for A) working backward to provide after-the-fact explanations of human mating preferences.
B) overemphasizing humans' capacity to learn and adapt to a variety of environments.
C) underestimating gender differences in mate selection.
D) overestimating cultural differences in human sexual behaviors.
Q3) The study of molecular mechanisms by which environments can trigger or block genetic expression is called
A) behavior genetics.
B) molecular genetics.
C) epigenetics.
D) genomics.
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) A single gene on the Y chromosome throws a master switch at about the ________ after conception.This triggers the subsequent development of the testes and their production of testosterone.
A) first week
B) seventh week
C) third month
D) sixth month
Q2) The belief that boys are more independent than girls is a
A) gender role.
B) gender identity.
C) gender schema.
D) gender type.
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to the biologically influenced characteristics by which people define male and female?
A) gender
B) mating
C) sex
D) androgyny
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14
Chapter 13: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human sperm cells ________ than egg cells.
A) are larger
B) contain more genes
C) are smaller
D) contain fewer genes
Q2) A child's temperament is likely to be
A) difficult to observe.
B) stable over time.
C) a product of parenting style.
D) a reflection of his or her thinking.
Q3) Developmental psychologists study physical,cognitive,and ________ changes throughout the human life span.
A) zygotic
B) embryonic
C) genetic
D) social
Q4) What are the three major issues in developmental psychology? Provide an example of each.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Hearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.MacGiver believes that children who are not visually stimulated during the first four months of life will never develop normal visual perception.Obviously,Dr.MacGiver believes that this developmental stage is a
A) concrete operational stage.
B) critical period.
C) cognitive schema.
D) epigenetic mark.
Q2) Who emphasized that children solve problems and step to higher levels of thinking by relying on inner speech?
A) Erik Erikson
B) Lev Vygotsky
C) Jean Piaget
D) Harry Harlow
Q3) In a pleasant but unfamiliar setting,infants with a secure maternal attachment are most likely to
A) act as though their mothers are of little importance to them.
B) use their mothers as a base from which to explore the new surroundings.
C) cling to their mothers and ignore the new surroundings.
D) show hostility when their mothers approach them after a brief absence.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although Adam didn't care for the taste of fried green tomatoes,he began eating them when he saw that his classmates were doing so.His behavior best illustrates the impact of A) temperament.
B) role confusion.
C) a pruning process.
D) peer influence.
Q2) People experience rapid physical development and sexual maturation
A) during late adolescence.
B) at puberty.
C) when the frontal lobe matures.
D) during emerging adulthood.
Q3) According to Erikson,trust is to infancy as identity is to A) late adulthood.
B) childhood.
C) young adulthood. D) adolescence.
Q4) Define emerging adulthood,and explain why psychologists decided to make it a separate developmental stage.How do views of emerging adulthood as a stage in development vary across cultures?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A series of small strokes can progressively damage the brain and cause enduring cognitive deficits that are indicative of
A) menopause.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) a death-deferral phenomenon.
D) a neurocognitive disorder.
Q2) Compared with when she was an adolescent,elderly Mrs.Packer is likely to experience a sad mood with A) less intensity and for a longer time.
B) more intensity and for a shorter time.
C) less intensity and for a shorter time.
D) more intensity and for a longer time.
Q3) When asked what they would have done differently if they could relive their lives,people's most common answer was
A) had more children.
B) spent more time with my parents.
C) taken my education more seriously.
D) exercised more.
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18
Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The local fire department sounds the 12 o'clock whistle.The process by which your ears transform the sound waves from the siren into neural impulses is an example of A) an absolute threshold.
B) signal detection.
C) transduction.
D) sensory adaptation.
Q2) The conversion of a fresh coffee aroma into neural impulses by sensory receptor cells best illustrates
A) top-down processing.
B) transduction.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) priming.
Q3) Recognizing an odor as the familiar smell of apple blossoms is an example of A) perception.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) subliminal stimulation.
Q4) Explain how context,motivation,and emotion influence how we interpret sensory stimuli.Provide examples to support your answer.
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Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our shifting perceptions of a Necker cube best illustrate the importance of A) blindsight.
B) retinal disparity.
C) perceptual adaptation.
D) top-down processing.
Q2) John has just walked outside and comments,"Wow! It is bright out here!" The brightness that he perceives is related to a light wave's A) amplitude.
B) wavelength.
C) hue.
D) distance.
Q3) Color constancy refers to the fact that
A) light waves reflected by an object remain constant despite changes in lighting.
B) objects are perceived to be the same color even if the light they reflect changes.
C) the perceived color of an object has a constant relation to its brightness.
D) the frequency of light waves is directly proportional to the light's wavelength.
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Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brain scans have shown that hypnosis increases activity in the frontal lobe attention systems.While hypnosis does not block sensory input,it appears to block our attention to it,lending support to the role of ________ in hypnosis.
A) dissociation
B) distraction
C) selective attention
D) social influence
Q2) We tend to feel more pain when we perceive that others seem to be experiencing pain.This best illustrates the impact of
A) synesthesia.
B) the McGurk effect.
C) phantom limb sensations.
D) top-down processing.
Q3) The absolute threshold for hearing is defined as zero
A) decibels.
B) amps.
C) ESPs.
D) hertz.
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Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) In classical conditioning,an originally neutral stimulus that comes to trigger a conditioned response is called a(n)
A) unconditioned stimulus.
B) neutral stimulus.
C) conditioned stimulus.
D) unconditioned response.
Q2) An action that influences the environment and is maintained by its consequences is called
A) an unconditioned response.
B) an operant behavior.
C) a conditioned response.
D) a respondent behavior.
Q3) In classical conditioning,a stimulus that triggers an unconditioned response is called a(n)
A) unconditioned stimulus.
B) conditioned stimulus.
C) neutral stimulus.
D) conditioned response.
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22
Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) In teaching her son to play basketball,Mrs.Richards initially reinforces him with praise for simply dribbling while standing still,then only for walking while dribbling,and finally only for running while dribbling.She is using a procedure known as A) generalization.
B) partial reinforcement.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) shaping.
Q2) Because Saleem was spanked on several occasions for biting electric cords,he no longer does so.Saleem's behavior change best illustrates the value of A) negative reinforcement.
B) classical conditioning.
C) conditioned reinforcers.
D) operant conditioning.
Q3) Classical conditioning involves a learned association between A) two stimuli.
B) two responses. C) two reinforcers.
D) behaviors and their consequences.
Q4) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning.
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Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the TV shows that 9-year-old Fred watches involve violence.This is most likely to lead Fred to
A) react with a sense of distress at the sight of two children fighting on the school playground.
B) perceive the injuries of victims of violence as less severe.
C) be more inhibited about personally starting a fight on the school playground.
D) overestimate the pain and injury experienced by victims of violent crime.
Q2) Nikki has learned to expect the sound of thunder whenever she sees a flash of lightning.This suggests that associative learning involves A) intrinsic motivation.
B) cognitive processes.
C) mirror neurons.
D) genetic predispositions.
Q3) Explain how cognitive processes affect operant and classical conditioning.
Q4) The violence-viewing effect is especially likely when the observed violence A) causes visible harm. B) goes unpunished. C) seems unjustified. D) is committed by an unattractive person.
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Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Storage is to encoding as ________ is to ________.
A) recognition;recall
B) rehearsal;retrieval
C) retention;acquisition
D) explicit memory;implicit memory
Q2) Ebbinghaus' use of nonsense syllables to study memory led to the discovery that
A) the amount remembered depends on the time spent learning.
B) working memory's central executive focuses attention.
C) information that is automatically processed is rarely forgotten.
D) our sensory memory capacity is essentially unlimited.
Q3) Retaining information over time through encoding,storage,and retrieval best describes
A) long-term potentiation.
B) automatic processing.
C) the two-track mind.
D) memory.
Q4) A friend claims that the faster you read,the more you remember.Use your knowledge of effortful processing and effective encoding strategies to refute your friend's claim.
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25
Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Q1) Information learned while a person is ________ is best recalled when that person is
A) sad;happy
B) drunk;sober
C) angry;calm
D) drunk;drunk
Q2) Stress hormones promote stronger memories by
A) decreasing the availability of serotonin.
B) increasing the availability of glucose.
C) decreasing the availability of CREB.
D) increasing the availability of propranolol.
Q3) A baseball strikes Ashley in the head and she is momentarily knocked unconscious.The physical injury,though not serious,is most likely to interfere with Ashley's A) flashbulb memories.
B) long-term memories.
C) procedural memories.
D) very recent memories.
Q4) Detail how emotions impact memory.Provide some real-life examples.
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Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Q1) After research participants have retrieved a long-term memory of a traumatic experience,researchers have attempted to use a drug or brief,painless electroconvulsive shock to disrupt the ________ of that memory.
A) repression
B) reconsolidation
C) retroactive interference
D) proactive interference
Q2) Brandon tells his friend that he remembers his grandfather giving him alcohol to drink when he was about 3 years old.What is a main problem with this statement?
A) Memories of events before the age of 4 years are unreliable.
B) It is illegal to give alcohol to children.
C) It is not likely that a family member would do something like this.
D) Memories of meaningless events are usually unreliable.
Q3) Source amnesia helps to explain
A) déjà vu.
B) sensory memory.
C) proactive interference.
D) implicit memory.
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Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Q1) Just passing by a person who sneezes and coughs heightens our perceptions of various health risks.This best illustrates the impact of
A) the availability heuristic.
B) belief perseverance.
C) confirmation bias.
D) framing.
Q2) Because he erroneously believes that older workers are not as motivated as younger workers to work hard,a factory foreman is especially vigilant for any signs of laziness among his senior workers.His supervision strategy best illustrates A) the availability heuristic.
B) an algorithm.
C) confirmation bias.
D) framing.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of cultural transmission among nonhuman animals?
A) Chimpanzees can use different tools for different purposes.
B) Black bears can sort pictures into animal and nonanimal categories.
C) Pigeons have been found to be able to form concepts.
D) Apes have been found to anticipate the actions of others.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Q1) A system of rules for deriving meaning from sounds and for ordering words into sentences is called
A) grammar.
B) semantics.
C) receptive language.
D) linguistic determinism.
Q2) As a result of an automobile accident,Jenny suffered damage to her cerebral cortex in Broca's area.Jenny is most likely to experience
A) auditory hallucinations.
B) memory loss.
C) aphasia.
D) paralysis of her left limbs.
Q3) Which of the following best illustrates productive language?
A) word comprehension
B) telegraphic speech
C) linguistic determinism
D) babbling
Q4) Compare and contrast the language abilities of humans and nonhuman animals.
Q5) Teo is an infant and has not yet learned language.Describe how he is likely to think.
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Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Q1) Of the following,who best illustrates Sternberg's concept of analytical intelligence?
A) Trudy,a student who receives lower grades in physical education than in any other course
B) Freda,a business executive who effectively motivates her sales staff
C) Selma,a 9-year-old who solves complicated mathematical problems in record time
D) Nicole,a teenager who completes the road test for her driver's license without a single error
Q2) Those who are socially aware and know what to say to soothe a grieving friend or to encourage a struggling workmate most clearly demonstrate
A) existential intelligence.
B) practical intelligence.
C) creative intelligence.
D) emotional intelligence.
Q3) Describe the four abilities that constitute emotional intelligence,and give an example of each.
Q4) Compare and contrast the theories of multiple intelligences.
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Q1) Encouraging those of high intellectual ability to mate with one another was of most interest to
A) Alfred Binet.
B) William Stern.
C) David Wechsler.
D) Francis Galton.
Q2) Dr.Bronfman has administered her new 100-item test of abstract reasoning to a large sample of students.She is presently comparing their scores on the odd-numbered questions with those on the even-numbered questions in an effort to
A) determine the test's validity.
B) determine the test's reliability.
C) standardize the test.
D) provide a normal distribution of scores.
Q3) If both depressed and nondepressed individuals receive similar scores on a diagnostic test for depression,it suggests that the test
A) has not been standardized.
B) is not valid.
C) is not reliable.
D) scores are correlated.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Q1) Which of the following individuals does NOT meet the criteria for the diagnosis for intellectual disability?
A) 21-year-old Jack has Down syndrome and lives in a residential facility.
B) Thomas has an IQ of 80 and is able to live on his own with some help from his family.
C) 14-year-old Jujuan has extreme difficulty with language and cannot read,cannot follow basic rules,and needs help with his personal hygiene.
D) 25-year-old Christine has an IQ of 65 and lives at home,where she receives much assistance with learning practical and social skills.
Q2) At a single point in time,researchers may test and compare the intelligence of members of different age groups.This bests illustrates a A) longitudinal study.
B) cohort study.
C) cross-sectional study.
D) measure of fluid intelligence.
Q3) Melody has a learning disability,Marla has normal intelligence,and Keith is considered "gifted." What traits would you expect each of these people to have?
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Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The similarity between intelligence test scores of fraternal twins raised together is A) equal to that between identical twins raised apart.
B) less than that between children and their biological parents.
C) equal to that between ordinary siblings raised together.
D) less than that between identical twins raised apart.
Q2) Identical twins Madison and Claire live with their biological parents.Madison scored 120 on an intelligence test he took when he was 12 years old.Claire took the same test.What would you predict Claire's score to be?
A) very close to 120
B) as dissimilar as the scores of siblings raised together
C) as dissimilar as the scores of siblings raised apart
D) It is impossible to compare the scores of identical twins raised together.
Q3) Experts who defend intelligence tests against the charge of being culturally biased and discriminatory would be most likely to highlight the ________ of intelligence tests.
A) stability
B) content validity
C) predictive validity
D) heritability
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Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Q1) "Oh,man,that was awesome! Let's do it again!" Amelia said after skydiving.Which category of motivational theories would best explain Amelia's behavior?
A) arousal theory
B) incentive theory
C) drive-reduction theory
D) instinct theory
Q2) Drive is to ________ as incentive is to ________.
A) "push";"pull"
B) instinct;"push"
C) "pull";"push"
D) motivation;instinct
Q3) After working all afternoon cleaning up the attic,Mr.Dixon is very thirsty and drinks a big glass of orange juice.His motivation to drink in order to reduce his feeling of thirst can best be explained by
A) the Yerkes-Dodson law.
B) drive-reduction theory.
C) incentive theories.
D) arousal theory.
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34
Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Q1) Working with Walter Cannon,A.L.Washburn used a balloon to show that feelings of hunger are accompanied by
A) rising blood glucose levels.
B) reduced secretions of ghrelin.
C) a rising set point.
D) stomach contractions.
Q2) An individual is considered obese if his or her body mass index (BMI)is
A) 20 and above.
B) 25 and above.
C) 30 and above.
D) higher than 50.
Q3) Jason is on his school's wrestling team.He hasn't eaten since early this morning because he is trying to make weight.It is now time for dinner.His stomach is growling and he feels very hungry.One reason for his hunger is that his
A) blood glucose level has dropped.
B) blood glucose level has increased.
C) leptin levels are high.
D) ghrelin production is low.
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Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Q1) In most nonhuman mammals,female sexual receptivity is greatest when A) testosterone levels are lowest.
B) testosterone levels are highest.
C) estrogen levels are lowest.
D) estrogen levels are highest.
Q2) Mass media scenarios that shape our expectations about how to develop a sexual relationship are
A) paraphilias.
B) social scripts.
C) sexual response cycles.
D) secondary sex characteristics.
Q3) Research suggests that after 18-year-old Kalani has looked at magazine pictures of sexually attractive women,he will be
A) more likely to perceive himself as attractive.
B) more likely to perceive his girlfriend as attractive.
C) less likely to perceive himself as attractive.
D) less likely to perceive his girlfriend as attractive.
Q4) Describe the four stages of the sexual response cycle as outlined by researchers Masters and Johnson.
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Chapter 35: Hunger
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Q1) In a series of studies,research participants were informed that personality test results indicated they were the type likely to end up alone later in life.As a result,they became ________ likely to engage in self-defeating behavior and _________ likely to become aggressive toward those who had excluded them.
A) more;less
B) less;more
C) more;more
D) less;less
Q2) Self-esteem is especially likely to be enhanced by satisfaction of our need to experience
A) ostracism.
B) social acceptance.
C) physical safety.
D) narcissism.
Q3) Our ________ is said to be an indication of how socially accepted we feel.
A) ostracism
B) narcissism
C) autonomy
D) self-esteem
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Q1) Which theory states that emotion results from the cognitive labeling of our physiological arousal?
A) James-Lange theory
B) LeDoux theory
C) Cannon-Bard theory
D) two-factor theory
Q2) Heart rate,blood pressure,and blood sugar levels are increased in times of emergency by
A) the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) stress hormones.
C) the immune system.
D) glucose.
Q3) Which division of the nervous system arouses the body and mobilizes its energy in emotionally stressful situations?
A) sympathetic
B) central
C) somatic
D) parasympathetic
Q4) Describe how polygraphs are intended to measure lying,and discuss their accuracy.
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Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Q1) We find it especially difficult to detect from other people's facial expressions whether they are
A) afraid.
B) angry.
C) lying.
D) disgusted
Q2) The eyebrows raised and pulled together most clearly signal
A) fear.
B) anger.
C) disgust.
D) happiness.
Q3) Research participants watched 2-second film clips of an upset man or woman.In order for the participants to best be able to detect the correct emotion of the upset woman,the woman would need to be a(n)________ and the participant a(n)________.
A) extravert;introvert
B) introvert;extravert
C) man;woman
D) woman;man
Q4) Describe the female advantage regarding nonverbal communication.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Q1) Winston has a very negative academic self-concept because most of his classmates are more academically advanced than he is.Winston's experience best illustrates
A) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
B) the concept of flow.
C) relative deprivation.
D) the behavior feedback effect.
Q2) Employees who have just been laid off are asked questions that encourage them to express hostility toward their employer.Research suggests that this opportunity to vent anger will
A) calm their emotions and reduce their anger.
B) lead them to perceive their employer's actions as unavoidable.
C) rechannel their anger into constructive motivation.
D) increase their hostility.
Q3) People from 136 countries reported an increase in ________ after spending money on others rather than on themselves.
A) self-control
B) religious faith
C) happiness
D) resilience
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Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The second phase of the general adaptation syndrome is characterized by A) resistance.
B) exhaustion.
C) an alarm reaction.
D) low blood pressure.
Q2) Stressful experiences ________ a rapid progression from HIV infection to AIDS;stress also is related to a(n)________ in those with AIDS.
A) inhibit;delayed healing of wounds
B) facilitate;improved healing of wounds
C) inhibit;slower decline
D) facilitate;faster decline
Q3) The characteristic that most clearly contributes to the disease vulnerability of Type A personalities is their feelings of A) urgency.
B) competitiveness.
C) ambition.
D) anger.
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Q1) The crowding in high-density neighborhoods is associated with A) lower levels of cortisol.
B) an internal locus of control.
C) an optimistic explanatory style.
D) diminished feelings of control.
Q2) The distress associated with having to pick a course of action from among a very large number of reasonable alternatives best illustrates A) an external locus of control.
B) unrealistic optimism.
C) the tyranny of choice.
D) suppressed immune functioning.
Q3) The loss of personal control is most likely to be accompanied by elevated levels of A) oxytocin.
B) lymphocytes.
C) serotonin.
D) cortisol.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Q1) According to ________,people explain behavior by crediting either the situation or the person's disposition.
A) attribution theory
B) cognitive dissonance theory
C) psychoanalytic theory
D) social influence theory
Q2) Recognizing the powerful impact of social influence on others' behaviors is most likely to minimize
A) cognitive dissonance.
B) central route persuasion.
C) attitudes.
D) the fundamental attribution error.
Q3) Bart complied with his friends' request to join them in smashing decorative pumpkins early one Halloween evening.Later that night he was surprised by his own failure to resist their pressures to throw eggs at passing police cars.Bart's experience best illustrates
A) cognitive dissonance.
B) the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
C) the fundamental attribution error.
D) central route persuasion.
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Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Q1) Jessica is eating lunch with her friend Susan.Susan is tired from studying all night and yawns.Jessica then yawns too.This is an example of A) normative social influence.
B) social facilitation.
C) empathy.
D) conformity.
Q2) Stephanie and Luke were friends until their opposite political views led them to spend a lot of time online posting about their views and being involved in online support groups.They have now drifted apart.This illustrates that the Internet can lead to A) group polarization.
B) social contagion.
C) conformity
D) obedience.
Q3) Stanley Milgram is the social psychologist who conducted studies to A) determine people's willingness to conform with a group standard. B) measure people's willingness to comply with orders given by an authority figure. C) assess how the presence of other affects performance.
D) understand the dynamics of a group decision-making process.
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Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Q1) In contrast to watching violence on television,participating in violent video games involves
A) acquiring social scripts.
B) role-playing aggression.
C) desensitization to violence.
D) priming aggressive thoughts.
Q2) Morris,who is White,was a witness to a crime committed by one White and one Black suspect.When asked by the police to pick them out of a lineup,Morris was unable to pick out the Black suspect.This illustrates
A) ingroup bias.
B) scapegoat theory.
C) the just-world phenomenon.
D) the other-race effect.
Q3) Margaret is 60 years old and is better able to recognize those who are of similar age in comparison to those who are younger than her.This illustrates
A) other-race effect.
B) own-age bias.
C) own-race bias.
D) cross-race effect.
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Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Q1) Manny attended a matchmaking gathering in which he meet several women one at a time for 5 to 8 minutes.Manny was participating in
A) social facilitation.
B) speed dating.
C) social scripts.
D) the bystander effect.
Q2) Roberto won 5 million dollars in the lottery.He gave 2 million dollars to a homeless shelter without anyone knowing who gave the money.Roberto's behavior can be described as
A) altruism.
B) social exchange.
C) equity.
D) the reciprocity norm.
Q3) As passionate love matures into a calm and steady companionate love,the bonding of two partners is most likely to be facilitated by A) adrenaline.
B) the bystander effect.
C) social exchange.
D) oxytocin.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Q1) According to Freud,boys are most likely to experience the Oedipus complex during the ________ stage.
A) anal
B) phallic
C) oral
D) latency
Q2) Freud suggested that in the process of development,people pass through A) a genital stage before they enter a latency stage.
B) a latency stage before they enter a phallic stage.
C) a genital stage before they enter a phallic stage.
D) a latency stage before they enter a genital stage.
Q3) Mrs.Smith,who is White and unconsciously in favor of racial segregation,tells her friends that most Blacks prefer to live in residential neighborhoods inhabited predominantly by Blacks.According to psychoanalytic theory,Mrs.Smith best illustrates A) reaction formation.
B) projection.
C) displacement.
D) regression.
Q4) Outline Freud's proposed stages of psychosexual development.
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Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Q1) Which of the following tests characteristically describes personality in complimentary terms?
A) the Eysenck Personality Questionnaire
B) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
C) MMPI
D) the Big Five Questionnaire
Q2) The use of negative-emotion words in blog posts is best predicted by the Big Five trait of
A) extraversion.
B) openness.
C) neuroticism.
D) conscientiousness.
Q3) Who proposed that we are motivated by a hierarchy of needs?
A) Hans Eysenck
B) Walter Mischel
C) Abraham Maslow
D) Carl Rogers
Q4) Generally,how did humanistic theorists view personality? Provide a comparison of the two pioneering humanistic theorists.
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Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Which perspective emphasized that we learn many of our behaviors either through conditioning or by observing and imitating others?
A) social-cognitive perspective
B) humanistic perspective
C) psychoanalytic perspective
D) psychodynamic perspective
Q2) The ________ on personality focuses on the many ways our individual traits and thoughts interact with our social world as we move from one situation to another.
A) psychoanalytic perspective
B) trait perspective
C) humanistic perspective
D) social-cognitive perspective
Q3) Jeremy consistently attributes his poor work performance to his own incompetence.This most clearly indicates that he experiences a low level of A) self-awareness.
B) fixation.
C) reciprocal determinism.
D) self-efficacy.
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Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Q1) In the DSM-5,a condition formerly known as "Asperger's syndrome" is now included under the label
A) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
B) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) autism spectrum disorder.
Q2) The DSM-5's diagnostic classification of psychological disorders aims to provide to psychologists and psychiatrists all of the following except
A) a guide to predict a disorder's future course.
B) suggestions for appropriate treatment.
C) the promotion of research into a disorder's causes.
D) help in creating a self-fulfilling prophecy.
Q3) Environmental influences can determine whether a gene is expressed.For some people,that will be decisive in whether they develop a psychological disorder.This best illustrates the need for
A) the cognitive perspective.
B) the social-cultural perspective.
C) research on epigenetics.
D) the DSM-5.
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Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Q1) A monkey responds more strongly to stress if its close biological relatives
A) have sensitive brain circuits.
B) are anxiously reactive.
C) have been conditioned to avoid stress.
D) are resilient.
Q2) Repeated distressing dreams and intrusive memories of an intensely fearful and life-threatening experience are symptoms most commonly associated with A) panic disorder.
B) agoraphobia.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) posttraumatic stress disorder.
Q3) Stressful experiences can influence gene expression and thereby increase the chances of suffering a disorder such as PTSD.This best illustrates the importance of A) free-floating anxiety.
B) operant conditioning.
C) stimulus generalization.
D) epigenetic effects.
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Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suicide rates in the United States are ________ among Whites than Blacks and ________ among men than women.
A) higher;higher
B) lower;lower
C) higher;lower
D) lower;higher
Q2) For the last month,Gabrielle has felt lethargic and has been unable to get out of bed in the morning.She has withdrawn from friends and family because she feels worthless and unlovable.Gabrielle is most likely suffering from A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) major depressive disorder.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) dysthmia.
Q3) The social-cognitive perspective has emphasized that depression is perpetuated by A) underactivity of the frontal lobe.
B) self-blaming attributions.
C) a dysfunctional hippocampus.
D) epigenetics.
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Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Q1) Oxygen deprivation at the time of birth is a known risk factor for A) panic disorder.
B) schizophrenia.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Q2) Which severe disorder(s)is(are)characterized by delusions,hallucinations,disorganized speech,and/or diminished emotional expression?
A) anxiety disorders
B) dissociative disorders
C) personality disorders
D) schizophrenia
Q3) Many researchers believe that several of the symptoms of schizophrenia result from an overabundance of receptors for the neurotransmitter
A) serotonin.
B) glutamate.
C) dopamine.
D) GABA.
Q4) Terrance is receiving treatment for schizophrenia.Discuss some of the causes proposed to explain his development of the disorder.
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Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A rare dissociative disorder in which a person exhibits two or more distinct and alternating personalities is referred to as
A) avoidant personality disorder.
B) dissociative identity disorder.
C) antisocial personality disorder.
D) schizotypal personality disorder.
Q2) Marked deficits in frontal lobe cognitive functions,such as planning and organization,are associated with A) binge eating disorder.
B) antisocial personality disorder.
C) dissociative identity disorder.
D) fugue states.
Q3) Lana is about the right weight for her age and height.Nevertheless,whenever she goes on an eating binge,she purges the excessive food by self-induced vomiting.It is likely that Lana suffers from
A) anorexia nervosa.
B) bulimia nervosa.
C) a personality disorder.
D) a fugue state.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Q1) A therapist may encourage a client to change from thinking "I totally failed my exercise training program" to "I fell short of some training goals but I can make some specific changes in my schedule to succeed next time." This technique is used in A) psychoanalysis.
B) cognitive therapy.
C) client-centered therapy.
D) a token economy.
Q2) The goal of stress inoculation training is to reduce incapacitating anxiety by encouraging people to say positive things to themselves during anxiety-producing situations.This best illustrates a form of
A) behavior therapy.
B) psychodynamic therapy.
C) humanistic therapy.
D) cognitive therapy.
Q3) Psychodynamic therapy is ________ than traditional psychoanalysis.
A) less effective
B) briefer
C) more expensive
D) less commonly used
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Page 55
Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) Clients often stay in touch with their psychotherapists only if satisfied with the treatment they received.This helps us understand why therapists
A) avoid developing a therapeutic alliance.
B) prefer client-centered therapy over other forms of treatment.
C) avoid diagnosing clients' disorders during the course of therapy.
D) often overestimate the effectiveness of psychotherapy.
Q2) Which of the following has been demonstrated to provide relief for those with a seasonal pattern in their depression symptoms?
A) behavioral conditioning therapies
B) EMDR
C) psychoanalysis
D) light exposure therapy
Q3) The healing power resulting from a client's expectation that a psychotherapeutic treatment will be effective best illustrates
A) the therapeutic alliance.
B) the comorbidity of disorders.
C) meta-analysis.
D) the placebo effect.
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Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Q1) Biomedical therapists assume that the mind and body are a unit.This means that
A) they can easily be separated.
B) therapeutic lifestyle change would be ineffective.
C) they are interchangeable.
D) if you affect one you affect the other.
Q2) In addition to their use in treating depression,antidepressant drugs are now being used to treat
A) auditory hallucinations and delusions of persecution.
B) tardive dyskinesia and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder.
D) antisocial personality disorder and dissociative identity disorder.
Q3) Which of the following individuals is most likely to benefit from lithium?
A) Olivia,who experiences delusions and auditory hallucinations
B) Landon,who experiences a generalized sense of apprehension and anxiety
C) Miranda,who experiences periods of extreme sadness followed by episodes of optimistic overexcitement
D) Ivan,who experiences sudden brief episodes of intense dread and panic
Q4) Explain how the advent of drug therapies revolutionized the treatment of psychological disorders.Describe the different drug therapies,noting for which disorder each is used.
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Chapter 56: Appendix
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Q1) Organizational psychologists are most likely to be involved in
A) matching job applicants with specific work assignments.
B) modifying work environments in order to improve employee engagement.
C) contributing to the design of user-friendly industrial machines.
D) designing training programs to prepare unemployed persons for existing jobs.
Q2) Managers who set standards and keep a group focused on its goals are said to excel in
A) task leadership.
B) 360-degree feedback.
C) a democratic management style.
D) human factors psychology.
Q3) Leaders who set target dates for the completion of specific measurable goals best illustrate
A) transformational leadership.
B) managing by objectives.
C) 360-degree feedback.
D) the experience of flow.
Q4) Social and workplace interactions increasingly require web-based online communication.Describe how our advancing communication technologies might provide new career opportunities for human factors psychologists.
Page 58
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