Psychology for Health Professionals Solved
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Psychology for Health Professionals introduces students to key psychological theories and concepts relevant to healthcare practice. The course explores human behavior, stress, coping mechanisms, communication strategies, and the psychological impacts of illness and hospitalization. Students will learn about the mind-body connection, cultural and ethical considerations, and the importance of empathy and therapeutic relationships in patient care. Emphasis is placed on applying psychological principles to enhance patient outcomes, improve professional-patient interactions, and support mental wellbeing for both patients and health professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology An Integrative Approach 8th Edition by David H. Barlow
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16 Chapters
2192 Verified Questions
2192 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Abnormal Behavior in Historical Context
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228 Verified Questions
228 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benzodiazepines, or "minor" tranquilizers such as Valium and Librium, are effective in reducing the symptoms of A) depression.
B) anxiety.
C) schizophrenia.
D) hysteria.
Answer: B
Q2) Anton Mesmer, an early 18th century physician, purported to be affecting cures in patients by unblocking their flow of a bodily fluid he called "animal magnetism." In fact, any effectiveness of his methods was actually due to A) undetectable magnetic fields.
B) chemically induced humoral balance.
C) mental telepathy.
D) the power of suggestion.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One conclusion that can be drawn from the studies regarding rat learning and brain structure (Greenough, et al., 1990; Wallace, et al., 1992) is that
A) early psychological experience affects the development of the nervous system and will absolutely determine whether or not the individual will develop a psychological disorder later in life.
B) early psychological experience does not result in physical changes to the nervous system but can still influence whether or not one develops a psychological disorder.
C) early psychological experience affects the development of the nervous system and influences vulnerability to psychological disorders later in life.
D) early psychological experience has little to do with brain structure or later development of psychopathology.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the major objectives and typical procedures of the mental status exam. Be sure to include the typical activities of the examiner and the intended outcomes of the process.
Answer: Mental status exams cover the following five categories:
-Appearance and behavior. The clinician records the client's dress, appearance, and motor actions.
-Thought processes. The clinician listens to the patient talk in order to assess the rate and content of his/her speech.
-Mood and affect. The clinician observes the patient's emotion, and actions regarding his/her feelings.
-Intellectual functioning. The clinician assesses the client's vocabulary, memory, and overall intellectual functioning.
-Sensorium. The client's general awareness of his/her surroundings is assessed. The mental status exam is done to allow the clinician to make a preliminary determination of the areas of the patient's behavior and condition that should be assessed further.
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Chapter 4: Research Methods
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of treatment outcome research?
A) Examining the changes in serotonin levels from taking Prozac
B) Determining whether the active ingredients in a medication actually have any impact on the function of the brain
C) Exploring the parts of cognitive-behavioral therapy homework that are most difficult for patients to perform
D) Examining the impact of Prozac on depression
Q2) Longitudinal and/or cross-sectional research is often necessary to determine
A) how disorders change and progress over a typical patient's lifetime.
B) the genetic causes of a particular disorder.
C) the environmental causes of a particular disorder.
D) if a particular treatment is appropriate for patients suffering from a specific disorder.
Q3) Adoption studies can be used to study the influence of genetic influences on psychopathology
A) without the typical confound of common biological parents.
B) using more sophisticated statistical techniques.
C) through direct examination of genetic causes.
D) without the typical confound of siblings raised in the same environment.
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6
Chapter 5: Anxiety, Trauma and Stressor-Related, and
Obsessive-Compulsive
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142 Verified Questions
142 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Richard, whose case is described in the textbook, was obsessed with the idea that if he did not eat in a certain ritualistic way, he would become possessed. This is an aspect of OCD that is termed .
A) symmetrical
B) magical
C) logical
D) demonic
Q2) Which of the following procedures is NOT part of Barlow's panic control treatment (PCT)?
A) Cognitive therapy to modify conscious or unconscious perceptions about the "dangerousness" of feared situations
B) Creation of mini panic attacks in the therapist's office
C) Exercises to elevate the heart rate or spinning to make the patient dizzy
D) Reducing agoraphobic avoidance by exposure to feared situations
Q3) People tend to have their best performance on tasks when they are .
A) very anxious
B) not anxious at all
C) a little anxious
D) fearful
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Chapter 6: Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders and Dissociative
Disorders
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In treating conversion disorder, which of the following statements is true?
A) Clients responded well to cognitive-behavioral therapy.
B) Clients responded well to hypnosis.
C) Clients responded well when hypnosis and cognitive-behavioral therapy were combined.
D) Like somatic symptom disorder, clients do not respond well to any treatment.
Q2) The common aspect of all somatic symptom disorders is a maladaptive or excessive
A) belief that a serious medical condition will cause death.
B) belief that one's appearance is ugly.
C) response to physical or associated health symptoms.
D) concern with the meaning of a physical pain.
Q3) Research suggests that somatic symptom disorder often occurs in families with a strong tendency toward __________.
A) antisocial personality disorder
B) schizophrenia
C) depression
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
Q4) Describe how conversion reactions, real physical disorders, and outright malingering can be differentiated.
Q5) Discuss the controversy surrounding false memories. Page 8
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements about lithium therapy are true EXCEPT
A) lithium can act as an antidepressant.
B) lithium can act as a mood stabilizer.
C) dosage must be carefully regulated to prevent toxicity.
D) the side effects of lithium are less serious than those of other antidepressants.
Q2) Dysphoric mania refers to a type of mood disorder in which manic episodes are
A) extremely severe.
B) very mild.
C) accompanied by depression or anxiety.
D) related to a medical condition.
Q3) All of the following are side effects of lithium therapy EXCEPT .
A) lowered thyroid functioning
B) weight loss
C) toxicity
D) lack of energy
Q4) Recreate the Integrative Model of Mood Disorders. Be sure to label potential causes and protective factors.
Q5) Describe how Cognitive Behavior Therapy works for depression.
Q6) Identify and explain the risk factors associated with suicide.
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Chapter 8: Eating and Sleep-Wake Disorders
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about dieting:
A) is less problematic than previously thought.
B) 55% of girls are dieting at age 12.
C) dieting increases between adolescence and young adulthood.
D) it can lead to an eating disorder.
Q2) Discuss the importance of gender and culturally-nuanced treatments for Binge Eating Disorder (BED). Cite an example.
Q3) Which of the teenage girls described below is at greatest risk for developing an eating disorder?
A) Alice is currently on a diet; her friends also diet aggressively.
B) Sue is of average to slightly above average weight but wants to lose a few pounds.
C) Megan's friends are concerned about the weight she has lost since she began working out with the swim team.
D) Jean has always been fairly thin despite the fact that she eats quite normally.
Q4) What current research supports the relationship between thin images in the media and eating disorders?
Q5) Discuss possible treatments for eating disorders.
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Page 11
Chapter 9: Physical Disorders and Health Psychology
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In keeping daily records of the stressful events in their lives, patients in pain management programs are taught to be very specific about all of the following EXCEPT
A) the actual time of day that they experience stress.
B) what seems to "trigger the stress."
C) how they attempted to control the stress.
D) the level of intensity of the stress.
Q2) The cells of the humoral immune system that produce immunoglobulins are called .
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) NK cells
D) macrophages
Q3) According to Holroyd et al., (1984) biofeedback may decrease pain because it
A) instills a sense of control over the pain.
B) decreases tension.
C) increases awareness of the body.
D) decreases sensitivity to pain.
Q4) Is denial a reasonable response to coping with chronic illness? Why or why not?
Q5) Discuss some effective and less effective strategies for preventing headaches.
Q6) Discuss the relationship between stress, immune function, and illness.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Sexual Dysfunctions, Paraphilic Disorders and Gender Dysphoria
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130 Verified Questions
130 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jacob and Liu have been happily married for 10 years. Although fulfilling in other ways, Jacob typically ejaculates within 1 minute of penetration and before Liu is ready. Which of the following is true about premature ejaculation:
A) Premature ejaculation is uncommon, impacting only 5% of men.
B) Premature ejaculation typically happens in older men.
C) Premature ejaculation is most common in younger, less experienced men.
D) Premature ejaculation is not serious and does not require a medical examination to rule out physiological causes.
Q2) Premature ejaculations are
A) clearly defined by the amount of time between penetration and climax.
B) generally a result of perception of control rather than actual time.
C) always a sign of serious sexual problems.
D) more likely in men with a higher level of sexual experience.
Q3) Gender dysphoria is characterized by dissatisfaction with
A) sexual experiences.
B) gender role expectations.
C) one's biological sex.
D) media portrayals of gender.
Q4) Are there gender differences in masturbation? If so, what might cause them?
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related, Addictive, and Impulse-Control Disorders
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A perspective of Substance Use Disorder that involves "drug-seeking behaviors" includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) repeated use of the drug.
B) a desperate need to ingest more of the drug.
C) resuming drug use after a period of abstinence.
D) physical symptoms when the drug is no longer used.
Q2) Which of the following terms is the definition of anticonvulsant?
A) Sleep-inducing
B) Anxiety-reducing
C) Anti-seizure
D) Calming
Q3) The American Psychiatric Association defines substance abuse in terms of
A) how drunk or intoxicated a person gets after ingesting a psychoactive substance.
B) whether or not the substance interferes with the person's life.
C) the type and intensity of the substance abuser's biological reaction.
D) which drug is used and whether it is legal or illegal.
Q4) According to your text, is it possible to use drugs without becoming addicted to them?
Q5) Discuss the various component treatments for substance abuse.
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Chapter 12: Personality Disorders
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to your text, treatment of dependent personality disorder is
A) generally successful with a cognitive-behavioral approach.
B) well-researched, though no effective treatments have been established.
C) not well-researched.
D) successful when based on systematic desensitization and social skills training.
Q2) People with narcissistic personality disorder display all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
A) exploitation of others.
B) often very ecstatic because they receive the adulation of others.
C) demand special attention.
D) feelings of grandiosity.
Q3) Which of the following researchers has focused his/her work on identifying the various traits of a psychopathic personality?
A) Werth
B) Ebbinghaus
C) Cleckley
D) Mazza
Q4) Explain how Autism in childhood and Schizoid Personality Disorder in adulthood related?
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders
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130 Verified Questions
130 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A treatment first used in the 1930s as a treatment for schizophrenia but now used primarily to treat severe depression is _____________.
A) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
B) prefrontal lobotomy
C) insulin coma therapy
D) psychosurgery
Q2) Second-generation or atypical antipsychotics may
A) help patients who were previously unresponsive.
B) have fewer side effects than traditional antipsychotics.
C) be less likely to be discontinued by the patient.
D) be no longer used to treat schizophrenia.
Q3) Which of the following is closely associated with catatonia?
A) Negative withdrawal
B) Repetitive echolalia
C) Agitation
D) Waxy flexibility
Q4) Discuss some of the causative factors of schizophrenia, including genetic influences, neurotransmitter imbalances, prenatal viral exposure, and psychological stressors.
Q5) Identify and define the three subtypes of Schizophrenia.
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Chapter 14: Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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123 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parents who have a child with autism spectrum disorder have about a chance of having another child
With such a disorder. This rate is more than 100 times the risk in the general population, lending weight to the idea that there is a strong genetic component to these conditions.
A) 2%
B) 8%
C) 13%
D) 29%
Q2) Research regarding early intervention programs such as Head Start indicates that such programs
A) are ineffective.
B) may help improve the functioning of mentally retarded children.
C) may help prevent "at risk" children from developing cultural-familial disability.
D) help parents manage the behavior of their mentally retarded children.
Q3) Autism Spectrum Disorder was wrongly seen as a result of poor parenting. What harm might this misunderstanding cause?
Q4) Discuss the possible causes of autistic disorder.
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Chapter 15: Neurocognitive Disorders
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130 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gradual deterioration of brain functioning that affects judgment, memory, language, and other cognitive processes is called _______________.
A) major neurocognitive disorder
B) delirium
C) amnestic disorder
D) mental retardation
Q2) During the late stages of neurocognitive disorder, the psychosocial treatment.
A) caregiver
B) patient
C) family
D) healthcare provider
Q3) Higher levels of education are associated with
A) the prevention of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease.
B) a delay in the onset of symptoms of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease.
C) a slow course of deterioration after neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease first starts.
D) the rapid onset of symptoms in neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease.
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18
Chapter 16: Mental Health Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Congress passed the Insanity Defense Reform Act of 1984, it made successful use of the insanity defense
A) more difficult for all individuals.
B) easier for any individual.
C) more difficult for the mentally ill only.
D) easier for the non-mentally ill.
Q2) The insanity defense is based on a historical case in England involving a man named .
A) Durham
B) Addington
C) M'Naghten
D) Tory
Q3) According to the 1975 case of O'Connor v. Donaldson, a non-dangerous mentally ill individual
A) must be given medication to control the possibility of dangerous tendencies developing.
B) cannot be confined in an institution if capable of functioning safely on the outside.
C) must be confined in an institution in case a violent episode occurs.
D) can be released from an institution only if relatives agree to provide care.
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Page 19