Psychology for Majors and Non-Majors
Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an overview of the fundamental concepts, theories, and research methods in psychology, catering to both psychology majors and students from other disciplines. Topics include biological bases of behavior, perception, learning, memory, development, personality, psychological disorders, and social behavior. Emphasis is placed on understanding how psychological principles apply to everyday life and various professional fields. Through lectures, discussions, and experiential activities, students will develop critical thinking skills and a foundational knowledge of human behavior, preparing them for further study in psychology or related areas.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by Sandra E. Hockenbury
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70 Chapters
7014 Verified Questions
7014 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What strategies do pseudosciences often use in promoting their claims?
Answer: The answer should include the following information: First, they will use testimonials rather than scientific evidence. Second, they will use scientific jargon that lacks any real substance. Third, pseudoscientists will combine established scientific knowledge with unfounded claims to promote their agenda. Fourth, they will make irrefutable or nonfalsifiable claims. Fifth, scientific conclusions are based on converging evidence from multiple studies, not a single study. Pseudoscientists ignore this process and will instead focus on the findings of a single study that supports their claims. They will exclude other studies that contradict, or that are not consistent with, their agenda. Sixth, when challenged, pseudoscientists will shift the burden of proof to the skeptic, challenging the skeptic to disprove their claim. Finally, when pseudoscience fails to deliver, these individuals offer multiple excuses to explain why their approach or product did not work.
Q2) As a critical thinker, it is important to follow four steps when determining the validity of a particular claim presented in a research study. List the four steps.
Answer: The answer should include the following information:Answer: Identify the claim.Answer: Evaluate the evidence.Answer: Consider alternative explanations.Answer: Consider the source of the research or claim.
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Page 3
Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of using a double-blind research design is to:
A)guard against the possibility that a researcher will inadvertently communicate the behavior that is expected of the participants.
B)guard against the release of confidential information.
C)guarantee the anonymity of the participants.
D)determine which participants will be exposed to the dependent variable.
Answer: A
Q2) The development of techniques such as PET, MRI, and fMRI scans to study the structure and function of the brain has enhanced the work of psychologists in the _____ perspective of psychology.
A)behavioral
B)biological
C)psychodynamic
D)humanistic
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnet therapy has been shown to be very effective in treating various ailments and conditions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The established science MOST responsible for the emergence of psychology as a scientific discipline was physiology.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The event that marked the formal beginning of psychology as a separate experimental science occurred when William James taught the first course in psychology at Harvard University in the early 1870s.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professor Wallace studied over 3,000 elderly individuals for a decade and found a statistically significant relationship between survival rate and number of close friends. Specifically, he found that elderly individuals with few close friends had a much higher death rate. To say that the results of his study are "statistically significant" means that:
A)the finding has great practical value and significance.
B)there is a cause-and-effect relationship between the two variables.
C)the finding does not have to be replicated to be accepted by the scientific community.
D)the results are unlikely to have occurred by chance.
Q2) Evidence that is the result of observation, measurement, and experimentation is referred to as _____ evidence.
A)empirical
B)pseudoscientific
C)operational
D)dependent
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Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods
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Q1) Correlational research:
A)can indicate causality in either a positive or a negative direction.
B)provides the most compelling evidence of a cause-and-effect relationship between two variables.
C)can reveal the degree to which two factors are related or co-vary in a systematic way. D)has been banned by the American Psychological Association since the 1960s, but it is still allowed in other countries.
Q2) Who wrote On the Origin of Species?
A)Sigmund Freud
B)John B. Watson
C)B. F. Skinner
D)Charles Darwin
Q3) _____ became the first major school of thought in psychology and relied on a method called introspection.
A)Functionalism
B)Psychoanalysis
C)Behaviorism
D)Structuralism
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7
Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Byron is left handed. His parents have told Byron that his handedness means he is right- hemisphere-dominant. Are Byron's parents correct?
Q2) What are endorphins and what are their functions?
Q3) Describe the sequence of events that occurs when one neuron communicates with another neuron.
Q4) Explain the difference between structural plasticity and functional plasticity. Give an example of each.
Q5) What is the primary motor cortex? What is the degree of representation on the primary motor cortex?
Q6) How does information transmission in the endocrine system differ from that in the nervous system?
Q7) Distinguish between cortical localization and lateralization of function and give an example of each.
Q8) Explain how the hypothalamus, endocrine system, and nervous system are linked. How does the hypothalamus contribute to the functioning of the endocrine glands?
Q9) Define and give an example of an antagonist drug.
Q10) What is the refractory period, and what takes place during that period?
Q11) What are the key structures of the hindbrain and what roles do they play?
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phrenology helped introduce the idea of brain _____, while the split-brain research demonstrated the principle of brain _____.
A)localization; lateralization
B)lateralization; localization
C)specialization; plasticity
D)plasticity; specialization
Q2) In females, the gonads are the _____, which secrete _____.
A)ovaries; testosterone
B)testes; testosterone
C)ovaries; estrogen and progesterone
D)testes; estrogen and progesterone
Q3) There are four hollow cavities in the brain called _____, which are filled with cerebrospinal fluid and whose inner surfaces are lined with _____, specialized cells that generate neurons in the developing brain.
A)neural pathways; neurogenetic cells
B)ventricles; neural stem cells
C)synaptic vesicles; myelin
D)axon terminals; GABA
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9
Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the drug naloxone is chemically dissimilar to endorphins and opiates, it prolongs and intensifies their effects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Diffusion spectrum imaging can produce three-dimensional images of the neural pathways that connect one part of the brain to another.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One of the key ways that drugs affect synaptic transmission is by changing an excitatory neurotransmitter to an inhibitory neurotransmitter and vice versa.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Researchers found that the female hippocampus tends to be larger than the male hippocampus and, according to the Critical Thinking box "'His' and 'Her' Brains?", they concluded that this difference accounted for female superiority on memory tests.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tom is a split-brain patient seated in front of a screen. As he focuses on the middle of the screen, the image of an apple is briefly flashed on the LEFT side of the screen. Tom will:
A)be able to verbally name the object.
B)be able to use his right hand to reach under the screen and pick up the correct object.
C)verbally deny that any image appeared on the screen.
D)probably have an epileptic seizure.
Q2) How many neurons are there in the human brain?
A)50 million
B)50 billion
C)10 billion
D)100 billion
Q3) The _____ functions as the main link between the nervous system and the endocrine system.
A)adrenal medulla
B)adrenal cortex
C)amygdala
D)hypothalamus
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Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The venom of a black widow spider bite causes _____ to be released continuously by motor neurons causing severe muscle spasms.
A)acetylcholine
B)dopamine
C)GABA
D)serotonin
Q2) Broca is to _____ as Wernicke is to _____.
A)expressive aphasia; receptive aphasia
B)the left cerebral hemisphere; the right cerebral hemisphere
C)structural plasticity; functional plasticity
D)receptive aphasia; expressive aphasia
Q3) Most left-handed people are:
A)right-hemisphere dominant for language, the opposite pattern as right-handed people.
B)left-hemisphere dominant for language, like most right-handed people.
C)bilateral, using both hemispheres equally for virtually all tasks, including speech and language tasks.
D)right-hemisphere dominant for language in their childhood but become increasingly left-hemisphere dominant by early adulthood.
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Page 12
Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your roommate, Ben, believes that subliminal stimuli are embedded in all forms of electronic media-movies, television shows, YouTube, commercials, and music videos. He gets upset every time he comes home and finds you watching television in the living room, as he does not want to be influenced by these messages. Is Ben correct that subliminal stimuli can affect your thoughts and behavior? Explain your answer.
Q2) Describe the series of events that culminate in visual perception including the structure of the eye and/or brain area involved in each step.
Q3) How are ganglion cells different from bipolar cells?
Q4) How does the sensation of taste occur?
Q5) What is sensory adaptation and why is it important?
Q6) Provide an example of perceptual set and explain how it influences perceptual experiences.
Q7) Define and describe the process of transduction. Explain how transduction takes place in at least two different senses with specific examples.
Q8) Distinguish between sensation and perception.
Q9) Distinguish the fast and slow pain pathways in terms of the sequence of nervous system structures to which pain signals are transmitted.
Page 13
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perception that is below the threshold of conscious perception or awareness is called:
A)absolute perception.
B)ESP.
C)Weber's perception.
D)subliminal perception.
Q2) What does the optic disk cause?
A)color vision
B)night vision
C)blind spot
D)light adaptation
Q3) The ability to perceive the three dimensions of an object, along with its distance from you, is called:
A)texture gradient.
B)linear parallax.
C)depth perception.
D)relative perception.
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14
Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) We tend to assume that the background moves while figures or objects remain stationary, a phenomenon called stroboscopic motion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ESP ability called psychokinesis has been reliably demonstrated in controlled scientific studies, but the other forms of ESP do not have reliable scientific evidence to support them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both place and frequency theories are used to explain the sensation of mid-range frequencies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Olfactory signals are first processed in the thalamus before being transmitted to areas of the cortex and limbic system.
A)True
B)False
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15
Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jack is a fervent believer in the idea that ancient astronauts colonized the Earth. After seeing an exhibit of moon rocks, Jack became convinced that one rock had traces of ancient hieroglyphics carved on its side and that another showed a crude diagram of a spaceship. The MOST likely explanation for Jack's conclusion is his:
A)use of positive self-talk.
B)perceptual set.
C)use of perceptual abilities such as aerial perspective and motion parallax.
D)extrasensory abilities.
Q2) Which perceptual illusions involve size constancy?
A)the moon illusion and the Shepard Tables illusion
B)the Müller-Lyer illusion and the impossible figure illusion
C)the moon illusion and the Müller-Lyer illusion
D)the carpentered-world illusion and the Shepard Tables illusion
Q3) Which of the following is a monocular cue involved in depth perception?
A)convergence
B)binocular disparity
C)accommodation
D)motion parallax
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16
Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) The blind spot:
A)causes permanent vision loss.
B)is caused by nearsightedness.
C)is a small gap in our field of vision.
D)is limited to the left side of our field of vision.
Q2) Jana had always been fascinated by stories of the Loch Ness monster, so when she went to Scotland, she made sure to visit the famous Loch Ness. One rainy morning when she was scanning the lake with high-powered binoculars, she was certain that she saw a huge, long-necked sea monster surface for a few moments. Her companion, however, insisted that she had just seen an uprooted tree being swept by the high waves. Of the following options, which is the MOST likely explanation for Jana's sighting of the famous Loch Ness monster?
A)telepathy
B)subliminal perception
C)perceptual set
D)clairvoyance
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Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the role of sunlight and darkness, clocks, and other environmental time cues, in regulating the sleep-wake cycle.
Q2) What situations can produce symptoms of jet lag?
Q3) Describe the perils of multitasking or dividing attention, and provide an example.
Q4) How do dyssomnias and parasomnias differ?
Q5) What are hypnagogic hallucinations?
Q6) Describe and provide an example of misdirection, inattentional bias, and inattentional deafness.
Q7) What is the suprachiasmatic nucleus, and what is its main function?
Q8) Jerome's mother always tells him to quit yawning because it makes her yawn. Is Jerome's yawning contagious? Explain.
Q9) Contrast Freud's explanation of the significance of dreams with that of the activation-synthesis model of dreaming.
Q10) What happens to people who are sleep deprived?
Q11) Professor Albertson is interested in the most common themes that appear in adults' dreams. List these themes.
Q13) List four strategies for preventing sleep problems. Page 18
Q12) How is sleep involved in the formation of memories?
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Page 19
Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) An unfolding sequence of perceptions, thoughts, and emotions during sleep (usually REM), that is experienced as a series of real-life events is a description of:
A)sleep mentation.
B)a dream.
C)a hypnagogic hallucination.
D)hypnosis.
Q2) Where is the suprachiasmatic nucleus located?
A)in the hypothalamus in the brain
B)in the retina of each eye
C)in the pineal gland
D)in the primary visual cortex at the back of the brain
Q3) Sleepsex is a parasomnia that involves:
A)a failure of the brain mechanisms that normally suppress voluntary actions during REM sleep.
B)sudden loss of voluntary muscle strength and control that is usually triggered by an intense emotion.
C)the person sleepwalking and eating compulsively during stage 3 or 4 NREM slow-wave sleep.
D)abnormal sexual behaviors and experiences during sleep.
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Page 20
Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Yair failed to notice when his girlfriend Lena got her hair cut because he wasn't paying attention to her hair. Not noticing that Lena cut her hair is an example of inattentional blindness deficit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In contrast to the activation-synthesis model, the neurocognitive model of dreaming emphasizes the relationship between the manifest content and the latent content of dreams.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ecstasy is referred to as a "designer drug," which means that it was first popular among people in the fashion and cosmetic industry.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most drug experts agree that alcohol has the highest social cost of all drug addictions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) Which of the following lists the CORRECT sequence of sleep stages during the first 90 minutes of sleep?
A)stage 1 NREM, stage 2 NREM, stage 3 NREM, stage 4 NREM, REM sleep
B)REM sleep, stage 4 NREM, stage 3 NREM, stage 2 NREM, stage 1 NREM
C)stage 1 REM, stage 2 REM, stage 3 REM, stage 4 REM, NREM
D)wakefulness, drowsiness, dreaming, deep sleep, paradoxical sleep
Q2) Whenever Lloyd uses his favorite drug, he experiences intense euphoria, mental alertness, and increased self-confidence. These psychological responses occur because the drug he takes blocks the reuptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine, which potentiates the effects of these neurotransmitters. Lloyd's favorite drug is:
A)caffeine.
B)cocaine.
C)heroin.
D)marijuana.
Q3) Sleepwalking and sleep terrors are _____ that tend to occur during _____.
A)parasomnias; stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep
B)parasomnias; REM sleep
C)dyssomnias; stages 1 and 2 NREM sleep
D)dyssomnias; REM sleep
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Page 22
Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) A lucid dream is a dream:
A)that occurs during periods of sleep deprivation.
B)with very clear content that you can recall in the morning.
C)that is filled with a black and red color scheme.
D)in which you become aware that you are dreaming while you are still asleep.
Q2) _____ is the capacity to selectively focus your senses on particular stimuli or aspects of the environment.
A)Consciousness
B)Awareness
C)Attention
D)Memory
Q3) REM stands for:
A)rapid equilibrium motion.
B)rapid eye movements.
C)restless eye movements.
D)random eye motion.
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23
Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning
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Q1) Identify three species of animals that have shown evidence of observational learning. Describe one study that had provided evidence of observational learning in animals.
Q2) Pick two of the four basic schedules of reinforcement, describe them, and give at least one example of the reinforcement schedule operating in daily life.
Q3) Provide two examples of how Watson applied classical conditioning principles to advertising.
Q4) What is learned helplessness and how was it first demonstrated?
Q5) Describe the school or approach to psychology that John Watson founded, and explain why he founded it.
Q6) Describe three learning principles that you can use to improve self-control.
Q7) Describe at least three strategies that can be used to change behavior without resorting to punishment.
Q8) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning in terms of types of behavior studied, responses conditioned, extinction processes, and cognitive and evolutionary influences on each.
Q9) Define instinctive drift, and explain its implications for operant conditioning.
Q10) What conditions increase the likelihood that a behavior will be imitated?
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning
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Q1) Punishment is most effective if:
A)it immediately precedes the operant.
B)it consistently follows the operant.
C)it occasionally follows the operant.
D)there is considerable delay between the operant and the punishment.
Q2) After buying an electric grass trimmer, Richard changed into his shorts and went out in his bare feet to trim the grass. When he moved the trimmer too close to his leg, the rotating line gashed and cut his ankle. Richard no longer wears shorts or goes barefoot when he uses the grass trimmer. Richard's behavior of dressing inappropriately for gardening has been changed as a result of:
A)punishment by application.
B)punishment by removal.
C)negative reinforcement.
D)learned helplessness.
Q3) John B. Watson believed that psychology should focus on the study of:
A)consciousness.
B)observable behavior.
C)conditioned stimuli.
D)physiological processes.
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Page 25
Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning
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Q1) In training various animals to perform tricks, Marian and Keller Breland discovered that certain natural behavior patterns interfered with the operant behaviors they were attempting to condition in some animals, a phenomenon called instinctive drift.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Two Skinner boxes are side by side. The rat in the first Skinner box gets a food pellet every time it presses the bar. The rat in the second Skinner box gets a food pellet every ten times it presses the bar. If the food-dispensing mechanism is shut off, the rat in the first Skinner box will quit pressing the bar sooner than the rat in the second Skinner box does.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A movement called gamification advocates turning daily life into a kind of virtual reality game, in which "points" or other conditioned reinforcers are awarded to reward healthy or productive behaviors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning
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Q1) _____ formulated the "law of effect."
A)B. F. Skinner
B)John B. Watson
C)Albert Bandura
D)Ivan Pavlov
Q2) _____ is the application of learning principles to help people learn more effective or adaptive behaviors.
A)Behavior modification
B)Operant training
C)Classical conditioning
D)Discrimination training
Q3) _____'s research contributed to television and radio serial dramas that are used to promote social change and healthy behaviors around the world.
A)B. F. Skinner
B)Albert Bandura
C)John Garcia
D)Edward L. Thorndike
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Page 27
Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning
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Q1) According to Psych for Your Life: Using Learning Principles to Improve Self-Control, as the availability of a reinforcer draws closer, its subjective value:
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains constant.
D)cannot be predicted.
Q2) While his exhausted mother was taking a nap, four-year-old Dennis decided to help her out by doing the laundry. He dragged a stool over to the washing machine, stuffed clothes into it, turned it on, and dumped a box of detergent on top of the clothes. Which psychologist and which learning theory could BEST explain Dennis's behavior?
A)Ivan Pavlov; classical conditioning
B)Edward Thorndike; the law of effect
C)Albert Bandura; observational learning
D)John Garcia; biological preparedness
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28
Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory
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Q1) Compare and contrast maintenance rehearsal and elaborative rehearsal.
Q2) According to the Focus on Neuroscience box: "Assembling Memories: Echoes and Reflections of Perception," what did fMRI research reveal about memory of common objects?
Q3) Describe two forms of the encoding specificity principle, and give an example of each.
Q4) Your textbook lists seven factors that can contribute to the development of false memories. Pick four factors and explain them, giving an example of each.
Q5) What is a flashbulb memory, and in what ways is it similar to and/or different from an ordinary memory?
Q6) Provide a detailed description of a research study by Elizabeth Loftus that demonstrates the misinformation effect, including the results and implications of the study.
Q7) Define memory, and summarize its three fundamental processes.
Q8) Briefly describe the stage model of memory, and explain how the memory stages interact.
Q9) Compare and contrast the characteristics of suppression and repression, giving an example of each.
Page 29
Q10) Describe the different types of long-term memory, and give an example of each.
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory
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Q1) When Madeline is feeling blue or unhappy she is more likely to recall negative or unpleasant memories. This is an encoding specificity phenomenon called:
A)mood congruence.
B)the context effect.
C)source confusion.
D)flashbulb memory.
Q2) When prospective memory fails, it is almost always because of:
A)retrieval cue failure.
B)the misinformation effect.
C)source confusion.
D)imagination inflation.
Q3) The typical sequence of behaviors or actions at a common event, such as checking out at a grocery store or going to the movies, is a particular type of schema that psychologists call:
A)a semantic network.
B)a script.
C)an engram.
D)false familiarity.
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory
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Q1) In the "professor's office" study, many participants erroneously remembered objects that were not in the office but that did fit their schema of a typical professor's office.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One important memory process is encoding, or the transforming of information into a form that can be entered and retained by the memory system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Students who commit the necessary time to learning retain significantly more information than those who use cramming or massed practice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to decay theory, we forget memories because we don't use them. A)True
B)False
Q5) Forward-acting memory interference is called retroactive interference.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory
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Q1) _____ is the gradual, physical process of converting new long-term memories into stable, enduring memory codes.
A)Memory consolidation
B)Short-term to working memory transfer
C)Clustering
D)Memory activation
Q2) Research conducted with the sea snail Aplysia suggests that _____ is the neural basis for memories that are acquired through classical conditioning.
A)short-term potentiation
B)short-term oscillation
C)long-term potentiation
D)long-term oscillation
Q3) You can keep information in short-term memory beyond the usual 20-second duration by:
A)engaging in maintenance rehearsal.
B)using clustering.
C)engaging in chunking.
D)using imagination inflation.
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32
Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory
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Q1) Research with the sea snail Aplysia has demonstrated that:
A)the sea snail's nervous system is too primitive to form memories.
B)long-term potentiation is only possible in animals with more sophisticated and complex nervous systems.
C)forming a new memory involves changes in both the function and structure of neurons.
D)anterograde and retrograde amnesia involve fundamentally different neural circuits.
Q2) The Focus on Neuroscience feature described a study in which participants memorized labels for common objects, such as "dog," that were paired with either a picture or a sound. When they retrieved the memory, participants who had memorized the word dog with a picture of a dog showed a _____ level of activation in the _____ cortex.
A)low; auditory
B)low; visual
C)high; auditory
D)high; visual
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Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) Describe and explain the contributions of genetics and environmental factors that influence IQ scores. How do researchers approach questions related to these variables?
Q2) How can mental sets and functional fixedness interfere with finding solution to problems?
Q3) Contrast the ways in which formal concepts and natural concepts are formed, and give an original example of each.
Q4) Describe the experimental procedure and major findings of Kathleen O'Craven and Nancy Kanwisher's fMRI study of mental imagery involving faces and places.
Q5) Describe at least three suggestions that can enhance your ability to think creatively.
Q6) How do we use the availability heuristic and the representativeness heuristic to help estimate the probability of an event's occurring?
Q7) Imagine that Spearman, Thurstone, Sternberg, and Gardner are engaged in a spirited debate of the following statement: "A person's IQ score is the single best description of his or her overall mental ability." Pick any two of these theorists and explain how they would respond to this contention.
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best example of the phenomenon called stereotype threat?
A)Noah develops a sudden fear of flying after repeatedly watching graphic film footage of a commercial aircraft crashing shortly after takeoff and killing all of the passengers.
B)Haley thinks she's more likely to win the lottery after someone she knows wins five million dollars.
C)Hannah does poorly on her calculus final after overhearing her math instructor make a joking remark about how few female students manage to pass his course.
D)Eric is an extremely talented artist and sculptor, but his IQ score is only within the average range.
Q2) Faced with evidence that seems to contradict a hoped-for finding, people may object to the study's methodology. This is an example of the:
A)wishful thinking bias.
B)confirmation bias.
C)fallacy of positive instances.
D)belief-bias effect.
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) A key advantage of the Stanford-Binet intelligence test over the WAIS is that the Stanford-Binet provides scores on 11 subtests that measure different abilities rather than simply a global IQ score.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Only a few highly gifted people are capable of true creativity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The improvement of average IQ that has been found around the world in just a few generations is referred to as the "Flyer Effect" since worldwide travel by air has become more common.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Philip, who displays the hallmark characteristics of autism spectrum disorder, is likely to have a high level of mathematical skill and a low score on the Raven's Progressive Matrices test.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) According to psychologist _____, there are multiple, independent forms of intelligence, such as linguistic intelligence, spatial intelligence, or interpersonal intelligence.
A)Charles Spearman
B)David Wechsler
C)Howard Gardner
D)Lewis Terman
Q2) According to the In Focus box on neurodiversity, an individual with Asperger's syndrome (a mild form of autism spectrum disorder) is likely to:
A)score below the 30th percentile on a test of overall cognitive ability.
B)have narrow interests and inflexible behavior, but average to above-average intelligence.
C)have extraordinary long-term memory but is at risk for early-onset Alzheimer's disease.
D)require life-long support in daily living skills.
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Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) A concept can BEST be described as a(n):
A)mental category that is formed by learning the rules or features that define it the most.
B)mental representation of an object or event that is not physically present.
C)subconscious grouping of related and unrelated items or objects.
D)natural approach to memorizing and retrieving information stored in long-term memory.
Q2) Several problems have been assigned as part of your physics homework. One problem asks you to determine the relative velocity of a variety of moving objects. To answer the question, you solve a complex mathematical equation. Which problem-solving strategy are you using?
A)a heuristic
B)a trial-and-error strategy
C)insight
D)an algorithm
Q3) A well-designed psychological test has which of the following characteristics?
A)reliability, validity, and variability
B)verification, standardization, and reliability
C)reliability, standardization, and validity
D)standardization, validity, and variability
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) Discuss how individualistic and collectivistic cultures differ in achievement motivation.
Q2) Lindsey is so overjoyed when her team wins the state championship that she leaps into the air and screams. Describe how the James-Lange and two-factor theories of emotion would each explain Lindsey's experience of emotion.
Q3) Define glucose, ghrelin, and cholecystokinin, and compare the mechanisms by which they act as short-term signals in regulating eating behavior.
Q4) Define leptin, insulin, and neuropeptide Y, and compare the mechanisms by which they act as long-term signals to regulate body weight.
Q5) Describe the two brain pathways involved in triggering fear, how they differ, and their evolutionary significance.
Q6) Give evidence supporting the idea that facial expressions of basic emotions are innate, and explain how facial expressions are affected by cultural display rules.
Q7) Describe the role of the sympathetic nervous system, including the physiological signs of the fight-or-flight response, in the experience of intense emotions.
Q8) How do genes and environmental factors interact in the development of obesity?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) Which of the following is a criticism of instinct theories of motivation?
A)Research demonstrated that humans do not have innate behavior patterns.
B)Instinct theorists believed that there were only four human instincts.
C)Instinct theories merely described and labeled behaviors rather than actually explaining them.
D)Instinct theory only accounted for conscious responding, but it did not explain unconscious behaviors.
Q2) Paul Ekman, a leading researcher in emotions, has estimated that the human face is capable of:
A)creating only a few basic expressions.
B)expressing basic emotions only and not mixed emotions.
C)creating more than 7,000 different expressions.
D)creating approximately 200 different expressions.
Q3) A regulatory process called _____ helps you maintain your baseline body weight.
A)energy homeostasis
B)positive energy balance
C)negative energy balance
D)leptin resistance
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) The abbreviation CCK stands for cholecystokinin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drive theories propose that behavior is motivated by the desire to reduce internal tension caused by unmet biological needs, such as hunger or thirst.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research has overwhelmingly confirmed that Maslow's hierarchy of needs provides the most accurate depiction of human motivation developed thus far.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to research described in the Focus on Neuroscience box, "Emotions and the Brain," some emotions fail to produce significant brain activation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When brain levels of neuropeptide Y increase, eating behavior is triggered.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) Joel is described by co-workers and family as having superior intellect. However, despite his intelligence, Joel often makes poor decisions. Joel lacks:
A)self-efficacy.
B)practical intelligence.
C)emotional intelligence.
D)interpersonal understanding.
Q2) According to Maslow's theory of motivation:
A)optimal human functioning can occur only if the psychological needs of autonomy, competence, and relatedness are satisfied.
B)only a few exceptional individuals ever achieve self-actualization.
C)all people are motivated by an inborn tendency to strive for self-actualization.
D)a small percentage of self-actualized people experience peak experiences, or moments of intense ecstasy, wonder, and awe.
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Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholecystokinin is:
A)a hormone that strongly stimulates appetite.
B)a neurotransmitter that promotes the production of growth hormone by the pituitary gland.
C)both a hormone and a neurotransmitter that increases the sensitivity of stretch receptors in the stomach, promotes satiation, and reduces or stops eating behavior.
D)a neurotransmitter manufactured throughout the brain that triggers eating behavior.
Q2) Marshall sleeps, on average, five hours per night. Compared to adults who sleep seven to eight hours a night, Marshall is 50 percent more likely to:
A)be underweight.
B)lose weight but gain it back.
C)be obese.
D)have a high basal metabolic rate.
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Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the positive effects of aerobic exercise on cognitive functioning in old age, and summarize evidence from experimental research that supports these claims.
Q2) Describe Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's stage theory of dying, and discuss its origins and its accuracy.
Q3) Compare and contrast the views of Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky on the cognitive development of children.
Q4) How did researchers Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess classify the temperamental patterns of infants? Describe characteristics of each temperamental pattern.
Q5) Describe research on the effect of educational baby videos on language development, and indicate whether the research supports the claim that baby videos work to accelerate language and cognitive development.
Q6) Define epigenetics and describe the different ways that gene expression can be triggered.
Q7) Compare the typical sleeping arrangements of families with infants in the United States with those of other cultures, and discuss how these differences reflect different cultural beliefs and norms.
Q8) Define teratogens, and list five known teratogens.
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) When does a developing organism double in weight, gaining an additional 3 to 4 pounds of body fat?
A)during the last two months of the fetal period
B)during the third and fourth months of the germinal period
C)during the first two months following conception
D)during the first two to eight weeks of prenatal development
Q2) Videos developed for infants and toddlers have claimed that they promote brain development. However, a study by Zimmerman and colleagues showed that viewing baby media was _____ with vocabulary growth in infants.
A)not correlated
B)positively correlated
C)negatively correlated
D)quasi-correlated
Q3) During which stage of development does formal operational thinking typically begin to emerge?
A)early adulthood
B)early adolescence
C)about ages 3 to 5
D)about ages 5 to 7
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development
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Q1) Parents in all cultures tend to use a style of speech called "infant-directed speech" (also called motherese) when they address infants and toddlers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Renée Baillargeon's research on young infants' cognitive development uses visual tasks to assess the infants' understanding of object permanence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The beginning of dating coincides more strongly with an adolescent's degree of physical maturation than with cultural and social expectations and norms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Epigenetics refers to the study of the mechanisms that control gene expression and its effect on behavior and health.
A)True
B)False
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46
Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development
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Q1) Martina is pregnant with her first child. She wonders how the embryo receives nourishment and rids itself of carbon dioxide and other wastes. You can tell Martina that the _____ performs this function.
A)placenta
B)amniotic sac
C)umbilical cord
D)zygote.
Q2) and Mrs. Cotter are the parents of nine-year-old Cody. Although Cody is not yet an adolescent, the Cotters are already worried about how peer pressure will affect their son. You can tell the Cotters that susceptibility to peer influence peaks during:
A)middle childhood.
B)early adolescence.
C)late adolescence.
D)emerging adulthood.
Q3) Which theorist proposed the zone of proximal development?
A)Piaget
B)Darwin
C)Kohlberg
D)Vygotsky
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Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Developmental psychologists divide the lifespan into _____ age-related changes of development.
A)four
B)seven
C)nine
D)twelve
Q2) Which of the following is the CORRECT term for a segment of DNA that encodes the formula for a particular protein molecule?
A)gene
B)genotype
C)chromosome
D)phenotype
Q3) In MOST cases, the greatest vulnerability to teratogens occurs during the _____ period of prenatal development.
A)embryonic
B)fetal
C)germinal
D)postnatal
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Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality
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Q1) List the key strength and two weaknesses associated with the social cognitive perspective on personality.
Q2) What are ego defense mechanisms? Briefly describe the defense mechanisms of repression, projection, and denial, and their influences on behavior.
Q3) What are three important criticisms of Freud's theory of personality?
Q4) What was Freud's personality theory? Describe the personal, historical, and cultural factors that may have influenced the development of Freud's personality theory.
Q5) What are the two major criticisms of the humanistic perspective on personality?
Q6) Summarize the key ideas proposed by Carl Jung.
Q7) What are the functional and structural brain differences that have been associated with the Big Five personality traits?
Q8) Compare the views of Sigmund Freud and Albert Bandura on human aggression.
Q9) Describe the five-factor model of personality, and list surface traits associated with each factor.
Q10) Describe the four major theoretical perspectives on personality.
Q11) Define graphology, and describe the scientific research investigating the claims of graphologists. State what conclusions can be drawn about this topic.
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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality
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Q1) Freud's famous technique of free association involved patients:
A)spontaneously reporting mental images, thoughts, and feelings as they came to mind.
B)looking at inkblots and interpreting what they saw.
C)making up a story about an ambiguous picture.
D)instantly responding to each of 50 words that Freud read to them.
Q2) According to Bandura's theory, which of the following factors is likely to contribute to the self-regulation of behavior?
A)the strength of the person's superego
B)effective ego defense mechanisms
C)observing other people's behavior and the consequences of their actions
D)experiencing unconditional positive regard from parents, teachers, and other authority figures
Q3) The neo-Freudians agreed with Freud's notion that:
A)sexual urges are the primary motivator of behavior.
B)early childhood experiences are the sole determinant of personality.
C)basic human nature is aggressive and destructive.
D)unconscious mental processes influence behavior.
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Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who vividly imagine their possible selves as successful because of hard work expend greater effort on a task than do people whose possible selves involve being unsuccessful despite working hard.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The 1895 publication of the book entitled Studies on Hysteria, which was written by Joseph Breuer and Sigmund Freud, is the event considered the beginning of psychoanalysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During a career counseling assessment session, Frank's personality test results indicated that he has a distinct personality type, ESTJ (extraverted, sensing, thinking, feeling). It is most likely that the counselor administered the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI).
A)True
B)False
Q4) One weakness of projective tests is that the scoring is highly subjective.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality
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Q1) The _____ is a self-report inventory that is based on research by Raymond Cattell.
A)16PF (Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire)
B)CPI (California Personality Inventory)
C)TAT (Thematic Apperception Test)
D)MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory)
Q2) Trait theorists have analyzed and grouped large numbers of surface traits in order to identify a smaller number of:
A)personality types.
B)temperamental styles.
C)source traits.
D)externalizing traits.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental influence?
A)socioeconomic status
B)illness
C)parenting
D)neighborhood
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Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality
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Q1) Both the social cognitive and humanistic perspectives on personality emphasize:
A)unconscious beliefs and feelings.
B)the importance of conscious thoughts about the self.
C)genetic influences on development.
D)positive aspects of aggression.
Q2) _____ are aspects of the self-concept that reflect images that people hope, fear, or expect to become in the future.
A)Personality factors
B)Personality traits
C)Possible selves
D)Heritability ratings
Q3) Westasia is a graduate student who is interested in personality tests that involve the interpretation of ambiguous images in an effort to assess unconscious motivations and conflicts. Westasia is interested in:
A)projective tests.
B)self-report inventories.
C)trait theories.
D)graphology tests.
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53
Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology
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Q1) Name and describe seven common attributional biases and explanatory patterns.
Q2) Describe how implicit attitudes differ from explicit attitudes, and explain how implicit attitudes are measured using the Implicit Association Test (IAT).
Q3) Do attitudes always guide behavior? Describe the conditions under which a person is most likely to behave in a way that is consistent with his or her attitudes.
Q4) Explain how the fundamental attribution error, the hindsight bias, and the just-world hypothesis contribute to people's tendency to "blame the victim" of misfortune.
Q5) How did people predict that the participants in Milgram's experiment would react, and how did that prediction compare to the participants' actual behavior?
Q6) Under what conditions are bystanders most likely to help a stranger? Least likely to help a stranger?
Q7) Describe how in-group and out-group thinking, negative stereotypes, dehumanization, prejudice, and cognitive dissonance contributed to the abuse of prisoners at Abu Ghraib prison in Iraq.
Q8) Describe the physical, interpersonal, situational, and cultural factors that influence attraction and liking.
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology
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Q1) Jeff, Andrea, and Nancy were busily working at their computers in the graduate student lounge when Jeff exclaimed, "My chest hurts." Neither Andrea nor Nancy responded to this exclamation. Nor did they respond when Jeff said again, "No, really, I think I could be having a heart attack." The two women continued typing, each of them thinking, "I don't need to worry about Jeff. The other person in the room will help him. What I need to worry about is my manuscript deadline." In this example, the graduate students have fallen victim to:
A)altruism.
B)the rule of reciprocity.
C)the door-in-the-face technique.
D)the bystander effect.
Q2) Strayer investigates the mental processes we use to make sense of our physical environment and form judgments about the characteristics and motives of other people. Dr. Strayer is most likely a(n) _____ psychologist.
A)evolutionary
B)clinical
C)social
D)cognitive
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology
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Q1) Research has shown that people will quickly change their stereotyped way of thinking when they are confronted with evidence that contradicts the stereotype that they had believed to be true.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Being aware that your social group is associated with a particular stereotype can negatively impact your performance on tests or tasks that measure abilities thought to be associated with that stereotype, a phenomenon called the stereotype threat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Right up until the time she walked into the voting booth, Brianna had mixed feelings about both candidates. But after she voted, she expressed much more positive sentiments about the candidate she voted for and seemed sharper in her negative comments about the candidate she rejected. This is an example of the self-serving bias.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology
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Q1) Which of the following is a fairly common attributional bias?
A)hindsight bias
B)the in-group bias
C)the "feel good, do good" effect
D)diffusion of responsibility
Q2) When people feel good, successful, happy, or fortunate, they are more likely to help others. This is called:
A)diffusion of responsibility.
B)the bystander effect.
C)"feel-good, do-good."
D)a halo bias.
Q3) Research indicates that people have a strong tendency to perceive others in terms of two basic social categories:
A)the in-group and the out-group.
B)popular and unpopular.
C)friendly and antisocial.
D)conformists and nonconformists.
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Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology
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Q1) According to Focus on Neuroscience: Brain Reward When Making Eye Contact with Attractive People, when we make direct eye contact with a physically attractive person, a specific area on each side of the brain is activated. When the attractive person's eye gaze is shifted away from the viewer, brain activity in these areas decreases. Researchers have located two brain areas that are selectively responsive to the reward value of attractive faces: the _____ and the _____.
A)amygdala; left ventral striatum
B)orbital frontal cortex; right ventral striatum
C)orbital frontal cortex; amygdala
D)amygdala; right ventral striatum
Q2) The greater the number of people present when someone is in distress, the less likely any one individual is to help. This phenomenon is called the _____ effect.
A)"not my problem"
B)hindsight
C)"Golden Rule"
D)bystander effect
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Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) Health psychologist Shelley Taylor has proposed that women "tend-and-befriend" in response to stress. Define the "tend-and-befriend" response, and explain this phenomenon from an evolutionary perspective.
Q2) Explain how feelings of control influence the experience of stress. Under what conditions does this phenomenon occur, and is this true for all cultures?
Q3) What kinds of social support efforts are MOST likely to be perceived as helpful?
Q4) How do social isolation and diverse social networks impact health?
Q5) What is a placebo, and how are placebos used in biomedical research?
Q6) Identify and describe what is involved in the stress pathway identified by Hans Selye, and explain the conditions under which this response may be helpful or harmful to physical health.
Q7) What kinds of stressors have been found to influence the effectiveness of the immune system, and what are the practical implications of these findings?
Q8) Describe the use of the positive reappraisal coping strategy, and provide either an original personal example or use the example of model Petra Nemcova to show how positive reappraisal can be a constructive response to tragedy.
Q9) Describe the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome.
Page 59
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) A(n) _____involves conjuring up mental images of people, circumstances, or items that you are thankful for.
A)gratitude list
B)appraisal
C)destressor
D)reappraisal
Q2) Selye's term for the three-stage progression of physical changes that occur when an organism is exposed to intense and prolonged stress is:
A)the stress contagion effect.
B)psychoneuroimmunology.
C)the fight-or-flight response.
D)the general adaptation syndrome.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a key component of burnout?
A)exhaustion
B)complex work assignments
C)cynicism
D)sense of failure or inadequacy
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Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) A gratitude list involves conjuring up mental images of people, circumstances, or items that you are thankful for.
A)True
B)False
Q2) "People think I'm shy, when I really just have trouble speaking English" is an example of an item from the Acculturative Daily Hassles Scale for Children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Informational social support involves offering helpful suggestions, advice, or possible resources to a person in distress.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Coping refers to the way we try to change circumstances, or our interpretation of circumstances, to make them more favorable and less threatening.
A)True
B)False
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61
Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) As compared with members of individualistic cultures, members of collectivistic cultures are more likely to _____ to cope with stress.
A)seek social support and use emotion-focused coping strategies
B)resort to confrontive coping and planful problem solving
C)seek social support and use problem-focused coping strategies
D)assume personal responsibility and use multiple coping strategies
Q2) Vernessa is a middle-aged adult who experiences chronic stress. Research suggests that Vernessa will have shortened:
A)telomeres.
B)neurons.
C)axons.
D)dendrites.
Q3) According to Focus on Neuroscience: The Mysterious Placebo Effect, one possible explanation for the placebo effect is that it:
A)is ineffective for reducing pain.
B)can have a harmful effect on the central nervous system.
C)reduces pain by activating the brain's natural opioid network.
D)increases pain by activating the brain's natural opioid network.
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62
Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding the Type A behavior pattern, most health psychologists today would agree that:
A)the Type A behavior pattern has little or no relationship with physical health.
B)competitiveness and achievement motivation seem to be strongly linked to the development of heart disease.
C)a sense of hostility is strongly linked to the development of heart disease, while time urgency, competitiveness, and achievement motivation are not.
D)competitiveness and time urgency are strongly linked to poorer immune system function, while hostility seems to be linked only to the risk of psychological problems, such as major depressive disorder.
Q2) _____ is an enzyme that has the capacity to add DNA to shortened telomeres, rebuilding and extending the length of telomeres.
A)Monamine oxidase
B)Cortisol
C)Insulin
D)Telomerase
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the most common categories of specific phobias, and provide at least two examples for each. Then, note the specific symptoms of social anxiety disorder and the cultural variation called taijin kyofusho.
Q2) What can a person do to help someone who expresses suicidal intentions?
Q3) Marcus appears completely normal on the outside. He is well-dressed, clean, and seems upbeat and happy. However, Marcus has periods of time where he is confused about who he is. He will travel thousands of miles away from home and when asked to present his driver's license (such as when checking into a hotel), he seems confused about whose ID he has. In several instances, he has argued that he must have picked up the wrong wallet because the driver's license is not his. What disorder does Marcus likely have? Explain your answer.
Q4) Explain what the DSM-5 is, describe how it was developed, and list some of the major criticisms of the manual.
Q5) Identify two core symptoms of mood disorders (or affective disorders). How does a mood disorder differ from typical mood swings?
Q6) Explain why social and cultural factors must be considered in distinguishing normal behavior from abnormal behavior, and give an example.
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following medications is commonly used to help control the symptoms of bipolar disorder?
A)antidepressant medications
B)antipsychotic medications
C)lithium
D)antianxiety medications
Q2) Miguel's wife brought him to the emergency room because Miguel could not remember his name, the names of his family members, where he worked, or any other information he should easily be able to remember. Extensive tests at the hospital indicated that Miguel's memory problems were not due to an injury, an illness, drugs, or any other physical or medical condition. A clinical psychologist suggested that Miguel might be suffering from:
A)schizophrenia.
B)bipolar disorder.
C)obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D)dissociative amnesia.
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Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Psychopathology is defined as a pattern of behavioral or psychological symptoms that cause significant personal distress, impair the ability to function in one or more important areas of life, or both.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Even mild dissociative experiences are highly unusual and are nearly always an indication that a serious psychological disorder is present.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although a few mental health professionals once doubted the validity of dissociative identity disorder, today's mental health professionals are unanimous in their agreement that the disorder is valid and occurs worldwide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Visual hallucinations are the most common type of hallucination experienced during a schizophrenic episode.
A)True
B)False
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66
Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by:
A)sudden, intense, and short-lived bouts of anxiety.
B)panic attacks that occur frequently and unexpectedly.
C)recurring mental images of a specific traumatic incident.
D)ongoing, global, and persistent anxiety.
Q2) One theory of borderline personality disorder (BPD) is that some children are born with a biologically sensitive temperament that makes them more vulnerable to develop the disorder, especially when they are raised by caregivers who do not teach them how to control their impulsiveness or help them learn how to understand, regulate, and appropriately express their emotions. This theory is called the _____ of BPD.
A)biosocial developmental theory
B)catastrophic cognitions theory
C)triple vulnerabilities model
D)genetic predisposition model
Q3) A commonly observed _____ symptom that occurs in schizophrenia is _____.
A)negative; delusions
B)positive; alogia
C)negative; flat affect
D)positive; avolition
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Page 67
Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) _____ disorders are characterized by inflexible, maladaptive patterns of thoughts, emotions, behavior, and interpersonal functioning that are stable over time and across situations and deviate from the expectations of the individual's culture.
A)Personality
B)Anxiety
C)Culture-bound
D)Major depressive
Q2) According to Sing Lee, a Chinese psychiatrist, young women in Hong Kong with anorexia attributed their severe thinness to:
A)genetics.
B)Western media.
C)stress and lack of health care.
D)physical problems, such as bloating.
Q3) Research indicates that anxiety:
A)interferes with all aspects of functioning, even in the short term.
B)can be adaptive, helpful, and beneficial when it alerts people to a realistic threat.
C)can cause emotional ups and downs but has little impact on health.
D)generally requires pharmacological interventions.
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Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies
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Q1) Summarize the basic experimental design and the main findings of the fMRI scan study of emotional and cognitive brain activity in patients with and without major depression. What effects were noted after cognitive therapy?
Q2) What are the assumptions and key ideas of interpersonal therapy?
Q3) Describe the steps used in systematic desensitization and identify the conditioning principles involved in this technique.
Q4) According to Aaron Beck, what are some of the cognitive biases that operate in depressed people?
Q5) What roles do self-help groups play in helping people with psychological problems? Give an example of a self-help group and describe how it works.
Q6) Describe the basic assumptions and techniques of rational-emotive behavior therapy, including the "ABC" model.
Q7) How are the operant conditioning procedures of positive reinforcement and extinction used to modify behaviors?
Q8) What effects do benzodiazepines produce? What are possible side effects?
Q9) List and describe at least three drawbacks of early antipsychotic medications.
Q10) How do short-term dynamic therapies differ from traditional psychoanalysis?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies
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Q1) Contingency management involves:
A)the application of virtual reality technology with patients in outpatient treatment programs.
B)unpleasant consequences, such as mild electric shocks or foul-tasting substances, following undesirable behaviors by outpatients enrolled in the treatment program.
C)concrete rewards that can be "earned" by outpatients for engaging in specific desirable behaviors.
D)identifying irrational beliefs and negative cognitive biases that contribute to the outpatient's problem behavior or emotion.
Q2) The primary goal of Naikan therapy is to:
A)replace dependence upon the family with self-sufficiency.
B)replace the focus on the self with an emphasis upon gratitude and obligation toward significant others.
C)replace irrational beliefs with rational beliefs.
D)improve relationship skills, including communication and problem solving.
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies
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Q1) Not all psychologists favor the idea of extending prescription privileges to qualified psychologists. Some argue that clinical psychologists should focus on what they do best: providing psychological interventions and treatments that help people acquire more effective patterns of thinking and behaving.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to psychologist Albert Ellis, irrational beliefs tend to reflect "must" and "should" statements that are absolutes, such as "I should become extremely upset over other people's problems."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Two newer antidepressants, Effexor and Cymbalta, are best classified as dual-reuptake inhibitors because they affect brain levels of two neurotransmitters, serotonin and norepinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ECT involves electrically inducing a seizure in the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies
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Q1) Melinda wishes to overcome her extreme shyness. Melinda's therapist helps her design a program in which Melinda records every instance of shy behavior, sets specific goals for acting in a more outgoing fashion in particular situations, and rewards herself when she is successful. Melinda's therapist is probably practicing a form of _____ therapy.
A)humanistic
B)psychoanalytic
C)behavior
D)cognitive
Q2) Self-help groups, such as Alcoholics Anonymous, follow _____ approach.
A)the client-centered
B)the behaviorist
C)a 12-step
D)a mindfulness
Q3) Which of the following therapy techniques are based on the early research of Mary Cover Jones?
A)empathic listening and genuineness
B)counterconditioning and systematic desensitization
C)free association, interpretation, and resistance
D)group therapy and family therapy
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Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies
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Q1) An eating disorder in which the individual refuses to maintain a minimally normal body weight, is extremely afraid of gaining weight or becoming fat, and has a distorted perception about the size of his or her body is called:
A)cyclothymic disorder.
B)anorexia nervosa.
C)bulimia nervosa.
D)dysthymia.
Q2) Some people experience a less severe form of depressive disorder that is characterized by chronic low-grade depression with symptoms persisting for two years or longer. This less intense type of depression is called _____ disorder.
A)seasonal affective
B)cyclothymic
C)persistent depressive
D)dissociative
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with suicide?
A)flexible thinking and rational beliefs
B)a family history of suicide
C)exposure to cyberbullying
D)presence of a firearm in the home
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Page 73