Psychology for Education Majors
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
This course introduces education majors to fundamental concepts in psychology with a focus on their application to teaching and learning environments. Students explore key theories of cognitive, social, and emotional development as well as the principles of motivation, classroom management, individual differences, and assessment. Emphasis is placed on understanding how psychological research informs effective instructional strategies, supports diverse learners, and addresses behavioral and mental health issues in educational settings. By integrating theory and practice, the course prepares future educators to foster positive learning experiences and address the needs of all students.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by
David G. Myers
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56 Chapters
9156 Verified Questions
9156 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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302 Verified Questions
302 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recognizing that our explanations for our own and others' behaviors may be incorrect best illustrates an element of the scientific attitude known as
A) practicality.
B) self-control.
C) humility.
D) curiosity.
Answer: C
Q2) One of the last century's most influential observers of children was the Swiss biologist
A) Edward Bradford Titchener.
B) Margaret Floy Washburn.
C) William James.
D) Jean Piaget.
Answer: D
Q3) Critical thinkers can best be described as
A) questioning.
B) cynical.
C) pessimistic.
D) impatient.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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333 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although Soren once scored 37 points during a single high school basketball game,he was subsequently unable to beat or match this record no matter how hard he tried.His experience may be at least partially explained in terms of A) an illusion of control.
B) regression toward the mean.
C) illusory correlation.
D) random assignment.
Answer: B
Q2) Dr.Donelian wants to reduce his students' perceptions that psychological research merely documents the obvious.His best strategy would be to ask the students to A) describe how research predictions were derived from basic psychological principles. B) predict the outcomes of research studies before they are told the actual results.
C) explain the outcomes of research studies after they are told the actual results. D) engage in naturalistic observation.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The median of a distribution of scores is the A) most frequently occurring score.
B) difference between the highest and lowest scores.
C) arithmetic average of all the scores.
D) middle score in a distribution of scores.
Answer: D
Q2) The standard deviation is a measure of A) central tendency.
B) variation.
C) statistical significance.
D) skewness.
Answer: B
Q3) Evelyn wants to know how consistent her bowling scores have been during the past season.Which of the following measures would tell her what she wants to know?
A) mean
B) median
C) standard deviation
D) range
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A slap on the back is more painful than a pat on the back because a slap triggers
A) the release of endorphins.
B) more intense neural impulses.
C) the release of GABA.
D) more neurons to fire,and to fire more often.
Q2) Before an action potential begins,the fluid outside an axon's membrane has ________ ions;the fluid inside has ________ ions.
A) mostly negatively charged;mostly positively charged
B) equal numbers of positively and negatively charged;equal numbers of positively and negatively charged
C) mostly positively charged;mostly negatively charged
D) neither positively nor negatively charged;neither positively nor negatively charged
Q3) Hormones are the chemical messengers of the
A) autonomic nervous system.
B) somatic nervous system.
C) endocrine system.
D) central nervous system.
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Chapter 5: The Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The $40 million Human Connectome Project harnesses ________ technology to map neural connections across long distances within the brain.
A) positron emission tomography
B) electroencephalogram
C) diffusion spectrum imaging
D) microelectrode insertion
Q2) Substance use disorders may stem from malfunctioning reward centers in the A) thalamus.
B) cerebellum.
C) reticular formation.
D) limbic system.
Q3) Which nerve network traveling through the brainstem plays an important role in controlling arousal?
A) reticular formation
B) hypothalamus
C) cerebellum
D) medulla
Q4) Describe specific functions of our older brain structures,which reveal that our brains are responsible for much more than simply our capacity to think.
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Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) After he suffered a stroke,Mr.Santore's physical coordination skills and responsiveness to sensory stimulation quickly returned to normal.Unfortunately,however,he could no longer figure out how to find his way around his neighborhood.It is most likely that Mr.Santore suffered damage to A) the amygdala.
B) the somatosensory cortex.
C) the motor cortex.
D) an association area.
Q2) The corpus callosum is a wide band of axon fibers that
A) enables the left hemisphere to control the right side of the body.
B) transmits information between the cerebral hemispheres.
C) controls the glands and muscles of the internal organs.
D) transfers neural impulses from the somatosensory cortex to the motor cortex.
Q3) The process of comparing currently experienced visual input with past visual memories takes place in
A) the thalamus.
B) the cerebellum.
C) association areas.
D) the corpus callosum.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although unable to report the width of a block in front of her,a woman identified as D.F.could grasp the block with just the right finger-thumb distance.Her experience best illustrates A) blindsight.
B) the cocktail party effect.
C) selective attention.
D) the popout phenomenon.
Q2) Inattentional blindness is best described as a by-product of A) blindsight.
B) sequential processing.
C) selective attention.
D) a visual action track.
Q3) In one experiment,many of the research participants who were keeping track of basketball tosses between players failed to notice a gorilla-suited research assistant thumping his chest as he moved among the players.This best illustrated A) blindsight.
B) popout.
C) inattentional blindness.
D) the cocktail party effect.
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Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sleep spindles are characteristic of ________ sleep.
A) NREM-1
B) NREM-2
C) NREM-3
D) REM
Q2) Which sleep disorder is most likely to be accompanied by sleepwalking and sleeptalking?
A) narcolepsy
B) night terrors
C) sleep apnea
D) insomnia
Q3) The rhythmic bursts of brain activity that occur during NREM-2 sleep are called A) alpha waves.
B) circadian rhythms.
C) sleep spindles.
D) delta waves.
Q4) Sam works a graveyard shift at his current place of employment and always feels tired and sleep deprived.Explain how this work pattern is affecting his circadian rhythm.
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Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) In contrast to alcohol,marijuana
A) is rapidly eliminated from the body.
B) does not impair motor coordination.
C) amplifies sensitivity to sounds.
D) does not impair memory.
Q2) Epilepsy seizures may trigger sensations strikingly similar to A) dehydration.
B) disinhibition.
C) the near-death experience.
D) heroin withdrawal.
Q3) Which of the following drugs is most likely to produce a euphoric high and feelings of social intimacy?
A) Seconal
B) opium
C) Ecstasy
D) marijuana
Q4) Brenda is 16-years-old and has experimented with several drugs.She has tried marijuana,alcohol,and cocaine.What are the biological,psychological,and social-cultural explanations for her experimentation?
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Chapter 10: Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) An African butterfly that is green in the summer turns brown in the fall thanks to a temperature-controlled genetic switch.This best illustrates that genes are A) dizygotic.
B) self-regulating.
C) epigenetic marks.
D) protein molecules.
Q2) The study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior is known as A) molecular genetics.
B) epigenetics.
C) behavior genetics.
D) genome research.
Q3) The biochemical units of heredity that make up the chromosomes are called A) genes.
B) embryos.
C) epigenetic molecules.
D) neurotransmitters.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evolutionary psychologists are most likely to be criticized for A) working backward to provide after-the-fact explanations of human mating preferences.
B) overemphasizing humans' capacity to learn and adapt to a variety of environments. C) underestimating gender differences in mate selection.
D) overestimating cultural differences in human sexual behaviors.
Q2) George and Sally,both in their 20s,have an exclusive sexual relationship.Research suggests that ________ is the one who is most likely to initiate more sexual activity and that ________ is the one who is most likely to think more about sex.
A) George;Sally
B) Sally;George
C) George;George
D) Sally;Sally
Q3) Charles Darwin advanced the principle of A) universal moral grammar.
B) social scripts.
C) sexual overperception bias.
D) natural selection.
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with the average man,the average woman experiences a greater risk of A) autism spectrum disorder.
B) color-deficient vision.
C) eating disorders.
D) antisocial personality disorder.
Q2) When Mr.Thompson lived overseas for a year,he was very surprised at how much respect he received from people simply because he was an older person.His sense of surprise suggests that he had NOT previously lived in a culture characterized by A) social diversity.
B) collectivism.
C) extraversion.
D) individualism.
Q3) Connie experienced her first menstrual period last week.This most clearly indicates that she has entered a developmental period known as A) androgyny.
B) spermarche.
C) gender typing.
D) puberty.
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14
Chapter 13: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) Madison drank contaminated water,which contained toxic molecules that blocked the expression of some of her genes.As a result,she is now highly allergic to certain foods.This best illustrates the impact of
A) digestive enzymes.
B) stress hormones.
C) epigenetic marks.
D) natural selection.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a major issue in developmental psychology?
A) nature and nurture
B) continuity and stages
C) predictability and unpredictability
D) stability and change
Q3) One of the most consistently damaging teratogens is A) blood.
B) oxygen.
C) testosterone.
D) alcohol.
Q4) Design an experiment to show how the process of habituation can help us to demonstrate human infants' capacities for perception,learning,and memory.
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Chapter 14: Hearing
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312 Verified Questions
312 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although 3-year-old Adam happily explores the attractive toys located in the dentist's waiting room,he periodically returns to his mother's side for brief moments.Adam most clearly displays signs of
A) secure attachment.
B) object permanence.
C) egocentrism.
D) conservation.
Q2) Which of the following factors contributes most positively to the development of secure attachment between human infants and their mothers?
A) egocentrism
B) responsive parenting
C) stranger anxiety
D) authoritarian discipline
Q3) From ages 3 to 6,your ability to control your attention and make plans developed rapidly thanks to rapid brain growth in the
A) temporal lobes.
B) frontal lobes.
C) occipital lobes.
D) parietal lobes.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sexual abuse of a very young child is so emotionally repulsive to most people that they immediately recognize it as shamefully immoral.This best illustrates that moral judgments may reflect
A) stranger anxiety.
B) delay of gratification.
C) affectively laden intuitions.
D) formal operations.
Q2) The corrupt behavior of many ordinary people who served as Nazi concentration camp guards best illustrates that immorality often results from A) social influence.
B) a pruning process.
C) abnormal cognitive development.
D) postconventional moral thinking.
Q3) The gap between adolescence and independence is referred to as A) young adulthood.
B) emerging adulthood.
C) late adolescence.
D) extended adolescence.
Q4) Explain the concept of social identity and provide an example.
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Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professor Kuilema compared the moral intuitions of one group of children,a second group of adolescents,and a third group of adults by assessing their reactions to a variety of moral dilemmas.Professor Kuilema conducted a ________ study.
A) longitudinal
B) postconventional
C) cross-sectional
D) concrete operational
Q2) Compared with teens and young adults,older adults have ________ friendships and experience ________ attachment anxiety.
A) more;less
B) fewer;more
C) more;more
D) fewer;less
Q3) The risk of developing a neurocognitive disorder in late adulthood is more than doubled by ________ in midlife.
A) upper respiratory flu
B) menopause
C) heavy smoking
D) breast cancer
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Those who feel loved and appreciated by their spouse perceive less threat in stressful marital interactions.This best illustrates the importance of
A) emotion.
B) subliminal stimulation.
C) priming.
D) sensory adaptation.
Q2) Three steps that are basic to all sensory systems include the ________ of information to the brain.
A) adaptation,context,and set
B) receiving,transforming,and delivering
C) priming,grouping,and masking
D) signal detection,transduction,and sensory adaptation
Q3) Hearing a sequence of sounds of different pitches is to ________ as recognizing the sound sequence as a familiar melody is to ________.
A) absolute threshold;difference threshold
B) sensory adaptation;signal detection
C) signal detection;sensory adaptation
D) sensation;perception
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19
Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A door casts an increasingly trapezoidal image on our retinas as it opens,yet we still perceive it as rectangular.This illustrates A) retinal disparity.
B) interposition.
C) shape constancy.
D) linear perspective.
Q2) Some stroke victims lose the capacity to perceive motion but retain the capacity to perceive shapes and colors.Others lose the capacity to perceive colors but retain the capacity to perceive movement and form.These peculiar visual disabilities best illustrate our normal capacity for A) perceptual adaptation.
B) parallel processing.
C) feature detection.
D) accommodation.
Q3) Which cells for visual processing are located closest to the back of the retina?
A) ganglion cells
B) bipolar cells
C) rods and cones
D) feature detectors
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why both top-down and bottom-up processing are emphasized by those who take a biopsychosocial approach to understanding pain and pain control.
Q2) The volley principle is particularly relevant to the ________ theory.
A) dissociation
B) place
C) gate-control
D) frequency
Q3) A cochlear implant converts sounds into A) decibels.
B) electrical signals.
C) air pressure changes.
D) fluid vibrations.
Q4) Frequency is to pitch as amplitude is to A) rhythm.
B) loudness.
C) olfaction.
D) wavelength.
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21
Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you have a "frightening experience" immediately after hearing a strange sound,your fear may be aroused when you hear that sound again.This best illustrates
A) generalization.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) classical conditioning.
D) operant behavior.
Q2) Pavlov noticed that dogs began salivating at the mere sight of the person who regularly brought food to them.For the dogs,the sight of this person was a(n)
A) spontaneous recovery.
B) unconditional stimulus.
C) secondary conditioner.
D) conditioned stimulus.
Q3) ________ is biologically adaptive because it helps humans and other animals prepare for good and bad events.
A) Behaviorism
B) Cognitive learning
C) Classical conditioning
D) Adaptability
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22
Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) An event or situation signaling that an operant response will be reinforced is called a(n)
A) shaping stimulus.
B) unconditioned stimulus.
C) primary reinforcer.
D) discriminative stimulus.
Q2) Four-year-old Della asks her mother for a special treat every time they go to the grocery store.At first her mother granted every request,but now she does so less consistently.Research suggests that Della will
A) soon give up asking for a treat entirely.
B) come to ask for a treat only occasionally.
C) continue to ask for a treat nearly every time she goes to the store.
D) ask for a treat every time her mother takes her out,even if they don't go to the grocery store.
Q3) An event that decreases the frequency of the behavior that it follows is a
A) negative reinforcer.
B) punishment.
C) conditioned stimulus.
D) secondary reinforcer.
Q4) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Evie saw that her classmates got the teacher's attention after asking questions in class,Evie started asking questions in class.This best illustrates the impact of A) a fixed-interval reinforcement schedule.
B) cognitive maps.
C) classical conditioning.
D) vicarious reinforcement.
Q2) When Julie saw her brother being praised for cleaning his bedroom,she increasingly engaged in cleaning her own bedroom.This best illustrates the impact of A) instinctive drift.
B) classical conditioning.
C) vicarious reinforcement.
D) intrinsic motivation.
Q3) Learning that occurs but is not apparent until there is an incentive to demonstrate it is called
A) associative learning.
B) operant conditioning.
C) latent learning.
D) shaping.
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24
Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Sample
Questions
Q1) Which of the following questions would best enable you to remember that you saw the word PEACH on today's test?
A) Does the word rhyme with teach?
B) Is the word italicized?
C) Does the word contain five letters?
D) Is the word a type of fruit?
Q2) Enhanced memory after retrieving rather than simply reading information is best demonstrated by
A) the self-reference effect.
B) automatic processing.
C) the testing effect.
D) chunking.
Q3) Many students review course material at various times during a semester so they will be prepared for the final exam.These students are especially likely to retain the information far into the future.This best illustrates the value of
A) distributed practice.
B) implicit memory.
C) procedural memory.
D) the self-reference effect.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) After long-term potentiation has occurred
A) sending neurons release their neurotransmitters more easily.
B) it takes longer to process new information.
C) a receiving neuron's receptor sites are reduced.
D) you more readily forget facts that you once knew.
Q2) Hotaka can vividly recall the devastating experience of barely surviving the tsunami that took the lives of many others.It is likely that the stress of that experience provoked the ________ to boost activity in the memory-forming areas of his brain.
A) hypothalamus
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) amygdala
Q3) Memories of newly learned ________ are most likely to be disrupted by damage to the right hippocampus.Memories of newly learned ________ are most likely to be disrupted by damage to the left hippocampus.
A) body coordination skills;classically conditioned fears
B) classically conditioned fears;body coordination skills
C) words;visual designs
D) visual designs;words
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychologists on both sides of the controversy regarding reports of repressed and recovered memories of childhood sexual abuse agree that
A) repression is the most common mechanism underlying the failure to recall early childhood sexual abuse.
B) when extraordinary means are used to recover a memory,there is the possibility that the recovered memory is false.
C) the more stressful an experience is,the more quickly it will be consciously forgotten.
D) professional therapists can reliably distinguish between their clients' true and false childhood memories.
Q2) Stressful life experiences such as being raped are NOT likely to be A) encoded.
B) repressed.
C) stored.
D) retrieved.
Q3) Considering what you learned about improving memory from the text,what can you do next or what can you change about the way you currently study that should improve your memory of the material being covered?
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Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professor Thompson's research focuses on how prototypes affect the speed at which we recognize and identify objects.Which specialty area does this research best represent?
A) personality psychology
B) cognitive psychology
C) biological psychology
D) developmental psychology
Q2) Thomas is extremely afraid of flying and would rather drive across country to visit his parents than take a commercial flight.Explain why.Give some possible reasons for Thomas' incorrect fear.
Q3) Heike's older brother has suffered from chronic depression for several years.Unfortunately,Heike has been incorrectly informed by her parents that there is a 40 percent chance she will also suffer from depression.Explain how the availability heuristic,framing,confirmation bias,and belief perseverance might lead Heike to conclude that she will definitely be a victim of a severe depressive disorder.
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Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Q1) Sounds that are not included in one's native language first begin to disappear from usage during the ________ stage of language development.
A) one-word
B) two-word
C) telegraphic
D) babbling
Q2) Lavonne was careful to avoid the use of dangling participles and run-on sentences in her essay because she did not want to lose points for faulty A) semantics.
B) phonemes.
C) morphemes.
D) syntax.
Q3) The smallest speech units that carry meaning are called A) phonemes.
B) morphemes.
C) syllables.
D) concepts.
Q4) Teo is an infant and has not yet learned language.Describe how he is likely to think.
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Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jill is great with animals.She cares for them deeply and seems to have a knack for interacting with them.Howard Gardner would most likely suggest that she is high in ________intelligence.
A) linguistic
B) bodily-kinesthetic
C) naturalist
D) existential
Q2) University students who focus on innovation and generating novel ideas in their studies rather than on simply meeting deadlines and securing good grades are especially likely to demonstrate
A) emotional intelligence.
B) creative intelligence.
C) practical intelligence.
D) existential intelligence.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an ability associated with emotional intelligence?
A) perceiving emotions
B) understanding emotions
C) controlling emotions
D) using emotions
Q4) Compare and contrast the theories of multiple intelligences.
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Binet used the term mental age to refer to A) the average chronological age of children who completed a particular grade in school.
B) the years of formal education successfully completed by a child.
C) the total number of items correctly answered on an intelligence test divided by the child's chronological age.
D) the chronological age that most typically corresponds to a given level of intelligence test performance.
Q2) Before publishing her test of musical aptitude,Professor Reed first administered the test to a representative sample of people.This was most clearly necessary for test A) standardization.
B) reliability.
C) predictive validity.
D) validity.
Q3) Intelligence tests were initially designed by Binet and Simon to assess A) academic aptitude.
B) achievement.
C) general intelligence.
D) natural ability.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professor Smith has been studying the development of moral reasoning in a group of people over the last 30 years.All of her participants were 1 year old when she began her study.She intends to hand off her study to a younger researcher in the department after she retires next year.Professor Smith is conducting a
A) fluid study.
B) longitudinal study.
C) cross-sectional study.
D) cohort study.
Q2) To qualify for the office manager's job,55-year-old Mariel must take a series of psychological tests.Her performance on the test of ________ is likely to be poorer than if she had taken it as a 25-year-old.
A) general knowledge
B) spelling
C) abstract reasoning
D) vocabulary
Q3) Imagine that you are a scientist who is examining how intelligence changes with age.Design both a cross-sectional and a longitudinal study to examine how intelligence changes from young to middle to late adulthood.What results would you expect from each type of study?
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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97 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sarah comes from a loving but poor family.Her family wants her to do well in school,and so has enrolled her in a program to boost her cognitive and social skills,called
A) Project Epigenetics.
B) Project Growth Mindset.
C) Project Head Start.
D) Project Polygenetics.
Q2) The heritability of intelligence refers to
A) the extent to which an individual's intelligence is attributable to genetic factors.
B) the proportion of variation in intelligence among individuals that is attributable to genetic variation.
C) the extent to which the distribution of intelligence scores of a group approximates a normal curve.
D) a general underlying intelligence factor that is measured by every task on an intelligence test.
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33
Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Q1) Robert was caught robbing a liquor store.Describe what incentives would drive Robert's bank-robbing behavior.How might this behavior be explained by arousal theory? Also,contrast the differences between incentives and arousal theory in this situation.
Q2) Aaron is motivated to engage in risky activities simply for the sake of the thrill they give him.His motivation is best explained by
A) arousal theory.
B) evolutionary theory.
C) drive-reduction theory.
D) instinct theory.
Q3) A(n)________ is a positive or negative environmental stimulus that motivates behavior.
A) instinct
B) incentive
C) drive
D) arousal
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ is the point at which your "weight thermostat" is supposedly set.When your body falls below this weight,increased hunger and a lowered metabolic rate may combine to restore the lost weight.
A) set point
B) basal metabolic rate
C) body mass index
D) obesity rate
Q2) Which of the following observations seems to support the idea of a settling point?
A) Although laboratory mice and rats will overeat if given a variety of foods to eat,animals in the wild will eat only enough to maintain a normal body weight.
B) Sustained changes in body weight can alter one's set point,and psychological factors also sometimes drive our feelings of hunger.
C) Even when people are given medications that boost brain levels of serotonin,their weight will gradually decrease with age.
D) The prevalence of obesity is just as great in developing countries as in North America.
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Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies find that around the time of ovulation,women have slightly higher sexual desire than usual due to a surge in the hormone ________ and a slightly higher surge in ________.
A) testosterone;estrogen
B) prolactin;estrogen
C) estradiol;prolactin
D) estradiol;testosterone
Q2) In the process of portraying women as hypersexualized,video games are most likely to promote
A) safe contraceptive use.
B) erotic plasticity.
C) the early sexualization of girls.
D) sexual abstinence.
Q3) Research on sex hormones and human sexual behavior indicates that
A) sexual desire rises slightly at ovulation among women with mates.
B) adult men who have been castrated show virtually no reduction in sex drive.
C) sexual interests are aroused by decreased testosterone levels in women and increased testosterone levels in men.
D) imprisoned male sex offenders typically experience lower-than-normal testosterone levels.
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Chapter 35: Hunger
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Sample Questions
Q1) Margo is out of shape and has set a goal for herself of working out three to five times a week.Which of the following is something that she should NOT do?
A) make a resolution to work out regularly
B) keep her goal to work out regularly to herself
C) monitor her own progress of working out regularly
D) create a plan to work out regularly
Q2) When asked to describe personal episodes that made them feel particularly bad about themselves,about four times in five,people describe a(n)
A) financial problem.
B) academic failure.
C) relationship difficulty.
D) physical illness.
Q3) Children who are neglected or who grow up in institutions without a sense of belonging are especially at risk for
A) developing chain migration.
B) becoming narcissistic.
C) becoming withdrawn and frightened.
D) developing autonomy.
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Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Sample Questions
Q1) The emotions of anger and fear involve similar A) subjective thoughts and experiences.
B) patterns of autonomic arousal.
C) facial expressions.
D) patterns of brain activity.
Q2) While walking through a darkened parking garage after class,Amber suddenly felt a tap on her shoulder,producing an intense feeling of fear.Before she turned around to see that it was her boyfriend,the unexpected sensory input had already been routed through her thalamus directly to her
A) hippocampus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cortex.
D) amygdala.
Q3) Who suggested that "we feel sorry because we cry ...afraid because we tremble"?
A) Stanley Schachter
B) William James
C) Walter Cannon
D) Richard Lazarus
Q4) Describe how polygraphs are intended to measure lying,and discuss their accuracy.
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Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 1968,North Korea published photos of American officers they had captured from a U.S.navy ship.Three men in the photo most clearly conveyed an emotional expression of defiance toward their captors by means of A) the facial feedback effect.
B) spontaneous remission.
C) natural mimicry.
D) gestures.
Q2) The view that expressing a specific emotion,especially facially,causes the subjective experience of that emotion is called
A) the behavior feedback effect.
B) spontaneous expression.
C) the facial feedback effect.
D) egocentrism.
Q3) Who suggested that a sneer retains elements of baring one's teeth so as to threaten predators?
A) Paul Ekman
B) William James
C) James Laird
D) Charles Darwin
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following children is most likely to calm down emotionally shortly after venting his anger?
A) Jack,who attacks his intimidating older brother for spitting at him.
B) Jeremiah,who attacks his irritating younger brother for spitting at him.
C) Jed,who attacks his friendly older brother for no good reason.
D) Jason,who attacks his playful younger brother for no good reason.
Q2) Jed wants his roommate Dante to help him study for a physics test.Dante is most likely to want to help after he has
A) unsuccessfully tried to repair a flat tire on his car.
B) received an A on his psychology test.
C) heard that a friend was involved in an automobile accident.
D) been caught cheating on a math test.
Q3) Carroll Izard identified 10 basic emotions that appear to be present in infancy.Identify those emotions,and discuss Izard's view that all other emotions are combinations of these.
Q4) Caroll Izard identified
A) 10 distinct and basic emotions.
B) the ability to detect nonverbal threats.
C) the ability to detect lies.
D) cultural variations in the expression of emotions.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Q1) Andrew believes that the rapid spread of malignant tumors throughout his body resulted from the stress of losing his wife during the past year.It would also make most sense for Andrew to attribute the speedy progression of his cancer to his
A) reduced cortisol levels.
B) elevated oxytocin levels.
C) reduced lymphocyte levels.
D) elevated NK cell count.
Q2) One option for dealing with stress,which is more common among women than men,is
A) withdrawal.
B) the fight-or-flight reaction.
C) the tend-and-befriend response.
D) the general adaptation syndrome.
Q3) There's a dramatic increase in the likelihood of a person becoming ill or dying the year following the death of a spouse.Describe some of the specific biological and psychological processes that may contribute to this effect.
Q4) Persistent stress can influence not only our biological functioning but also our behavioral lifestyles.Describe how both of these factors help to account for the link between prolonged stress and an increased risk of coronary heart disease.
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Religiously active people have ________ socially supportive relationships and ________ lifestyles than those who are not religiously active.
A) fewer;less healthy
B) fewer;healthier
C) more;less healthy
D) more;healthier
Q2) Aerobic exercise has been most closely linked to a decrease in A) emotion-focused coping.
B) the brain's serotonin activity.
C) the experience of anxiety.
D) an external locus of control.
Q3) A classmate argues that "the best way to handle stress is to work harder and meet life's challenges head-on." Evaluate both the strengths and the weaknesses of your classmate's position in light of the distinction between problem-focused coping and emotion-focused coping.
Q4) Use your understanding of our biological responses to stressful situations to explain why relaxation and mindfulness meditation are associated with reduced stress and better health.
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42
Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Juanita is a new second-grade teacher who believes that when correcting the behavior of a child you should explain why the behavior is wrong and how to change the behavior.Her teaching mentor believes that focusing on discipline and correcting each mistake harshly will help avoid behavior problems in the future.Juanita is now using the same harsh discipline.Based on the findings of Zimbardo's prison study,Juanita's change in attitude about her job illustrates the impact of A) cognitive dissonance.
B) peripheral route persuasion.
C) attributions.
D) role playing on attitudes.
Q2) Jackson agreed to Stanley's suggestion that they shoplift some video games.Later in the week,Jackson agreed to go along with Stanley's suggestion to steal a neighbor's expensive racing bike.Reflecting on what he had done,Jackson was surprised by his willingness to comply with Stanley's request.Jackson's experience illustrates A) cognitive dissonance.
B) the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
C) the fundamental attribution error.
D) central route persuasion.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Accepting others' opinions about reality is to ________ as the desire to gain approval is to ________.
A) deindividuation;social facilitation
B) social facilitation;deindividuation
C) informational social influence;normative social influence
D) normative social influence;informational social influence
Q2) In a study of social loafing,blindfolded students were asked to pull on a rope as hard as they could.The students tugged hardest when they thought
A) three others were pulling with them.
B) three others were pulling against them.
C) no others were pulling with them.
D) no one was monitoring how hard they pulled.
Q3) Most people are likely to be surprised by the results of Milgram's initial obedience experiment because
A) the "learners" made so few learning errors under stressful circumstances.
B) the "teachers" actually enjoyed shocking another person.
C) the "teachers" were more obedient than most people would have predicted.
D) the "learners" obediently accepted painful shocks without any protest.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which areas of the brain do researchers believe may be responsible for violent behavior because it is/they are damaged,immature,or disconnected?
A) temporal lobes
B) frontal lobes
C) hippocampus
D) hypothalamus
Q2) A store owner charges Black customers more than Hispanic customers for the very same merchandise.The owner is most clearly engaging in
A) unconscious patronization.
B) stereotyping.
C) scapegoating.
D) discrimination.
Q3) A soldier who intentionally kills a dangerous enemy combatant most clearly illustrates
A) hindsight bias.
B) the just-world phenomenon.
C) scapegoating.
D) aggression.
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Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sherif's study of conflict in a Boy Scout camp indicated that conflict between two groups of boys could be reduced most effectively by
A) bringing the members of both groups into close contact.
B) having one group make conciliatory gestures to the other group.
C) allowing leaders of the two groups to communicate.
D) exposing the groups to tasks that required their joint cooperation.
Q2) As compared with Western cultures,non-Western cultures have
A) lower divorce rates and consider passionate love as more important for marriage.
B) higher divorce rates and consider passionate love as less important for marriage.
C) lower divorce rates and consider passionate love as less important for marriage.
D) higher divorce rates and consider passionate love as more important for marriage.
Q3) The two-factor theory of emotion has been used to explain
A) passionate love.
B) companionate love.
C) the mere exposure effect.
D) altruism.
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Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eight-year-old Jack plays almost exclusively with the other boys at his grade school.Jack's behavior suggests that he is in the ________ stage of psychosexual development.
A) phallic
B) genital
C) latency
D) oral
Q2) Which of the following is a scientific shortcoming of Freud's ideas?
A) the use of limited objective observations
B) the inability to offer testable hypotheses
C) both the use of limited objective observations and the inability to offer testable hypotheses
D) neither the use of limited objective observations nor the inability to offer testable hypotheses
Q3) A boy's sexual desires for his mother and feelings of hostility toward his father constitute what Freud called
A) reaction formation.
B) the Oedipus complex.
C) regression.
D) an oral fixation.
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Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humanistic psychology has been most closely associated with an emphasis on the importance of
A) empirically derived tests.
B) the Big Five factors.
C) a positive self-concept.
D) empiricism.
Q2) Uma is completing a questionnaire about what she would like to be and what she currently is.As she completes the items,she realizes that she has already completed most of the main goals she set for herself.Carl Rogers would say that the ratings of her ideal and actual self are ________ and that she has a ________ self-concept.
A) successively close;positive
B) successively different;positive
C) successively close;negative
D) successively different;negative
Q3) The Big Five is the term currently used to refer to basic A) statistical procedures.
B) personality theories.
C) trait dimensions.
D) sensory modalities.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Narcissistic people have been observed to take a(n)________ approach to their romantic relationships.
A) empathic
B) introverted
C) game-playing
D) self-sacrificing
Q2) Compared with Westernized people,people in Asia are more likely to value
A) defensive self-esteem.
B) self-serving bias.
C) optimism.
D) modesty.
Q3) Our genetically influenced traits evoke certain responses in others,which lead us to develop specific social-interaction skills.This best illustrates the impact of A) free association.
B) the spotlight effect.
C) unconditional positive regard.
D) gene-environment interactions.
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Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) One diagnostic change introduced by the DSM-5 is that prolonged grief following a loved one's death can now be diagnosed as
A) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) panic disorder.
D) a depressive disorder.
Q2) ADHD is diagnosed ________ often in girls than in boys,and ________ percent of 4- to 17-year-olds receive the diagnosis.
A) more;9
B) less;5
C) more;18
D) less;11
Q3) After conducting 90-minute interviews of thousands of people,the World Health Organization estimated the number of prior-year mental disorders in 28 countries.Which country had the highest rate of diagnosed psychological disorders?
A) United Kingdom
B) Japan
C) United States
D) France
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has identified 17 gene variations that are associated with A) anxiety disorder symptoms.
B) manic symptoms.
C) depressive symptoms.
D) free-floating anxiety.
Q2) Obsessive thoughts typically ________ anxiety and compulsive behaviors typically ________ anxiety.
A) increase;increase
B) decrease;decrease
C) increase;decrease
D) decrease;increase
Q3) Support for the genetic basis for the development of OCD comes from A) field studies.
B) inner psychological dynamics.
C) twin studies.
D) cultural studies.
Q4) Janice has an irrational fear of spiders and will do everything she can to avoid them.Identify the DSM's diagnostic criteria for Janice's fear,and explain why.
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Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hopeless and passive resignation humans and other animals learn when they experience uncontrollable painful events is called
A) a self-defeating belief.
B) a negative explanatory style.
C) learned helplessness.
D) rumination.
Q2) A therapist believes that Chet is chronically depressed because he takes too little credit for his many achievements and assumes too much responsibility for his few failures.The therapist's interpretation reflects a ________ perspective.
A) conditioning
B) social-cognitive
C) epigenetic
D) biological
Q3) An overabundance of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine is most likely to be associated with
A) a manic episode.
B) major depression.
C) persistent depressive disorder.
D) rumination.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among schizophrenia patients,the fluid-filled ventricles of the brain are abnormally
A) large,and the thalamus is abnormally small.
B) small,and the thalamus is abnormally large.
C) small,and the thalamus is abnormally small.
D) large,and the thalamus is abnormally large.
Q2) People with schizophrenia who experience hallucinations and delusions and speak in word salad are demonstrating
A) the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
B) catatonia.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) the negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
Q3) Which of the following has been pinpointed as an early warning sign for the subsequent onset of schizophrenia?
A) periodic panic attacks
B) sudden weight increase
C) violent behavior
D) poor muscle coordination
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Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A schizotypal personality disorder is most likely to be characterized by A) emotionless disengagement.
B) shallow,attention-getting emotional displays.
C) a sense of self-importance.
D) a fear of social rejection.
Q2) Personality disorders are best described as A) symptoms of distress that are not caused by biological abnormalities. B) disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of self-identity.
C) patterns of delusional and disorganized thoughts and feelings.
D) inflexible and enduring behavior patterns that impair social functioning.
Q3) The most controversial disorder involves extensive memory disruptions along with the presence of two or more distinct identities.This disorder is called A) a fugue state.
B) schizotypal personality disorder.
C) borderline personality disorder.
D) dissociative identity disorder.
Q4) Describe the characteristics of dissociative identity disorder,and discuss the factors that have been implicated in its development.Why are many mental health professionals skeptical about the validity of this disorder?
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Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Q1) In treating alcohol use disorder,therapists have clients consume alcohol that contains a nausea-producing drug.This technique is known as
A) operant conditioning.
B) systematic desensitization.
C) aversive conditioning.
D) transference.
Q2) If therapy clients repeatedly imbibe an alcoholic drink mixed with a nausea-producing drug,an alcoholic drink without the drug is likely to become a(n)________ for feelings of nausea.
A) US
B) UR
C) CS
D) CR
Q3) Which form of therapy has been criticized for offering interpretations that cannot be proven or disproven?
A) client-centered therapy
B) psychoanalysis
C) cognitive-behavioral therapy
D) systematic desensitization
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Page 55
Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) Light exposure therapy sparks activity in a brain region that influences A) the body's arousal.
B) self-awareness.
C) effort justification.
D) meta-analysis.
Q2) Glenda put a lot of time and work into trying to achieve positive cognitive and behavioral changes through psychotherapy.Which of the following factors is most likely to lead her to exaggerate the effectiveness of her psychotherapy?
A) the comorbidity of disorders
B) meta-analysis
C) randomized clinical trials
D) effort justification
Q3) Dr.Zander applies psychological techniques to treat various psychological disorders.Dr.Zander is using
A) psychoanalysis.
B) insight therapy.
C) psychotherapy.
D) psychodynamic therapy.
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56
Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Melissa suffers from auditory hallucinations and falsely believes that her former high school teachers are trying to kill her.Melissa's symptoms are most likely to be relieved by ________ drugs.
A) antidepressant
B) antianxiety
C) mood-stabilizing
D) antipsychotic
Q2) Which of the following individuals is most likely to benefit from lithium?
A) Olivia,who experiences delusions and auditory hallucinations
B) Landon,who experiences a generalized sense of apprehension and anxiety
C) Miranda,who experiences periods of extreme sadness followed by episodes of optimistic overexcitement
D) Ivan,who experiences sudden brief episodes of intense dread and panic
Q3) Malik has been diagnosed with schizophrenia.To reduce the chance of developing _____,his psychiatrist is likely to prescribe a newer-generation antipsychotic drug such as _____.
A) tardive dyskinesia;Thorazine
B) Parkinson's disease;Ativan
C) tardive dyskinesia;olanzapine
D) bipolar disorder;lithium
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Chapter 56: Appendix
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Sample Questions
Q1) Developing assessment tools for selecting and placing employees is of most direct relevance to
A) clinical psychology.
B) organizational psychology.
C) human factors psychology.
D) personnel psychology.
Q2) A psychological consultant develops a test that assesses the extent to which applicants for company sales positions communicate in an honest and animated manner.The consultant's work best illustrates that of a(n)
A) clinical psychologist.
B) human factors psychologist.
C) organizational psychologist.
D) personnel psychologist.
Q3) Social and workplace interactions increasingly require web-based online communication.Describe how our advancing communication technologies might provide new career opportunities for human factors psychologists.
Q4) Compare and contrast the unstructured and structured interview,focusing on the interviewer's ability in each case to predict employee performance.
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Page 58