Psychology for Beginners Midterm Exam - 14792 Verified Questions

Psychology for Beginners Midterm

Exam

Course Introduction

Psychology for Beginners introduces students to the fundamental concepts, theories, and methods that form the basis of the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. The course covers major psychological perspectives, explores the biological and social influences on behavior, and examines topics such as learning, memory, motivation, development, personality, and mental health. Through interactive discussions and practical examples, students develop a foundational understanding of how psychologists investigate questions about the mind and apply findings to real-world problems. This course requires no prior knowledge of psychology and is designed to engage and inform those new to the subject.

Recommended Textbook

Psychology Modules for Active Learning 13th Edition by Dennis Coon

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82 Chapters

14792 Verified Questions

14792 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Jasmine is reading the section of her module assignment entitled "Stages of Sleep." She thinks to herself,"Is there more than one stage of sleep?" "What are the stages of sleep?" "How do they differ?" Jasmine is performing which step in the SQ4R method?

A)question

B)sequence

C)survey

D)reflect

Answer: A

Q2) Anna is taking a multiple choice test.On several of the items,she is unsure of the answers.If Anna decides to change her answers on these items,she will most likely _______ points.

Answer: gain

Q3) Which of the following does NOT characterize the goals set by reflective,active learners?

A)specific and clear-cut

B)broad-based and flexible

C)set for the day,week,and semester

D)measurable

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: How to Study Psychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the LISAN method,phrases that instructors use,such as "there are three reasons why," "the most important step," and "on the contrary" would be examples of ______.

Answer: signal words

Q2) Up-to-date links for the web resources listed at the end of each module in the psychology textbook can be found at

A)PsycINFO.

B)the APA website.

C)Psychology CourseMate.

D)PsycPORT.

Answer: C

Q3) Marc tends to work only under pressure,skips classes,and gives false reasons for his late work.He often feels frustrated and ashamed of his last-minute efforts.According to your textbook,Marc most likely has a tendency to A)procrastinate.

B)be a self-regulated learner.

C)use spaced practice rather than massed practice.

D)overlearn the class material to the point of confusion.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Introducing Psychology: Psychology, Critical Thinking, and Science

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following descriptions of commonsense is FALSE?

A)"Strike while the iron is hot" and "Haste makes waste" would both be considered commonsense statements.

B)Commonsense statements tend to work best after the fact.

C)Commonsense requires planned and systematic observations.

D)Commonsense often provides vague and inconsistent pieces of information.

Answer: C

Q2) An empirical investigation structured to answer questions about the world in a systematic and intersubjective fashion is known as a(n) ______.

Answer: scientific observation

Q3) For most psychologists,control refers to A)punishment of unwanted responses.

B)legal limitations on the use of conditioning principles.

C)techniques for reducing personal freedom of choice.

D)altering conditions that influence behavior.

Answer: D

Q4) Rather than focusing solely on the overall amount of evidence,one should,when critically thinking,give greater weight to the ______ of the evidence.

Answer: quality

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Introducing Psychology: Psychology Then and Now

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Q1) According to your textbook,which of the following is NOT one of the three broad perspectives that shape modern psychology?

A)biological

B)therapeutic

C)psychological

D)sociocultural

Q2) Ami is investigating how people come to know the world through their visual ability.She is also studying how people interpret this visual information in order to recognize faces.Ami is a ______ psychologist.

A)comparative

B)developmental

C)sensation and perception

D)learning

Q3) Psychologists who specialize in the treatment of human emotional problems are called ______ psychologists.

A)psychiatric or neuro-

B)personality or developmental

C)clinical or counseling

D)comparative or experimental

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Chapter 5: Introducing Psychology: the Psychology Experiment

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Q1) One of the advantages of the experimental method is that

A)clear cause-and-effect relationships can be identified.

B)it allows information about large numbers of people to be gathered.

C)it allows the investigation of rare or unusual problems or events.

D)all types of behavior are easily studied in the laboratory.

Q2) Random assignment of subjects to groups in an experiment is used to reduce the effects of

A)the independent variable.

B)the dependent variable.

C)experimenter bias.

D)extraneous variables.

Q3) To equalize the intelligence of members of the experimental and control group in an experiment,you could use

A)extraneous control.

B)random assignment.

C)independent control.

D)subject replication.

Q4) The use of chance,such as flipping a coin,to assign subjects to the experimental and control groups is called

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Chapter 6: Introducing Psychology: Non-Experimental

Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a correlational relationship is perfect,the coefficient would A)be zero.

B)be a +1.00 or a -1.00.

C)always be a negative correlation.

D)always be a positive correlation.

Q2) Decreases in one measure are matched by decreases in the other measure in a A)nonexistent relationship.

B)positive correlation.

C)negative correlation.

D)zero correlation.

Q3) Decreases in one measure are matched by increases in the other measure in a A)nonexistent relationship.

B)positive correlation.

C)negative correlation.

D)zero correlation.

Q4) When more detail about mental disorders,such as depression or psychosis,is required,the naturalistic observation is the preferred method. A)True

B)False

8

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Chapter 7: Psychology in Action: Thinking Critically About the Media

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Q1) Regarding the use of examples,anecdotes,single cases,and testimonials in advertising,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)They should be viewed as valid indicators of the authenticity of the product or service.

B)They all create a courtesy bias within the customer.

C)They are all potentially deceptive because individual cases tell us nothing about what is true in general.

D)They are all invalid due to the Barnum effect.

Q2) The modern media,and especially the Internet,function as a giant "echo chamber" awash with rumors,hoaxes,half­ truths,and urban legends like the one about giant alligators living in New York sewers.Therefore,as a critical thinker,you should

A)be skeptical.

B)be wary of overly complex explanations.

C)remember that truth is often stranger than fiction.

D)remember that numerous postings of information on the Internet are required to establish proof.

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Chapter 8: Brain and Behavior: Neurons and the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Nico and Brooke are teenagers who had a large portion of their brains removed as infants.Today they are functioning well because over the years their brains have compensated for their losses through a process called A)lateralization.

B)saltatory connection.

C)deep lesioning.

D)neuroplasticity.

Q2) Brain chemicals,such as enkephalins and endorphins,which regulate the activity of neurons are called

Q3) When people suffer from chronic traumatic encephalopathy,their prospects for recovery are not good because the brain damage from these head traumas can be extensive and often triggers

A)multiple sclerosis.

B)increased neuroplasticity.

C)constraint-induced movement disorder.

D)a subsequent disease process that continues to damage the brain.

Q4) The cell body of a neuron is also called the _______.

Q5) The brain and spinal cord make up the _______ nervous system.

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Chapter 9: Brain and Behavior: Brain Research

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Sample Questions

Q1) Max,a seventy-year-old man has recently been exhibiting a somewhat awkward gait and poor eye-hand coordination as well as slight changes to his personality.His family encourages him to see a doctor,who determines that Max has had a slight stroke.Max's family had observed

A)neural inductions.

B)psychotic indicators.

C)confabulations.

D)neurological soft signs.

Q2) According to Haier's PET scan research,persons who do well on difficult reasoning tests have brains that

A)are the most active and consume the most glucose.

B)consume the least glucose.

C)have the largest corpus callosums.

D)are the easiest to study using EEGs.

Q3) Research using PET scans of human brains indicates that

A)most people use only ten percent of their brain capacity.

B)higher scoring test takers use more glucose during problem-solving.

C)all parts of the brain are active during waking hours.

D)all of these statements are true.

Q4) Describe and compare the two main structural imaging techniques.

Page 11

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Chapter 10: Brain and Behavior: Hemispheres and Lobes of the Cortex

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best describes how the right hemisphere deals with information?

A)processes information sequentially

B)focuses on the small details

C)explores the overall pattern and general connections

D)coordinates the order and sequencing of complex movements

Q2) Areas devoted to recognizing faces and the emotions they convey lie in association areas in the

A)limbic system.

B)reticular activating system.

C)occipital and frontal lobes.

D)temporal and parietal lobes.

Q3) Regarding visual images,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Visual images are accurately represented in miniature in the occipital lobes like a "little TV screen" in your brain.

B)Visual images create patterns of activity in nerve cells in the occipital lobes which we interpret as images.

C)Visual images are the exact opposite in color and form as real world images.

D)Visual images are processed primarily by the parietal lobes.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Brain and Behavior: Sub-Cortex and Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which brain area within the forebrain has a major role in producing emotions and motivating behaviors,including rage,fear,sexual response,and laughter?

A)somatosensory cortex

B)endocrine system

C)limbic system

D)reticular activating system

Q2) Of the brain parts listed below,which two would you NOT want to damage and why? hippocampus,Wernicke's area,reticular formation,medulla,Broca's area

Q3) An oversecretion of the corticoids can cause a condition in which a woman may grow a beard or a man's voice may become so low it is difficult to understand.This condition is known as A)acromegaly.

B)virilism.

C)cretinism.

D)agnosia.

Q4) The gland that releases melatonin in response to daily variations in light is the _______ gland.

Q5) The glandular secretions that affect bodily functions or behavior are collectively known as _______.

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Chapter 12: Psychology in Action: Handedness

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Sample Questions

Q1) A combination of preference for using hand,foot,eye,and ear is referred to as A)sidedness.

B)neuroplasticity.

C)hemispherization.

D)preferential lateralization.

Q2) In all,what percent of the population uses the left hemisphere for language?

A)50 percent

B)70 percent

C)80 percent

D)90 percent

Q3) Right-handed individuals who write with a straight hand and lefties who write with a hooked hand are usually

A)more intelligent than those who do not use this hand position.

B)less intelligent than those who do not use this hand position.

C)left-brain dominant for language.

D)right-brain dominant for language.

Q4) If you gesture more with your left hand,you probably process language in your _______ hemisphere.

Q5) The risk for developing more immune-related diseases is highest in individuals with _______ handedness.

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Chapter 13: Human Development: Heredity and Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss temperament,including the characteristics of the easy,difficult,and slow-to-warm-up child and how parenting can affect each of these temperaments.

Q2) At any stage of life,the three factors that combine to determine a person's developmental level are

A)heredity,cognitive style,and social grouping.

B)heredity,environment,and cognitive style.

C)environment,cognitive style,and the person's own behavior.

D)heredity,environment,and the person's own behavior.

Q3) Regarding teratogens and birth defects,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Radiation,lead,and pesticides are considered teratogens.

B)Cystic fibrosis,PKU,and hemophilia are considered teratogens.

C)Pregnant women do have direct control over many teratogens.

D)Repeated heavy drinking during pregnancy is the most common cause of birth defects in the United States.

Q4) When a gene is recessive,it must be paired with a second gene of the same type before its effect will be expressed.

A)True

B)False

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Human Development: Emotional and Social Development in Childhood

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Sample Questions

Q1) The identifiable patterns of parental caretaking and interaction with children are referred to as

A)parental temperaments.

B)parental styles.

C)socialization methods.

D)discipline methods.

Q2) Bryan has always been somewhat skeptical about the idea of true love.He finds it difficult to trust his partner in a romantic relationship and gets nervous anytime someone gets too close emotionally.Regarding adult attachment styles,Bryan most likely has a(n) _______ style.

Q3) A close emotional bond that infants form with parents,caregivers,or others is called A)separation anxiety.

B)social referencing.

C)emotional attachment.

D)imprinting.

Q4) By the age of eight to 12 months,infants smile more frequently when another person is nearby,which is called a(n) __________ smile.

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Chapter 15: Human Development: Language and Cognitive Development in Childhood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain how parents and teachers can utilize Vygotisky's ideas to help children become more skillful learners.

Q2) When intuitive thought persists into later childhood and adulthood,this thinking is referred to as

A)convergent.

B)deductive.

C)superstitious.

D)transformational.

Q3) A pattern of speech used when talking to infants that is marked by a higher-pitched voice;short,simple sentences;repetition;slower speech;and exaggerated voice inflections is known as _______.

Q4) Two­year­old Mark is looking for his toy.His mother finds one of his cars and hands it to Mark.He says,"Not ball," meaning the car is not what he wanted.According to Noam Chomsky,Mark is exhibiting which pattern of speech?

A)identification

B)command

C)negation

D)possession

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Q5) The false-belief task is used to assess whether a child has developed _______.

Chapter 16: Human Development: Adolescence and

Adulthood

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Sample Questions

Q1) The top scorers on intellectual tests who were over 65 were people who

A)consistently got eight hours of sleep.

B)continued to work.

C)had never drank alcohol or smoked.

D)exercised three times a week.

Q2) A person with a terminal illness is in great pain.She is pleading for death.Should extraordinary medical efforts be made to keep her alive? A friend of yours desperately needs to pass a test and asks you to help him cheat.Will you do it? These are questions of conscience,or

A)suppositions.

B)moral questions.

C)syllogisms.

D)psychosocial dilemmas.

Q3) Adolescence is the same as the developmental period known as puberty.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Girls who exhibit early physical maturation have a poorer self-image and are less popular during elementary school.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Psychology in Action: Well-Being and Happiness

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Sample Questions

Q1) The psychologist who developed the "Satisfaction with Life Scale" to study happiness and feelings of well-being was

Q2) Regarding their personality,happier people tend to be

A)extroverted,optimistic,and worry-free.

B)introverted,careful,and responsible.

C)spontaneous,impulsive,and carefree.

D)independent,aggressive,and charming.

Q3) People tend to be happy when they

A)have a close relationship with their parents and children.

B)have a large circle of diverse friendships.

C)are meeting their personal goals.

D)are recognized for their accomplishments by their peers.

Q4) Mary is very satisfied with her life.She describes her life as "a sunny day with only an occasional dark cloud." Mary is exhibiting

A)self-efficacy.

B)hypomania.

C)subjective well-being.

D)emotional intelligence.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Sensation and Perception: Sensory Processes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Our sensory systems act as data reduction systems.This means that they

A)can change one form of energy to another.

B)transmit information to the brain in the form of codes.

C)select and analyze information and send only the most important data to the brain.

D)are only sensitive to a small range of sensations that will require additional interpretation by the brain.

Q2) Advertisers would be very happy if they heard you humming their jingle around your house because you have fallen prey to an attention-getting device called A)brightness.

B)motion.

C)contrast.

D)repetition.

Q3) Your eyes transduce only a tiny fraction of the entire range of electromagnetic energies,which we call the A)perceptual limit.

B)visible spectrum.

C)biological transduction range.

D)spectral analysis limitation.

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Chapter 19: Sensation and Perception: Vision

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Sample Questions

Q1) Marian is 44 years old and is getting glasses for the first time because she cannot read the small print in the telephone book like she could when she was younger.Marian has been diagnosed with presbyopia.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The function of the lens is to

A)locate an image.

B)focus an image on the retina.

C)combine the location and projection on the blind spot.

D)project an image on the cornea.

Q3) Regarding the incidence of red-green color weakness,what percent of Caucasian females have this weakness?

A)fewer than one percent

B)eight percent

C)15 percent

D)22 percent

Q4) The photoreceptors that number five million in each eye and work best in bright light are the _____.

Q5) The most common test for color blindness or color weakness is the _____ test.

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Chapter 20: Sensation and Perception: The Other Senses

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Q1) Regarding the experience of pain,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Acupuncture has been shown to cure diseases and produce long-term pain relief in 80 percent of the people tested.

B)Phantom limb pain occurs because the neuromatrix interprets other sensory experiences as pain from the missing limb.

C)Acupuncture needles activate the large pain fibers,which close the spinal gate directly.

D)Phantom limb pain is best explained by the gate control theory.

Q2) After riding in the back seat of a car,making rapid turns along a winding road,you experience dizziness and nausea because

A)information from the semicircular canals and the rest of your body is inconsistent.

B)poisons build up in the system which cause vomiting to eject them.

C)auditory and visual stimuli combine too rapidly and produce a sensory overload.

D)kinesthetic receptors have been stimulated too vigorously and eventually shutdown.

Q3) The stapes is attached to a membrane on the cochlea called the _______.

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Chapter 21: Sensation and Perception: Perceptual

Processes

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Q1) At the political convention,the people are crowded together on the convention floor.Although the large group is a mixture of different gender,ages,and races with many different outfits,you easily group these people together based on the sign being held up in the middle of each group that bears their state's name.Your grouping was the result of which perceptual principle?

A)contiguity

B)common region

C)figure-ground

D)continuation

Q2) A hallucination is

A)another name for an illusion.

B)a distorted or misleading perception of stimuli that actually exist.

C)a perception of objects or events that have no external reality.

D)characterized by none of these.

Q3) Regarding accommodation,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Accommodation is a monocular depth cue.

B)Beyond four feet,accommodation has limited value.

C)Accommodation involves the bending of the lens to focus on nearby objects.

D)Accommodation is an important depth cue in driving a car or catching a ball.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Sensation and Perception: Perception and Objectivity

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Q1) One's perceptual accuracy can be enhanced through the creation of perceptional sets.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An eyewitness's confidence is a good predictor that the testimony will be accurate.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A decrease in perceptual responding to a predictable and unchanging stimulus is known as

A)habituation.

B)dishabituation.

C)perseveration.

D)a perceptual set.

Q4) Some research indicates that,compared to witnesses of crimes,victims of crimes are

A)more accurate in their accounts of the event.

B)about equally accurate in their accounts of the event.

C)less accurate in their accounts of the event.

D)less accurate in their accounts when the crime is a violent one.

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Psychology in Action: Extrasensory Perception

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Q1) You are watching as a participant attempts to control the roll of the dice with his mind.This purported ability involving "mind over matter" is called _______.

Q2) The purported ability to perceive events or gain information in ways that appear unaffected by distance or normal physical barriers is called

A)clairvoyance.

B)psychokinesis.

C)telepathy.

D)precognition.

Q3) Modern parapsychologists are now well aware of the need to use an experimental arrangement in which the participants and the experimenters who have direct contact with the participants are unaware of whether the participants are in the experimental or control group.This experimental arrangement is known as a(n) _______ experiment.

Q4) Explain how modern parapsychologists have changed their procedures in order to make their experiments more valid and reliable and what effects these new procedures have had on their results,and describe what it would take to scientifically demonstrate the existence of ESP.

Q5) The purported ability to predict future events is called _______.

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Consciousness: States of Consciousness

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Q1) One's color vision,hearing sensitivity,perception of illusions,and time sense can be altered through A)sensory adaptation.

B)lucid dreaming.

C)hypnosis.

D)dishabituation.

Q2) Everyone experiences some altered state of consciousness every day.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The low levels of awareness associated with strokes and other forms of brain damage are examples of A)preconsciousness.

B)altered states of consciousness.

C)sensory gating.

D)simulated states of consciousness.

Q4) A test in which a person is given a series of suggestions,such as being told that his or her "left arm is becoming more and more rigid and that it will not bend," is most likely taking the Stanford _______ Scale.

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Chapter 25: Consciousness: Sleep and Dreams

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Q1) Jimmy is about to eat supper when suddenly he has an irresistible,sudden attack of sleepiness,which is accompanied by several minutes of muscle paralysis.When Jimmy awakens,he finds that he has fallen face first into his large plate of spaghetti.Jimmy's "nap attack" is characteristic of which sleep disorder?

A)insomnia

B)narcolepsy

C)sleep apnea

D)night terrors

Q2) Most symptoms of sleep deprivation

A)are reversed by a single night's rest.

B)require a long period of bed rest for recovery.

C)are irreversible.

D)can be prevented by consuming caffeine.

Q3) Which sleep researcher awakened volunteers each time they entered REM sleep and discovered the effect known as REM rebound?.

A)Stephen LaBerge

B)Ernest Hartmann

C)William Dement

D)Robert McCarley

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Consciousness: Psychoactive Drugs

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Q1) Binge drinking is defined as downing three drinks in a short period of time for men and two drinks for women.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Higher doses of GHB can result in any of the following EXCEPT

A)violent,aggressive behaviors toward others.

B)the inhibition of the gag reflex so that persons choke to death on their own vomit.

C)loss of consciousness.

D)coma or death.

Q3) According to the research on nicotine and cigarette smoking,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Users of smokeless tobacco run a higher risk of developing oral cancer.

B)The health risks of smoking combine to reduce the life expectancy of the average smoker by 10 to 15 years.

C)In very large doses,nicotine may cause convulsions,respiratory failure,and death.

D)Smoking is the third leading cause of preventable death worldwide after obesity and alcoholism.

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Chapter 27: Psychology in Action: Exploring and Using Dreams

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Q1) If you were to follow Ernest Hartmann's approach to understanding your dreams,you would focus on

A)how the dream processes of displacement and condensation are being utilized.

B)the characters,their actions,and the setting of the dream.

C)the unusual dream elements and the underlying emotion of the dream.

D)the elements of a dream which replay a day's events in a person's life.

Q2) Remembering them and writing them down,looking for messages they contain,and becoming acquainted with one's individual symbol system are all part of understanding

A)sensory restriction imagery.

B)revelations gained from mindfulness meditation.

C)understanding recovered memories from hypnosis.

D)understanding one's dreams.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the dream processes described by Freud?

A)condensation

B)illumination

C)displacement

D)symbolization

Q4) According to Freud,the mental filters that disguise the meanings of dreams are called _______.

Page 29

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Chapter 28: Conditioning and Learning: Types of Learning

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Q1) Learning that takes place through an association of stimuli is called A)latent learning.

B)observational learning.

C)classical conditioning.

D)operant conditioning.

Q2) The long-term effects of experiencing violent media include all of the following EXCEPT

A)imitation.

B)catharsis of violent thoughts.

C)vicarious traumatization.

D)desensitization to violence.

Q3) Violent video games tend to make aggressive behavior more likely because A)repeated exposure to violence sensitizes individuals,making them more likely to react negatively to violence.

B)players may learn to be aggressive in real life by practicing violence against other people within the games.

C)the games arouse an innate aggressive instinct.

D)the games serve as a cathartic outlet for pent-up anger.

Q4) Classical and operant conditioning are the two types of _______ learning.

Q5) Learning is a relatively permanent change in behavior due to _______.

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Chapter 29: Conditioning and Learning: Classical Conditioning

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Q1) Mike and Jeff are brothers who have just moved with their parents into a beautiful old house.Mike soon discovers that if he flushes the toilet while Jeff is taking a shower,it will cause the water in the shower to become scalding hot.Naturally,Jeff screams as his reflexes cause him to leap backward in pain.After Mike has repeated this procedure several times,Jeff has begun to twitch involuntarily every time he hears any toilet flush.In this example,the sound of the flushing toilet would be the

A)conditioned response (CR).

B)conditioned stimulus (CS).

C)unconditioned response (UR).

D)unconditioned stimulus (US).

Q2) Many people start tensing up during a horror movie whenever they hear a familiar tune because this tune is always associated with a character being in danger.This situation illustrates

A)how shaping occurs.

B)the development of a conditioned emotional response.

C)the use of negative reinforcers.

D)how desensitization occurs.

Q3) In Pavlov's experiment,the dog's salivation to the food is referred to as the _______ response.

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Chapter 30: Conditioning and Learning: Operant

Conditioning

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Q1) Drivers tend to demonstrate safer driving behaviors when a police car is present.The fact that drivers do this implies that the police car has become a(n)

A)reinforcer.

B)discriminative stimulus.

C)punisher.

D)unconditioned stimulus.

Q2) When a reward or other pleasant event follows a response,which of the following is being used?

A)bribe

B)positive reinforcement

C)negative reinforcement

D)conditioned stimulus

Q3) B.F.Skinner is known for studying

A)classical conditioning.

B)vicarious conditioning.

C)latent learning.

D)operant conditioning.

Q4) The weakening or disappearance of a nonreinforced operant response is called operant _______.

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Chapter 31: Conditioning and Learning: Reinforcement and Punishment

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Q1) Jai touched a light socket and received a shock.Jai will probably not touch a light socket again because he received

A)mild punishment.

B)severe punishment.

C)negative reinforcement.

D)response cost.

Q2) Which of the following behaviors is the LEAST likely to reoccur?

A)Jordan grabs a fragile dish and is scolded by his aunt.

B)Sara grabs a branch of a rose bush and hurts her hand.

C)Patti climbs on top of the table,and her mother puts her in time out.

D)Cara grabs her brother's toy,and her father slaps her hand.

Q3) Which schedule of reinforcement may have long periods of nonreward that make it harder to discriminate between periods of reinforcement and extinction?

A)secondary

B)partial

C)continuous

D)conditional

Q4) Describe three problems that occur as punishment increases in severity.

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Q5) Time-out is an example of negative punishment,which is also called _______.

Chapter 32: Psychology in Action: Behavioral

Self-Management

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Q1) When April is stressed and wants to relax,she has always reached for a glass of wine.However,she wants to break this use of alcohol as a means of relaxation,so she learns stress management techniques and now uses them when she feels stressed.April is using which strategy for breaking a bad habit?

A)breaking up response chains

B)cues and antecedents

C)alternate responses

D)extinction

Q2) If you scramble the sequence of events that precede an undesirable response,you are

A)extinguishing primary reinforcers.

B)utilizing cues and antecedents.

C)programming alternate responses.

D)breaking up response chains.

Q3) A "behavioral contract" is a(n)

A)system of self-management.

B)new type of service contract.

C)use of higher order conditioning.

D)illustration of the Premack principle.

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Chapter 33: Memory: Memory Systems

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Q1) To be stored for a long time,information must pass through all three stages of which model of memory?

A)Atkinson-Schiffrin

B)Hobson-McCarley

C)Melzack-Wall

D)Darley­Latané

Q2) Which part of long-term memory contains factual information,such as the definition of psychology as well as the personal information regarding yourself?

A)episodic memory

B)semantic memory

C)declarative memory

D)procedural memory

Q3) In which memory system will information be quickly "dumped" unless the process of maintenance rehearsal takes place?

A)sensory memory

B)short-term memory

C)semantic memory

D)procedural memory

Q4) How does "memory jamming" work in advertising?

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Chapter 34: Memory: Forgetting

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Q1) If a memory is particularly emotional,as are many flashbulb memories,the process of consolidation is intensified by heightened activity in the A)pons.

B)limbic system.

C)reticular formation.

D)prefrontal cortex.

Q2) Tony,a high school football player,takes a hard hit at the beginning of the third quarter and momentarily loses consciousness.Tony cannot remember the half­time show that took place before he received the "hard hit," but otherwise he appears fine.Tony has suffered A)the false memory syndrome.

B)retrograde amnesia.

C)anterograde amnesia.

D)redintegration.

Q3) You are on a game show and are asked to name the people shown on various U.S.currency.If you are like most people,you may not remember this information because you never learned it,a type of forgetting known as

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Chapter 35: Memory: Exceptional Memory and Improving Memory

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Q1) When breaking long lists of information into sub-lists,it is best to make the sub-lists the shortest

A)in the beginning.

B)in the middle.

C)at the very end.

D)in none of these secions since all sub-lists should contain the same number of items.

Q2) Natasha is using an effective technique that will help her summarize the material she is studying,will force her to practice retrieving information,and will provide her with feedback on what she knows.Natasha is using A)rote rehearsal.

B)massed practice.

C)recitation.

D)progressive-part learning.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT considered an encoding strategy to improve memory?

A)elaborative processing

B)spaced practice

C)cognitive interview

D)overlearning

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Chapter 36: Psychology in Action: Mnemonics

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Q1) An excellent technique to use when you want to work "backward" from an English word to a foreign vocabulary word is the _______ method.

A)mental walk

B)keyword

C)acrostic

D)story-chain

Q2) In research studies,rote learning has been shown to be superior to the use of mnemonics in learning technical terms.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Provide an example of how each of the following mnemonic methods could be used to remember a psychology concept or term: (a)the keyword method, (b)forming a story or a chain, (c)taking a mental walk,and (d)using a system.

Q4) If a familiar word or image is used to link two other words or items,you are using the type of mnemonic known as the keyword method.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 37: Cognition and Intelligence: Imagery, Concepts, and Language

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Q1) If your images cross normal sense barriers,such as spiced chicken tasting "pointy" to you or pain being sensed as the color orange,then you have a rare form of imagery known as __________.

Q2) Connotative meaning can be measured with the

A)availability heuristic.

B)semantic differential.

C)disjunctive algorithm.

D)linguistic conceptualization.

Q3) In which programs are native speakers and children with limited English skills taught part of the day in English and part in a second language?

A)English immersion programs

B)English as a second language programs

C)two-way bilingual education programs

D)This describes all of these bilingual programs.

Q4) The either/or quality of disjunctive concepts makes them

A)hard to learn.

B)easy to learn.

C)a relational rule.

D)a prototypical rule.

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Chapter 38: Cognition and Intelligence: Problem Solving

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Q1) According to Psychologist Janet Davidson,a person who is able to bring together seemingly unrelated bits of information to solve a problem is good at

A)selective attention.

B)selective encoding.

C)selective combination.

D)selective comparison.

Q2) According to Psychologist Janet Davidson,a person who is able to evaluate new problems by contrasting them with old information or with problems already solved is good at

A)selective attention.

B)selective encoding.

C)selective combination.

D)selective comparison.

Q3) A detailed,practical,and workable solution to a problem is called a _______ solution.

A)heuristic

B)general

C)functional

D)specific

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Chapter 39: Cognition and Intelligence: Creative Thinking and Intuition

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Q1) Thinking in which a general rule or principle is gathered from a series of specific examples,for instance,inferring the laws of gravity by observing many falling objects is called _______ thinking.

Q2) If asked,"Which is more probable? A.The New York Yankees will not be in the lead after the first half of the baseball season but will win their division.B.The New York Yankees will not be in the lead after the first half of the baseball season." Most people would answer A,although A is less likely to be true than B.According to Tversky and Kahneman,such faulty conclusions are based on

A)the framing effect.

B)the representativeness heuristic.

C)convergent thinking.

D)divergent thinking.

Q3) If one ignores the base rate when making a decision,it usually leads to

A)a valid syllogism.

B)mental flexibility.

C)a correct intuition.

D)an error in judgment.

Q4) The stage of creative thought during which problem-solving proceeds at a subconscious level is the _______ stage.

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Chapter 40: Cognition and Intelligence: Intelligence

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Q1) When the Stanford-Binet was first used,the intelligence quotient could be determined by the

A)mental age being divided by the chronological age and multipled by 100.

B)mental age being multipled by the chronological age and divided by 100.

C)chronological age being divided by 100 and multiplied by the mental age.

D)chronological age being divided by the mental age and multipled by 100.

Q2) Mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100 is the formula used to calculate a person's

A)deviation intelligence.

B)cognitive index.

C)metacognitive quotient.

D)intelligence quotient.

Q3) On which section of the Stanford­Binet (SB5)would you be asked questions,such as "Why is yeast added to bread dough?" and "What does cryptic mean?"

A)divergent thinking section

B)quantitative reasoning section

C)knowledge section

D)working memory section

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Chapter 41: Psychology in Action: Enhancing Creativity

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Q1) Mary has to write a major term paper in psychology.So,she begins by writing as many ideas as she can think of regarding the topics that interest her most in psychology.She lets her imagination run wild,seeking unusual,remote,and wild ideas.She will modify and combine these ideas freely and will not criticize any of the ideas until she has elaborated or improved on the most promising ideas.Mary is using which of the following techniques in choosing a topic for her term paper?

A)convergent thinking

B)brainstorming

C)algorithmic reasoning

D)"thin­slicing"

Q2) Csikszentmihalyi states that we should "make a commitment to doing things well,seek challenges,follow what sparks our interests,take time for thinking and relaxing,and start doing more of what we really enjoy and less of what we dislike." If we follow these recommendations,he believed we will become

A)self-actualized.

B)more able to dig deeper into logic.

C)more creative.

D)more independent and less controlled by others.

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Chapter 42: Motivation and Emotion: Overview of Motives and Emotions

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Q1) One might expect an ambassador forced to return on short notice to his or her native country to perform poorly because

A)minimal needs for intellectual stimulation have not been met.

B)optimal needs for intellectual stimulation have not been met.

C)low levels of anxiety have risen to moderate levels.

D)circadian rhythms have been disrupted.

Q2) The little girl across the street loves to play basketball in her driveway,and you see her out shooting hoops almost every day (she's really good at it,too!).But for the past couple of weeks,you notice that she hasn't been out at all.Talking to a neighbor one day,you learn that the little girl's father wanted her to play basketball someday at the collegiate level,and so he began paying her $5.00 an hour for her basketball playing.The father thought that this would give the little girl some incentive to practice and get really good at the game,but instead the little girl lost interest in basketball entirely.It is obvious that

A)extrinsic rewards undermined spontaneous interest.

B)intrinsic rewards undermined spontaneous interest.

C)the little girl's choices reflect a growing maturity.

D)the little girl was intrinsically motivated to stop playing basketball.

Q3) The "target" of one's motivated behavior is known as a(n) _______.

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Chapter 43: Motivation and Emotion: Motivation in Detail

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Q1) Like hunger and sex,thirst is regulated by which part of the brain?

A)cerebellum

B)medulla

C)hypothalamus

D)reticular activating system

Q2) Learned motives which are acquired in complex ways,such as cultural conditioning,and include the desire for status,money,success,achievement,and dominance are called _______ motives.

Q3) The critical proportion of body fat below which a person would feel hungry most of the time is called the

A)obesity limit.

B)set point.

C)critical weight.

D)weight standard.

Q4) To enhance your self-confidence,you should make comparisons when you first acquire a skill so you will know how much you need to improve regarding this skill.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Taste aversions usually develop through _______ conditioning.

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Chapter 44: Motivation and Emotion: Emotion in Detail

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Q1) Recordings of brain activity show that it is impossible to experience positive and negative emotions at the same time.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following directly measures brain activity,thus bypassing the traditional approach of measuring indirect signs of emotional arousal?

A)GSR detectors

B)fMRI

C)polygraph

D)the kinesic approach

Q3) If an event is judged to be threatening,you will feel anxiety.If a situation looks dire and you fear the worst but yearn for the best,you feel will hope.If you see something another person has and wish it was yours,you will feel envy.These feelings of anxiety,hope,and envy are due to your

A)emotional appraisals.

B)unconscious attributions.

C)cognitive distinctions.

D)facial feedback.

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Chapter 45: Psychology in Action: Emotional Intelligence

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Q1) Regarding emotional intelligence,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Avoiding and suppressing negative emotions is a part of emotional intelligence.

B)Cultivating positive emotions is a part of emotional intelligence.

C)Positive emotions tend to broaden one's focus,while negative emotions tend to narrow one's focus.

D)Strengths we possess,such as kindness,originality,humor,optimism,and generosity,are natural buffers against misfortune and can help people live more positive,genuinely happy lives.

Q2) Emotions that are associated with actions that helped our ancestors save their lives,but can which tend to narrow our focus during decision-making are our _______ emotions.

Q3) Positive emotions tend to

A)create dangerous situations.

B)broaden our focus.

C)narrow our focus.

D)make us content with the status quo.

Q4) In making choices,sensible but emotionally empty decisions tend to be made if one uses extremely _______ approaches.

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Chapter 46: Human Sexuality: Sexual Development and Orientation

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Q1) One's biological classification as female or male is referred to as one's. A)sex.

B)gender.

C)androgyny.

D)genetic gender potential.

Q2) Discuss the research findings regarding the causes of one's sexual orientation,especially research related to the causes for homosexuality.

Q3) Regarding genetic sex,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Genetic sex is determined at the instant of conception and stays the same throughout life.

B)Males have XX chromosome pair,while females have an XY.

C)Persons with Turner's syndrome have only one X and no additional X or Y chromsomes.

D)Persons with Klinefelter's syndrome have an XXY chromosome combination.

Q4) Primary sexual characteristics would include which of the following?

A)breast development

B)the growth of body hair

C)the vagina in females and the penis in males

D)all of these

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Chapter 47: Human Sexuality: Gender Development,

Androgyny, and Gender Variance

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Q1) According to the supporters of the biological biasing effect,women,as a group,score higher than men on tests requiring

A)quick responding.

B)spatial tasks and math.

C)manual dexterity.

D)language and rote learning.

Q2) People who are androgynous tend to be more satisfied with their lives.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following would be considered "neutral" traits on the Bem Sex Role Inventory?

A)truthful and friendly

B)self-reliant and loyal

C)athletic and decisive

D)cheerful and child-like

Q4) Parents in Western cultures,like the United States,tend to encourage boys to engage in expressive behaviors and encourage girls to engage in instrumental behaviors.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 48: Human Sexuality: Sexual Behavior, Response, and Attitudes

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Q1) Harry loves to go into a crowded elevator and intentionally "rub" up against the women in the elevator.If they protest,he just tells them it was an "accident" because it is so crowded there.Harry's paraphilic disorder is called

A)frotteuristic disorder.

B)exhibitionistic disorder.

C)pedophilic disorder.

D)voyeuristic disorder.

Q2) In lower animals who are sexually inexperienced,castration tends to A)abolish sexual activity in both sexes.

B)slightly reduce sexual activity in both sexes.

C)produce variable responses in females,while abolishing the male sex drive.

D)produce variable responses in males,while abolishing the female sex drive.

Q3) Although newer multidrug therapies have greatly improved the odds of survival,which sexually transmitted disease cannot be cured with the person eventuallly dying from multiple infections?

A)hepatitis B

B)HIV/AIDS

C)syphilis

D)human papillomavirus (HPV)

Page 50

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Chapter 49: Psychology in Action: Sexual Problems

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Q1) The most prevalent sexual complaint among women is

A)hypoactive desire disorder.

B)female sexual arousal disorder.

C)female orgasmic disorder.

D)vaginismus.

Q2) Regarding mind-reading in a relationship,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Mind-reading involves telling a partner what he or she is thinking rather than asking.

B)Mind­reading usually involves playing the "devil's advocate" in disagreements with one's partner.

C)Mind-reading can be done in a hostile manner that undermines communication.

D)Mind-reading is not the same as trying to see things through your partner's eyes.

Q3) Dyspareunia and vaginismus are examples of which type of disorder?

A)desire disorders

B)sexual arousal disorders

C)orgasm disorders

D)sexual pain disorders

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Chapter 50: Personality: Overview of Personality

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Q1) Behaviorists are to the external environment as humanists are to A)stress.

B)personal growth.

C)trait analysis.

D)internal conflicts.

Q2) In cultures like the United States,self-esteem is based on A)a person's outstanding performance. B)interdependence.

C)collectivism.

D)group membership.

Q3) An individual's unique and enduring patterns of thinking,feeling,and behaving are called A)personality. B)character. C)somatotype. D)phenotype.

Q4) Once personality traits are identified,they can be used to predict future behavior. A)True B)False

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Chapter 51: Personality: Trait Theories

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Q1) Your roommate tends to be hot-tempered and irritable.The early Greeks would have said that your roommate has which temperament?

A)melancholic

B)choleric

C)sanguine

D)phlegmatic

Q2) Regarding his college work,Toby tends to be disorganized,is frequently late to class,and often fails to turn in his assignments.He would most likely score low on which dimension of the Big Five personality model?

A)neuroticism

B)conscientiousness

C)agreeableness

D)openness to experience

Q3) According to Gordon Allport,the personality traits that define a particular person's unique qualities are termed __________ traits.

A)common

B)surface

C)source

D)individual

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Chapter 52: Personality: Psychoanalytic and Humanistic

Theories

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Q1) Which of the following aspects of Freud's theory have been challenged by new research?

A)his idea of unconscious processes and the role they play in shaping human behavior

B)his proposition that development proceeds through a series of stages

C)his idea that the first years of life help shape adult personality

D)his portrayal of the elementary school years as free from sexuality and unimportant for personality development

Q2) Freud's belief that women do not develop as strong a conscience as men is best understood as a reflection of

A)women's less aggressive natures.

B)the male-dominated times in which Freud lived.

C)how males and females become orally fixated.

D)organismic valuing.

Q3) Humanistic theorists hold a negative,pessimistic view of our human nature.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Threats of punishment from the superego cause _______ anxiety.

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Chapter 53: Personality: Behavioral and Social Learning

Theories

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Q1) Sudden murderers tend to be overcontrolled,kill in frenzied attacks,and often have amnesia after the incident.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If Sakita finds a lost wallet and returns it,money intact,to its rightful owner,then behaviorists would say that Sakita has a cardinal trait of honesty.

A)True

B)False

Q3) External circumstances influence the expression of a personality trait,according to

A)behavioral genetics determinants theory.

B)behavioral factor analysis.

C)trait-situation interaction.

D)psychodynamic theory.

Q4) What do psychologists mean by the term "trait-situation interaction"?

A)Situations change traits.

B)Situations create new traits.

C)Traits dominate situations.

D)Situations affect how traits are exhibited.

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Chapter 54: Psychology in Action: Understanding Shyness

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Q1) A proficiency in interacting with others is referred to as having A)authenticity.

B)public self-consciousness.

C)self-efficacy.

D)social skills.

Q2) Describe three ways that a person can reduce his or her shyness.

Q3) The acute awareness of oneself as a social object is referred to as A)private self-consciousness.

B)public self-consciousness.

C)generalized anxiety.

D)a social phobia.

Q4) Which of the following would be a productive belief to help reduce shyness?

A)"Wait around long enough at social gatherings,and someone will come up and start a conversation with me."

B)"People who are popular are just lucky when it comes to being invited to social events or asked out."

C)"If someone doesn't seem to like me right away,realize that they never will like me,so move on."

D)"I can't wait until I'm completely relaxed or comfortable before taking a social risk."

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Chapter 55: Health, Stress, and Coping: Health Psychology

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Q1) Regarding lifestyle and health,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Small risks can add up,dramatically raising the chance of illness.

B)Most infectious diseases are not linked to behavioral risks.

C)Pneumonia occurs at high rates in people who have cancer,heart disease,lung disease,or liver disease.

D)Those people who overeat usually do not get enough exercise.

Q2) When Casey first had an increased work load at his job and school,he had headaches,an upset stomach,and was fatigued all the time.Although little has changed at school or at his job,Casey now says he feels fine and has more energy.Casey is exhibiting

A)a Type A personality.

B)ambivalence due to the approach-avoidance conflict.

C)the stage of resistance of the general adaptation syndrome.

D)a classic projection reaction.

Q3) If their spouse quits smoking,what percent of people are more likely to quit smoking?

A)90 percent

B)72 percent

C)67 percent

D)36 percent

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Page 57

Chapter 56: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress, Frustration, and Conflict

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Q1) If you dropped a class because you failed a couple of tests,you would be exhibiting the response to frustration called A)escape.

B)displacement.

C)persistence.

D)scapegoating.

Q2) Regarding conflict,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Whether or not a person is experiencing a conflict must be defined based on that person's needs and values.

B)When faced with a double avoidance conflict,not choosing between the alternatives may be impossible or equally undesirable.

C)Freezing and leaving the field are two reactions to an approach-approach conflict.

D)The ambivalence of approach-avoidance conflicts is usually translated into a partial approach.

Q3) A specific condition or event in the environment that challenges or threatens a person is called a(n) _______.

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Chapter 57: Health, Stress, and Coping: Defenses, Helplessness, and Depression

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Q1) The psychiatrist who first identified many of the defense mechanisms and assumed these mechanisms operated unconsciously was _______.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a good way for college students to combat depression?

A)If you are lacking in skills to be successful in college,ask for help in getting these skills.

B)View positive events as stable and continuing.

C)Write down one's self­critical thoughts and then write a rational answer to each.

D)Try to sleep more hours in order to relax and alleviate the depression.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the conditions that indicate depression?

A)having an intense focus,being detail-oriented,and making quick decisions

B)persistent sad,anxious or "empty" feelings

C)feelings of guilt,worthlessness,and/or helplessness

D)loss of interest in activities or hobbies once pleasurable,including sex

Q4) People who experience the horror of terrorist attacks at a distance,such as viewing it on television,cannot really be traumatized by these events.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 58: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress and Health

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Q1) According to Friedman and Rosenman,which of the following believe that with enough effort they can overcome any obstacle,and they "push" themselves accordingly?

A)Type A personalities

B)Type B personalities

C)individuals with acculturative stress

D)individuals with hypochondria

Q2) A person who is unusually resistant to the effects of stress would be described by psychologists as

A)a hardy personality.

B)detached.

C)vulnerable.

D)a Type C personality.

Q3) According to Redford Williams,hostility is likely to be reduced through which of the following suggestions?

A)Stop mistrusting the motives of others.

B)Find ways to reduce how often you feel irritated and angry.

C)Learn to be kinder and more considerate.

D)All of these are good suggestions for reducing hostility.

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Chapter 59: Psychology in Action: Stress Management

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Q1) Regarding social support,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Sharing positive events with others tends to amplify these emotions and increase social support.

B)Support from family and friends serves as a buffer to cushion the impact of stressful events.

C)People with close,supportive relationships have better immune responses and better health.

D)Men are just as likely as women to seek support when stressed and to nurture others.

Q2) Several studies have found that students who write about their upsetting experiences,thoughts,and feelings

A)are better able to cope with stress.

B)tend to become hypochondriacs.

C)get poorer grades because of obsessing about their fears.

D)tend to become depressed.

Q3) The tension-release method is another name for the procedure known as guided imagery.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 60: Psychological Disorders: Normality and Psychopathology

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Q1) Which of the following are deeply ingrained,unhealthy behavior patterns that usually appear in adolescence and continue through much of adult life and include paranoid,narcissistic,dependent,and other types?

A)mood disorders

B)psychotic disorders

C)personality disorders

D)dissociative disorders

Q2) Although her family is unaware of her chronic feelings of hopelessness and despair,Carmen is very unhappy.Thus,she would be exhibiting psychopathology based on

A)statistical abnormality.

B)social nonconformity.

C)subjective discomfort.

D)cultural relativity.

Q3) Regarding culture-bound syndromes,most cultures have a need to label and categorize _______ behavior.

A)outstanding

B)environmentally-caused

C)inherited

D)disturbed

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Chapter 61: Psychological Disorders: Psychosis, Delusional Disorders,

and Schizophrenia

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Q1) When the children of schizophrenic parents are raised away from their chaotic home environments,these children

A)do not develop schizophrenia.

B)are significantly less likely to develop the more severe types of schizophrenia.

C)are less likely to develop psychosis but still exhibit some neurotic tendencies.

D)are still more likely to become psychotic.

Q2) Disturbed verbal communication is

A)a sign that a disorder is anxiety-based rather than psychotic in nature.

B)not a defining characteristic of psychotic disorders.

C)rare in psychotic disorders but is only mildly disturbing when it occurs.

D)almost always a symptom of psychotic disorders.

Q3) Which neurotransmitter tends to influence brain activity in areas that control emotions and sensory information and may explain some of the symptoms seen in schizophrenia?

A)acetylcholine

B)glutamate

C)melatonin

D)schizotoxin

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Chapter 62: Psychological Disorders: Mood Disorders

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Q1) The risk of postpartum depression is increased by all of the following EXCEPT

A)the mother experiencing stress and anxiety before birth.

B)the mother having negative attitudes toward child rearing.

C)a poor marital relationship and lack of support from the father.

D)the mother having increased estrogen levels after giving birth.

Q2) Most of the time Gayle feels extremely sad,worthless,fatigued,and empty.However,at times she feels unusually good,cheerful,and very energetic.During these brief "up" periods,she usually talks too much,interrupts conversations,and just manages to irritate everyone around her.Gayle appears to have _______ disorder.

A)bipolar I

B)bipolar II

C)somatic symptom with conversion

D)dissociative identity

Q3) If one identical twin is depressed,the other has a 97 percent chance of suffering depression,too.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Researchers believe that the main reason that women are 50 percent more likely to become depressed than men is _______ conditions.

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Chapter 63: Psychological Disorders: Anxiety-Based

Disorders and Personality Disorders

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Q1) If Joseph experiences very little emotion and has difficulty forming close personal relationships with others,he might be described as having a schizoid personality disorder.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Trenton was diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome.This means that he

A)tends to fake his own medical problems to gain attention.

B)tends to fake the medical problems of someone in his care in order to gain attention.

C)has severe emotional conflicts that produce symptoms that resemble a physical disability.

D)has frequent episodes of depersonalization with accompanying amnesia.

Q3) Allison is afraid of having a panic attack in a public place;therefore,she has refused to leave her home for the last three years unless a family member accompanies her.Allison has which disorder in addition to her panic attacks?

A)generalized anxiety disorder

B)somatic symptom disorder

C)acute stress disorder

D)agoraphobia

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Chapter 64: Psychology in Action: Suicide

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Q1) After her long-time boyfriend "dumped" her for another girl,Ana became enraged and only thought of revenge.Although Ana had been an excellent student,she no longer seemed to take interest in her studies and told her friends that it didn't matter whether she took the college entrance exam or not.She wouldn't go out with her friends anymore or even respond to her best friends' texts.Her parents said she just stayed in her room and did not seem to have any purpose in life anymore.These factors were warning signs for

A)the emergence of a delusional disorder.

B)the development of a dissociative identity disorder.

C)chronic hypomania.

D)a suicide attempt.

Q2) Which of the following was NOT listed as a warning sign that the risk of suicide is very high?

A)feelings of anger and hostility that are turned inward

B)an extremely negative self-image and severe feelings of hopelessness

C)situations that seem intolerable,such as divorce,rejection,and bereavement

D)being overly confident,narcissistic,and boastful

Q3) Males complete more suicides than women because they use more lethal means,such as gun,while women are more likely to attempt suicide through a(n)

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Chapter 65: Therapies: Treating Psychological Distress

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Q1) Therapy conducted over the telephone or the Internet would be referred to as _______ therapy.

Q2) Therapists seek to restore or promote

A)the capacity to forgive oneself for mistakes.

B)adaptive coping skills.

C)interpersonal communication skills.

D)all of these.

Q3) Moreno believed that through psychodrama people

A)are able to challenge irrational beliefs.

B)gain insight that will transfer to real-life situations.

C)learn self-reinforcement techniques.

D)try out many different roles to discover their true identities.

Q4) The goal of psychotherapy is to

A)undo a person's past so that these events will cease to cause emotional harm to the person.

B)bring about positive changes in personality,behavior,or personal adjustment.

C)treat mental disorders using psychiatric drugs and other physical approaches.

D)help a person to develop ego defenses that can be used to resolve emotional conflicts.

Q5) The first true psychotherapy was _______.

Page 67

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Chapter 66: Therapies: Humanistic and Cognitive Therapies

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Q1) According to Aaron Beck,which of the following underlies depression?

A)unconscious motives

B)unrealistic goals

C)irrational fears

D)negative,self-defeating thoughts

Q2) Gamblers who believe in a "run of luck," "winning streaks," and "the dice being hot" are exhibiting which cognitive distortion?

A)the gambler's fallacy

B)selective memory

C)attribution errors

D)probability biases

Q3) Cognitive therapy has been used as a remedy for many problems,but it has been especially successful in treating

A)depression.

B)delusional disorders.

C)schizophrenia.

D)depersonalization.

Q4) Describe the humanistic therapies of existential therapy,including logotherapy and Gestalt therapy,and explain how each differs from client-centered therapy.

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Chapter 67: Therapies: Behavior Therapies

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Q1) If you set your clock 10 minutes fast,it may be easier to leave the house on time in the morning since your departure is based on the time shown on the clock even though you know it is fast.This illustrates the operant conditioning principle known as _______.

Q2) Michael's therapist is helping Michael to discover what led to his fear of closed spaces so that by understanding his condition he can decrease his fear of small spaces.Abby's therapist is trying to help Abby to alleviate her fear of small spaces by gradually exposing her to smaller and smaller spaces.Regarding the type of therapist,Michael's therapist is a(n)

A)behavior therapist,while Abby's therapist is an insight therapist.

B)insight therapist,while Abby's therapist is a behavior therapist.

C)cognitive therapist,while Abby's therapist is a psychoanalyst.

D)psychoanalyst,while Abby's therapist is a cognitive therapist.

Q3) Aversion therapy for the control of alcoholism has made use of

A)response-contingent shocks.

B)a hierarchy of fear stimuli.

C)tokens and other symbolic rewards.

D)reciprocal deinhibition.

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Chapter 68: Therapies: Medical Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the major advantages of antipsychotic drugs?

A)Antipsychotic drugs have tranquilizing effects and reduce hallucinations and delusions.

B)Antipsychotic drugs are the primary mode of treatment for schizophrenia.

C)Antipsychotic drugs typically cause only minor side effects.

D)Antipsychotic drugs have shortened hospital stays.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a major tranquilizer?

A)Haldol

B)Clozaril

C)Thorazine

D)Elavil

Q3) The procedure known as transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)has been used to study brain function and to successfully treat

A)the delusions that accompany schizophrenia and delusional disorders.

B)obsessive-compulsive disorder and compulsive gambling.

C)bipolar disorder and borderline personality disorder.

D)dissociative disorders and post-traumatic stress disorder.

Q4) Skilled management of a psychological emergency is known as _______.

Q5) Major tranquilizers are also referred to as _______ drugs.

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Chapter 69: Psychology in Action: Self-Management and Seeking Professional Help

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a danger signal in psychotherapy?

A)The therapist makes sexual advances toward the client.

B)The therapist makes consistent attempts to establish rapport with the client.

C)The therapist talks repeatedly about his or her own problems.

D)The therapist tells the client not discuss therapy with anyone else.

Q2) Although Jesse would not be considered an alcoholic,he wishes to reduce the number of beers he drinks to a couple a week.So,Jesse makes out a set of cards that will help him to vividly imagine himself becoming an alcoholic.He will take out these cards and picture this disturbing scene several times a day.To break his drinking habit,Jesse is using

A)stimulus substitution.

B)thought control.

C)covert sensitization.

D)thought stopping.

Q3) A behavior modification procedure that assists an individual in suppressing upsetting mental images and internal "talk" is called

A)desensitization.

B)covert sensitization.

C)thought stopping.

D)operant suppression.

Page 71

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Chapter 70: Social Psychology: Social Behavior and Cognition

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Q1) Although there are often large differences between attitudes and behavior,barriers to actions typically fall when a person

A)has a long-standing habit.

B)holds an attitude with conviction.

C)knows that others disagree with his or her position.

D)is faced with immediate consequences for his or her attitudes.

Q2) You tell yourself that you were late starting your psychology project because of the demands of your other courses and your job,but your roommate was late because he is a procrastinator.You are displaying

A)an actor-observer bias.

B)perceptual discrimination.

C)groupthink.

D)social stereotyping.

Q3) When members of a group show more mutual affection and when their behavior tends to be more closely coordinated,the members are demonstrating A)group structure.

B)group cohesiveness.

C)groupthink.

D)group compliance.

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Chapter 71: Social Psychology: Social Influence

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Q1) If you initially agree to put a small sign in your window,later you are more likely to allow a larger,uglier sign in your yard.This course of events exemplifies

A)obedience to an authority.

B)lowball technique.

C)door-in-the-face effect.

D)foot-in-the-door effect.

Q2) Regarding cult conversion,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)In recruiting new members,cults use a powerful blend of guilt,manipulation,isolation,deception,fear,and escalating commitment.

B)Cults employ high-pressure indoctrination techniques not unlike those used in brainwashing.

C)Potential recruits are initially "love bombed" with intense displays of affection and understanding.

D)Cult leaders encourage their followers to question their beliefs and to reach their own conclusions about how to live.

Q3) In Milgram's follow­up experiments,he tried various ways to reduce obedience.Describe each strategy and how effective it was in reducing obedience.

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Chapter 72: Social Psychology: Pro-Social Behavior

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Q1) Homogamy is the term used to describe the A)civil union of a homosexual couple.

B)similarity of identical twins.

C)evolutionary origins of the human behavior patterns.

D)tendency we have to marry someone who is similar to us.

Q2) Regarding David Buss's theory of mating preferences,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Women choose partners based on whether the partner will stay with them and provide resources for their children.

B)Women tend to look for youth and health in a prospective mate as signs of suitability for reproduction.

C)Males' emphasis on their mates' sexual fidelity is based on concerns about the paternity of the offspring.

D)Buss believed that mating preferences evolved in response to the differing reproductive challenges faced by men and women.

Q3) Explain the four decision points that people must pass through before giving help,and describe two factors that discourage people from providing help and four factors that would encourage people to provide help.

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Chapter 73: Social Psychology: Antisocial Behavior

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Q1) Some researchers believe that prejudice can be traced to a general personality pattern known as the _______ personality.

A)intolerant

B)authoritarian

C)Type A

D)antisocial

Q2) Regarding statistics on the aggressiveness of the culture in the United States,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Approximately 70 percent of the U.S.population own at least one firearm.

B)In 2011,a violent crime occurred every 26 seconds in the United States.

C)The violent crime rate has declined by over 15 percent in the last decade in the U.S.

D)Today's children and adolescents spend an average of 50 hours a week exploring various media,witnessing a strong dose of violence along the way.

Q3) Regarding the effects of TV violence,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)TV violence raises inhibitions against acting out our hostile feelings.

B)TV can cause desensitization to violence.

C)Children can learn new aggressive actions by watching TV violence.

D)Children can learn that violence is acceptable.

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Chapter 74: Psychology in Action: Multiculturalism

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Q1) Rivalry among groups,each of which regards itself as superior to others,is referred to as _______.

Q2) English-speaking Canadian students became more positive toward French Canadians and saw themselves as less different from French Canadians when they A)took a class on the history of the French Canadians.

B)participated in a class on multiculturalism that promoted tolerance.

C)were "immersed," that is,spent most of their waking hours with French Canadians. D)were reinforced for tolerant behavior and reprimanded for intolerance.

Q3) In order to make the world more manageable,we often see out-group members as very much alike,even when they are varied.This tendency to place people in categories is called

A)individuating.

B)the self-fulfilling prophecy.

C)stereotyping.

D)social competition.

Q4) A form of faulty thinking that involves the belief that people generally get what they deserve is known as a(n) __________ belief.

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Chapter 75: Applied Psychology: Industrialorganizational Psychology

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Q1) Which of the following would NOT be a topic of special interest to industrial/organizational psychologists?

A)absenteeism

B)pay schedules

C)management styles

D)market research

Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the major factors that determines positive job satisfaction?

A)coworkers who are outwardly happy

B)being rewarded fairly for doing a good job

C)having a chance to grow and be challenged in one's job

D)supervisors having agentic rather than communal qualities

Q3) In achieving his or her goals,a transformational leader uses all of the following EXCEPT

A)idealized influence

B)inspirational motivation

C)task analysis

D)intellectual stimulation

Q4) Detailed biographical information about a job applicant is known as _______.

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Chapter 76: Applied Psychology: Environmental Psychology

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Q1) Which type of psychology involves the study of the effects buildings have on behavior and the use of behavioral principles to design buildings?

A)architectural

B)space

C)proxemic

D)design

Q2) Proxemics is the study of

A)approximations.

B)rules for proxy.

C)group cohesiveness.

D)personal space.

Q3) Which of the following is a smaller area within an environment whose use is well defined,such as a bus depot,waiting room,or student lounge?

A)territorial marker

B)behavioral setting

C)situational space

D)social proxemic

Q4) Regarding spatial norms,formal speeches,lectures,and business meetings are usually conducted at _______ distance.

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Chapter 77: Applied Psychology: the Psychology of

Education, Law, and Sports

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Q1) Topics of special interest in the psychology of law include A)arbitration.

B)juror selection.

C)police selection.

D)all of these.

Q2) During a sports performance when an athlete experiences intense concentration,detachment,a lack of fatigue and pain,a subjective slowing of time,and feelings of unusual power and control,he or she is experiencing what is known as A)stellar enhancement.

B)flow.

C)the hypervigilance state.

D)nirvana.

Q3) Which of the following topics would NOT be of special interest to educational psychologists?

A)moral development

B)proxemics

C)teacher attitudes

D)curriculum development

Q4) Discuss four problem areas regarding jury deliberations.

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Chapter 78: Psychology in Action: Human Factors Psychology

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Q1) In the world of human-computer interaction,the keyboard or mouse that is used to alter the activity of a computer would be referred to as controls.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Regarding satisficing,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Satisficing is not just a matter of being lazy,sometimes it can be a survival skill.

B)If a device is user friendly,it is unnecessary to read an instruction manual.

C)People are often tempted to satisfice because of our hectic modern world.

D)Satisficing refers to just "getting by" in using a tool rather than using the tool to its fullest capacity.

Q3) Whether it is the computer mouse,voice-activated computers,or computerized systems that disabled users can control,the type of psychologists who design better computer tools by utilizing an understanding of human behavior are the _______ psychologists.

A)cognitive-behavioral

B)human factors

C)comparative

D)developmental

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Chapter 79: Behavioral Statistics

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Q1) Direct measurement has shown such characteristics as height,memory span,and intelligence to be distributed approximately along a normal curve.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates the strongest relationship?

A)+.81

B)-.65

C)+1.05

D)+.55

Q3) Smaller cross-sections that are used to draw conclusions about the entire population are called A)samples.

B)partial sets.

C)data units.

D)frequency distributions.

Q4) Three hundred students at Meridian Community College are surveyed regarding their views on the new cafeteria menus.In this study,all 4,000 students at Meridian Community College would be considered the _______.

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Chapter 80: Life After School

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Q1) Jeff is taking his first psychology course.He has been reading his textbook,taking notes in class,and performed well on the multiple choice tests so far.Now,his psychology instructor has given the class the assignment to look up some research articles in the PsycINFO database and to summarize them.Jeff complains about this assignment,"Why am I wasting my time doing this? Why doesn't Dr.Morgan just give us the articles so we can get right to reading and learning them?" Jeff appears to think that only one competency for college psychology classes exists.On which competency does Jeff appear to be focused?

A)values of psychology

B)application of psychology

C)knowledge base of psychology

D)information and technological literacy

Q2) According to the Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,being sensitive to people of diverse backgrounds is an important part of which competency?

A)personal development

B)application of psychology

C)communication skills

D)sociocultural and international awareness

Q3) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.

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Page 82

Chapter 81: Understanding Descriptive and Inferential

Statistics for Psychological Research

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Sample Questions

Q1) If one calculates a correlation of -1.15,this coefficient of correlation indicates a strong negative relationship.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A correlation describes the A)probability of a variable occurring.

B)commonality of two variables.

C)relationship between two variables.

D)mean and median of a variable.

Q3) The simplest way of visualizing a correlation is to construct a scatter diagram.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The political science class randomly selected 150 adults from the community in order to obtain their opinions on the upcoming presidential race.This group of 150 people would be considered the A)representative sample.

B)experimental group. C)population.

D)control group.

Q5) The range and standard deviation are measures of _______.

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Chapter 82: The Competencies of the Undergraduate

Psychology Major

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72185

Sample Questions

Q1) If you are not sure why you have been asked to do something in a course or if you want to learn more about developing your skill set,which of the following would be the LEAST helpful in answering your questions?

A)your instructor

B)senior students in your program

C)someone in the counseling services at your department or college

D)Wikipedia entries

Q2) Gaining knowledge of inferential statistics from reading Module 79 and independent and dependent variables from Module 4 of Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition)will help students to

A)utilize intuitive thinking in their chosen career.

B)perceive the world through a more subjective perspective.

C)develop their experiential cognition and make better decisions when on the job.

D)be more literate consumers of primary literature in their chosen career.

Q3) In Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition),the informational boxes that were specifically designed to enhance the cultural awareness skills of psychology students are the _______ boxes.

Q4) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.

Page 84

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