Psychology: Concepts and Applications
Review Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces students to the foundational concepts, theories, and practical applications of psychology. Covering major topics such as biological bases of behavior, perception, learning, memory, development, personality, and social influences, students gain an understanding of how psychological principles impact everyday life. The course also explores methods used in psychological research and applies psychological knowledge to real-world scenarios, empowering students to critically assess human behavior and mental processes in personal and social contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by David G.
Myers
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2
Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) To study inner sensations,images,and feelings,Edward Titchener engaged people in self-reflective
A) psychoanalysis.
B) introspection.
C) positive psychology.
D) spaced practice.
Answer: B
Q2) A theoretical perspective in psychology can be like a two-dimensional view of a three-dimensional object because each perspective is
A) limited in its scope.
B) likely to contradict other perspectives.
C) of little value for applied research.
D) impossible to test scientifically.
Answer: A
Q3) The specialist most likely to have a medical degree is a A) clinical psychologist.
B) personality psychologist.
C) developmental psychologist.
D) psychiatrist.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Experimentation is more useful than correlational research for testing the claim that A) children who view a great deal of television violence are also likely to be unusually aggressive.
B) people who exercise frequently are less likely to suffer from depression than infrequent exercisers.
C) people's friendliness and feelings of happiness are increased by the consumption of alcohol.
D) people who drink higher-than-average amounts of coffee are also likely to drink higher-than-average amounts of tea.
Answer: C
Q2) Random sampling is to ________ as random assignment is to ________.
A) correlational studies;case studies
B) surveys;experiments
C) replication;correlation
D) description;prediction
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the size of a representative sample increases,the ________ of that sample is most likely to decrease.
A) range
B) mean
C) standard deviation
D) median
Answer: C
Q2) If IQ scores are normally distributed,having a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15,approximately what percentage of people have IQ scores between 55 and 145?
A) 34
B) 68
C) 95
D) 100
Answer: D
Q3) Five students received the following test scores: 7,11,5,6,and 11.Calculate the mode,median,mean,and range of this distribution of scores.Which measure of central tendency would change the most if an additional test score of 2 was included in the distribution?
Answer: no answer
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Motor neurons transmit signals to A) glands.
B) interneurons.
C) sensory neurons.
D) all of these parts.
Q2) Depressed mood states are linked to ________ levels of serotonin and ________ levels of norepinephrine.
A) low;low
B) high;high
C) low;high
D) high;low
Q3) Group cohesion,pair bonding,and social trust are promoted by pituitary gland secretions of A) cortisol.
B) epinephrine.
C) oxytocin.
D) dopamine.
Q4) The basic building blocks of our neural information system are neurons.Explain what neurons are,how they work,and how they communicate or transmit information?
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Chapter 5: The Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which brain structure are nerves from the left side of the brain routed to the right side of the body?
A) thalamus
B) cerebellum
C) amygdala
D) brainstem
Q2) One study has found math anxiety to be associated with hyperactivity in the right A) hippocampus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) amygdala.
D) cerebellum.
Q3) Severing a cat's reticular formation from higher brain regions causes the cat to A) become violently aggressive.
B) cower in fear.
C) experience convulsive seizures.
D) lapse into a coma.
Q4) Compare and contrast the various ways that neuroscientists study the brain.
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Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The auditory cortex is responsible for hearing and is located right above the ear.The visual cortex is responsible for vision and is located
A) above the auditory cortex.
B) behind the forehead.
C) behind the eyes.
D) at the back of your head.
Q2) Damage to the left cerebral hemisphere is most likely to reduce people's ability to A) solve arithmetic problems.
B) copy drawings.
C) recognize faces.
D) recognize familiar melodies.
Q3) The most amount of the brain devoted to association areas is found in a A) rat.
B) chimpanzee.
C) dog.
D) human.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two-track mind operates on two levels.A conscious "high road" is said to be________.An unconscious "low road" is said to be ________.
A) automatic and intuitive;deliberate and reflective
B) deliberate and reflective;automatic and intuitive
C) automatic and reflective;deliberate and intuitive
D) deliberate and intuitive;automatic and reflective
Q2) Prior to the twentieth century,psychology was considered to be the study of
A) observable behavior.
B) evolutionary change.
C) states of consciousness.
D) parallel processing.
Q3) Which of the following poses the greatest risk of an accident while driving?
A) sending text messages
B) talking on a cell phone
C) listening to the car radio
D) talking with others in the vehicle
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9
Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the course of a full night's sleep,young adults are most likely to spend more time in
A) NREM-3 sleep than in NREM-2 sleep.
B) REM sleep than in NREM-1 sleep.
C) NREM-1 sleep than in NREM-3 sleep.
D) REM sleep than in NREM-2 sleep.
Q2) Brenda has a psychology exam tomorrow and has been studying all day today.What advice would you give her to help her on her exam tomorrow?
A) "Cram for the exam all night tonight."
B) "Don't worry about it tonight.Get up early tomorrow and cram for the exam right before you take it."
C) "Don't sweat it! If you don't know the material by now,there is no point studying."
D) "Make sure you get enough sleep tonight because sleep can help consolidate your memory of the course material you have been studying."
Q3) Sleep is a necessity for all humans.What are the reasons we sleep,and what happens if we are deprived of sleep? Be sure to provide examples to support your answer.
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Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is most likely to interfere with immediate recall of information learned only a few minutes before?
A) nicotine
B) methadone
C) marijuana
D) cocaine
Q2) Amphetamines are classified as ________ and barbiturates are classified as
A) hallucinogens;depressants
B) stimulants;depressants
C) hallucinogens;stimulants
D) stimulants;hallucinogens
Q3) Nicotine consumption triggers an increase in A) drowsiness.
B) appetite.
C) anxiety.
D) blood pressure.
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11
Chapter 10: Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genome is the complete
A) collection of sexual characteristics regulated by sex hormones.
B) range of traits that makes up our temperament.
C) set of genetic materials in an organism's chromosomes.
D) set of interactions between genes and environments.
Q2) The heritability of a specific trait will be lowest among
A) genetically similar individuals who have been raised in similar environments.
B) genetically similar individuals who have been raised in dissimilar environments.
C) genetically dissimilar individuals who have been raised in similar environments.
D) genetically dissimilar individuals who have been raised in dissimilar environments.
Q3) DNA is a complex
A) sex hormone.
B) genome.
C) molecule.
D) epigenetic mark.
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12
Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A culturally modeled guide for how to act in particular situations is called a A) behavioral trait.
B) social script.
C) universal moral grammar. D) genome.
Q2) If a genetically based attraction to beautiful people contributes to survival,that trait will likely be passed on to subsequent generations.This best illustrates A) domestication.
B) natural selection.
C) a social script.
D) a sexual overperception bias.
Q3) The principle of natural selection was first advanced by A) Dmitry Belyaev.
B) Sigmund Freud.
C) Charles Darwin.
D) Steven Pinker.
Q4) Biological fathers are so much less likely than unrelated boyfriends to abuse and murder the children with whom they share a home.Use the principles of evolutionary psychology and natural selection to explain why this is so.
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT demonstrate the preservation of innovation?
A) the Internet
B) smart phones
C) GPS devices
D) party lines
Q2) A boy who consistently exhibits traditionally masculine interests and behavior patterns demonstrates
A) androgyny.
B) collectivism.
C) secondary sex characteristics.
D) gender typing.
Q3) Men are LESS likely than women to
A) stare at people who make them angry.
B) be diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder.
C) interrupt others who are talking.
D) ask for other people's opinions in a group discussion.
Q4) Describe how differences between individualist and collectivist cultures are likely to manifest themselves in the processes of mate selection,career development,and political organization.
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Chapter 13: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) A preference for our mother's voice over our father's voice has been detected
A) during embryonic development.
B) immediately after birth.
C) one week after birth.
D) one month after birth.
Q2) A teratogen is a(n)
A) fertilized egg that undergoes rapid cell division.
B) unborn child with one or more physical defects or abnormalities.
C) chromosomal abnormality.
D) substance that can cross the placental barrier and harm an unborn child.
Q3) One of the three major issues in developmental psychology involves a focus on A) stimulation and habituation.
B) conception and prenatal development.
C) embryonic and fetal development.
D) stability and change.
Q4) Human females begin forming all the eggs they will ever have during A) conception.
B) prenatal development.
C) early childhood.
D) puberty.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Hearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A use-it-or-lose-it pruning process shuts down some ________ and strengthens others.
A) secure attachments
B) epigenetic marks
C) neural connections
D) critical periods
Q2) Chloe can clearly sense when her sister's teasing is intended to be friendly fun or a hostile put-down.This best illustrates that Chloe has developed a(n)
A) sense of object permanence.
B) insecure attachment.
C) concept of conservation.
D) theory of mind.
Q3) Many researchers believe that ________ form the foundation of our adult relationships and our comfort with affection and intimacy.
A) our early attachments
B) stranger anxiety experiences
C) human bonds
D) the strange situation
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Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the concept of social identity and provide an example.
Q2) Which of the following best describes adolescent self-esteem?
A) It rises through the early teen years and falls during the late teen years.
B) It falls through the early teen years and rises during the late teen years.
C) It rises through the early teen years and rises during the late teen years.
D) It falls through the early teen years and falls during the late teen years.
Q3) Kayla is a college student who lives on campus but is still financially dependent on her parents.She can best be classified as a(n)
A) young adult.
B) emerging adult.
C) late adolescent.
D) extended adolescent.
Q4) Children who ________ are especially likely to be academically successful.
A) experience early pubertal maturation
B) exhibit moral intuition
C) are able to delay gratification
D) demonstrate preconventional morality
Q5) Define emerging adulthood,and explain why psychologists decided to make it a separate developmental stage.How do views of emerging adulthood as a stage in development vary across cultures?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A progressive erosion of mental functioning that was formerly known as dementia is now called
A) brain plasticity.
B) menopause.
C) neurocognitive disorder.
D) a death-deferral phenomenon.
Q2) Because of the shortening of ________,aging cells may die without being replaced.
A) immune system antibodies
B) menopause
C) distance perception
D) telomeres
Q3) Researchers have detected unusually diffuse brain activity while people at risk for ________ are trying to memorize words.
A) alcohol use disorder
B) weak immune systems
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) pneumonia
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Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transduction refers to the process of
A) organizing and interpreting sensory information.
B) activating mental associations.
C) transforming stimulus energies into neural impulses.
D) drawing on our experience and expectations to construct perceptions.
Q2) Sensation is the
A) transformation of sound and light into meaningful words and images.
B) detection and encoding of stimulus energies by sensory receptors and the nervous system.
C) organization and interpretation of environmental events.
D) conscious awareness of a familiar stimulus.
Q3) People's response to subliminal priming indicates that
A) they are capable of processing information without any conscious awareness of doing so.
B) their unconscious minds are incapable of resisting subliminally presented suggestions.
C) they are more sensitive to subliminal sounds than to subliminal sights.
D) they experience a sense of discomfort whenever they are exposed to subliminal stimuli.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Q1) If two different stars cast retinal images of the same size,the star that appears to be A) brighter is likely to be perceived as larger than the one that appears to be dimmer. B) moving is likely to be perceived as larger than the one that appears to be stationary. C) farther away is likely to be perceived as larger than the one that appears to be closer. D) high in the sky is likely to be perceived as larger than the one that appears to be near the horizon.
Q2) Distant trees were located closer to the top of the artist's canvas than were the nearby flowers.The artist was clearly using the distance cue known as A) linear perspective.
B) closure.
C) relative height.
D) interposition.
Q3) Explain how research on size constancy,restored vision,and perceptual adaptation serves to support and/or refute John Locke's emphasis on the importance of learning in perception.
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Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) One plausible theory suggests that hypnotic pain relief may result from
A) selective attention.
B) stereophonic hearing.
C) extrasensory perception.
D) phantom limb sensations.
Q2) The taste of umami is a ________ taste.
A) meaty
B) salty
C) bitter
D) sour
Q3) If Jared watches a nurse give him an injection,he experiences more pain than if he closes his eyes during the procedure and thinks about his favorite food.This illustrates the value of ________ for pain control.
A) synesthesia
B) sensory interaction
C) distraction
D) psychokinesis
Q4) Explain why both top-down and bottom-up processing are emphasized by those who take a biopsychosocial approach to understanding pain and pain control.
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Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) When given a red pen rather than a black pen for correcting essays,people spot more errors.This best illustrates the subtle impact of
A) learned associations.
B) behaviorism.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) unconditioned responding.
Q2) The view that psychology should be an objective science that studies behavior without reference to mental processes was called
A) psychoanalysis.
B) behaviorism.
C) cognitive neuroscience.
D) evolutionary psychology.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a process of classical conditioning that Pavlov explored?
A) acquisition
B) extinction
C) operant behavior
D) spontaneous recovery
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22
Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) A partial reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response after a specified number of responses is called a ________ schedule.
A) fixed-ratio
B) variable-ratio
C) fixed-interval
D) variable-interval
Q2) Which of the following is the best example of a primary reinforcer?
A) applause for an excellent trumpet solo
B) a grade of "A" for an excellent essay
C) $5.00 for washing the car
D) a cold lemonade for pulling weeds on a hot day
Q3) Shaping is a procedure in which reinforcers are
A) designed to evoke respondent behavior.
B) interspersed with punishers to speed the process of learning.
C) used to guide actions closer and closer to a desired behavior.
D) given on a variable-ratio schedule.
Q4) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning.
Q5) How could you use operant conditioning to condition an adventurous 2-year-old not to run across a busy street near her house?
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Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Learning that occurs but is not apparent until there is an incentive to demonstrate it is called
A) associative learning.
B) operant conditioning.
C) latent learning.
D) shaping.
Q2) If a shock is always preceded by a tone,and then sometimes also is preceded by a light that accompanies the tone,a rat will react
A) with no fear either to the tone or to the light.
B) with fear to the tone but not to the light.
C) with fear to the light but not to the tone.
D) with equally high levels of fear both to the tone and to the light.
Q3) Bandura's experiments indicate that ________ is important in the process of learning.
A) extrinsic motivation
B) instinctive drift
C) modeling
D) a fixed-interval reinforcement schedule
Q4) Explain how cognitive processes affect operant and classical conditioning.
Q5) Explain how biological constraints affect operant and classical conditioning.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Q1) Ebbinghaus' use of nonsense syllables to study memory led to the discovery that A) the amount remembered depends on the time spent learning.
B) working memory's central executive focuses attention.
C) information that is automatically processed is rarely forgotten.
D) our sensory memory capacity is essentially unlimited.
Q2) The persistence of learning over time most clearly depends on A) chunking.
B) shallow processing.
C) visual encoding.
D) memory.
Q3) The process of retrieval refers to A) the persistence of learning over time.
B) the organization of information into manageable units.
C) getting information out of memory storage.
D) conscious repetition of information to be remembered.
Q4) Describe two mnemonic techniques that would enable you to remember the following list of grocery items: milk,eggs,margarine,oranges,rhubarb,ice cream,eggplant,and sausage.Explain why each would be effective.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stress hormones promote stronger memories by
A) decreasing the availability of serotonin.
B) increasing the availability of glucose.
C) decreasing the availability of CREB.
D) increasing the availability of propranolol.
Q2) Hotaka can vividly recall the devastating experience of barely surviving the tsunami that took the lives of many others.It is likely that the stress of that experience provoked the ________ to boost activity in the memory-forming areas of his brain.
A) hypothalamus
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) amygdala
Q3) What we learn under the influence of a drug may be more easily recalled when we are once again under the influence of that same drug.This best illustrates
A) the serial position effect.
B) implicit memory.
C) state-dependent memory.
D) long-term potentiation.
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Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Q1) Researchers observed that people exposed to very convincing arguments about the value of frequent toothbrushing tended to
A) quickly forget the arguments if they were in the habit of brushing frequently.
B) quickly forget the arguments if they were not in the habit of brushing frequently.
C) exaggerate how frequently they had brushed their teeth in the past.
D) exaggerate how infrequently they had brushed their teeth in the past.
Q2) Some patients with anterograde amnesia have learned how to spot hard-to-find figures in the Where's Waldo? series without any conscious awareness that they can do so.This best illustrates their retention of ________ memories.
A) explicit
B) implicit
C) retroactive
D) working
Q3) Rebecca is taking her psychology exam but cannot recall the information needed to answer the questions.She is experiencing forgetting.Give possible reasons she may have forgotten the information.
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Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ may lead us to ignore other relevant information as we intuitively compare something to a particular prototype.
A) Overconfidence
B) The representativeness heuristic
C) Belief perseverance
D) The availability heuristic
Q2) People more easily detect male discrimination against women than female discrimination against men because the former more closely resembles their discrimination
A) heuristic.
B) algorithm.
C) prototype.
D) fixation.
Q3) A mental grouping of similar objects,events,ideas,or people is a(n)
A) algorithm.
B) prototype.
C) heuristic.
D) concept.
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Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Q1) The concept of ________ emphasizes that our words can influence our thinking.
A) telegraphic speech
B) linguistic relativism
C) morphemes
D) linguistic determinism
Q2) The isolated Piraha tribespeople of Brazil have no words for specific numbers higher than 2.If shown 7 nuts in a row they find it difficult to lay out the same number from their own pile of nuts.This best illustrates the impact of
A) language on thinking.
B) syntax on grammar.
C) receptive language on productive language.
D) process simulation on outcome simulation.
Q3) The earliest stage of speech development is called the ________ stage. A) babbling
B) telegraphic speech
C) one-word
D) grammatical
Q4) Teo is an infant and has not yet learned language.Describe how he is likely to think.
Q5) Compare and contrast the language abilities of humans and nonhuman animals.
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Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Q1) L.L.Thurstone identified seven clusters of primary mental abilities,including word fluency,memory,and inductive reasoning.He claimed that word fluency
A) underlies all of our intelligent behaviors.
B) is the most difficult mental ability to assess reliably.
C) involves a different dimension of intelligence from that of reasoning.
D) is not actually a form of intelligence.
Q2) Which of the following people best illustrates Sternberg's concept of practical intelligence?
A) Jamal,a student who quickly recognizes the correct answers to multiple-choice test questions
B) Gareth,a graduate student who generates many creative ideas
C) Shelley,a newspaper reporter who has established a large network of information sources
D) Cindy,a young mother who prefers cleaning her house to supervising her children
Q3) Compare and contrast the theories of multiple intelligences.
Q4) Although Susan is a brilliant pianist and highly acclaimed ballet dancer,her high school intelligence test scores were only average.What does Susan's experience suggest regarding the nature of intelligence.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Q1) Researchers assess the correlation between scores obtained on two halves of a single test in order to measure the ________ of a test.
A) validity
B) reliability
C) standardization
D) normal distribution
Q2) Raul has taken the GRE three times and his scores varied by only 10 points each time.Raul's test scores reflect the GRE's
A) standardization.
B) predictive validity.
C) reliability.
D) content validity.
Q3) One of the 15 subtests included in the latest edition of the ________ involves remembering and correctly sequencing a series of numbers and letters.
A) SAT.
B) GRE.
C) WAIS.
D) Stanford-Binet.
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31
Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Q1) Among Americans scoring in the top 1 percent of their age group on the ________ at age 13,more than half have earned doctorates.
A) WAIS
B) Stanford-Binet
C) SAT
D) WISC
Q2) A longitudinal study is research that
A) tests different age groups at the same point in time.
B) assesses different characteristics of a specific individual on a single test.
C) assesses different characteristics of a specific individual on multiple tests.
D) follows and retests the same group of people over time.
Q3) Crystallized intelligence refers most directly to a person's
A) accumulated knowledge and verbal skills.
B) ability to reason speedily and abstractly.
C) capacity for fluid intelligence.
D) willingness to revise beliefs in light of new information.
Q4) Melody has a learning disability,Marla has normal intelligence,and Keith is considered "gifted." What traits would you expect each of these people to have?
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The similarity between intelligence scores of fraternal twins raised together is A) equal to that between identical twins raised apart.
B) less than that between children and their biological parents. C) equal to that between ordinary siblings raised together.
D) less than that between identical twins raised apart.
Q2) Performance-impairing anxiety is most closely associated with A) polygenetics
B) stereotype threat.
C) heritability.
D) epigenetics
Q3) Schooling ________ children's intelligence test performance.Children's intelligence ________ their later adult income.
A) enhances;enhances
B) has no effect on;enhances
C) enhances;has no effect on
D) has no effect on;has no effect on
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Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Questions
Q1) According to the Yerkes-Dodson law,very high levels of arousal would be most likely to interfere with effectively
A) solving a crossword puzzle.
B) reciting the alphabet.
C) riding a bicycle.
D) washing dishes.
Q2) The term homeostasis literally means
A) "common to all."
B) "unique to humans."
C) "staying the same."
D) "motivational dynamics."
Q3) Carlos is studying for his psychology exam.He is finding it more and more difficult to focus because he is hungry.His hunger becomes so distracting that he leaves his studies and heads to the nearest sandwich shop.Which of the following best explains Carlos' behavior?
A) drive-reduction theory
B) arousal theory
C) need for affiliation
D) incentive theory
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Q1) Lorissa is a fussy eater who refuses to take even a small taste of foods she has not seen before.Her behavior best illustrates
A) set point.
B) importance of portion size.
C) the ecology of eating.
D) neophobia.
Q2) In addition to secreting the hunger-triggering hormone orexin,the ________ monitors levels of the body's other appetite hormones.
A) hippocampus
B) amygdala
C) cerebellum
D) hypothalamus
Q3) The body's resting rate of energy output is known as its A) basal metabolic rate.
B) set point.
C) ecology of eating.
D) settling point.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence that brain anatomy differences account for variations in sexual orientation is provided by the fact that these brain differences
A) fully account for gender differences in erotic plasticity.
B) are triggered by the segregation of sexes at the time one's sex drive matures.
C) explain the elevated rates of depression experienced by gays and lesbians.
D) seem to develop soon after or even before birth.
Q2) More women than men report having had at least one same-sex contact,even though males' homosexuality rate exceeds the female rate.This is best explained by the fact that compared with men,women's sexual orientation is
A) more often asexual.
B) influenced by gender typing.
C) marked by shorter refractory periods.
D) more variable and less strongly felt.
Q3) Teens who use alcohol prior to sexual intercourse experience
A) enhanced self-awareness and are less likely to use condoms.
B) reduced self-awareness and are more likely to use condoms.
C) enhanced self-awareness and are more likely to use condoms.
D) reduced self-awareness and are less likely to use condoms.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Hunger
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________ is confiding and sharing our joys,worries,and weaknesses with others,which can help us cope with everyday challenges.
A) Ostracism
B) Self-transcendence
C) Self-actualization
D) Self-disclosure
Q2) In psychology,________ is the passion and perseverance in the pursuit of long-term goals.
A) grit
B) narcissism
C) ostracism
D) self-disclosure
Q3) Which of the following would be most likely associated with better grades and higher achievement in university students?
A) self-disclosure
B) self-transcendence
C) self-discipline
D) narcissism
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Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Sample Questions
Q1) When students perceive the arousal that accompanies test-taking as energizing rather than debilitating,they experience much less anxiety.This is best understood in terms of the
A) Cannon-Bard theory.
B) James-Lange theory.
C) polygraph principle.
D) two-factor theory.
Q2) Tessa and Noah are looking to buy their first house.Their realtor takes them to one house that strongly smells of cigarette smoke and cat urine.They both are disgusted by the smells and immediately exit the house.If the electrical activity of the brain were measured while they were having this negative emotion
A) the right prefrontal cortex would be more electrically active.
B) the right prefrontal cortex would be less electrically active.
C) the left prefrontal cortex would be more electrically active.
D) the left prefrontal cortex would be less electrically active.
Q3) Describe how polygraphs are intended to measure lying,and discuss their accuracy.
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Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Botox paralysis of the frowning facial muscles ________ people's reading of sadness-related sentences and ________ activity in emotion-related brain circuits.
A) speeds;speeds
B) slows;slows
C) slows;speeds
D) speeds;slows
Q2) Whenever he is feeling gloomy,Juan sings the song "Put on a Happy Face." According to the facial feedback effect,if he follows the advice of the song,Juan is likely to A) become more depressed.
B) experience little or no change in his emotions.
C) irritate most people he comes in contact with.
D) experience an elevation in his mood.
Q3) When communicating with others electronically,we are at risk for egocentrism because our communications lack
A) vocal nuances.
B) expressive emotions.
C) ambiguous emotion.
D) visual cues to emotion.
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Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Verbal and nonverbal expressions of anger can
A) calm emotions and reduce anger.
B) become habitual if they successfully reduce anger.
C) increase immediate feelings of anger.
D) do any of these things.
Q2) Luciano believes that the best way to get over the anger he feels toward his high school teacher is to scream shameful profanities while hitting a punching bag.His belief best illustrates
A) the relative deprivation principle.
B) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
C) the catharsis hypothesis.
D) the feel-good,do-good phenomenon.
Q3) People's tendency to be helpful when already in a positive mood is called
A) the feel-good,do-good phenomenon.
B) the behavior feedback effect.
C) a happiness set point.
D) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
Q4) Carroll Izard identified 10 basic emotions that appear to be present in infancy.Identify those emotions,and discuss Izard's view that all other emotions are combinations of these.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) After Georgiana learned that a tornado has destroyed her house,her brain probably directed the outer part of her adrenal glands to react by A) releasing testosterone. B) producing androgens.
C) increasing the production of lymphocytes. D) secreting cortisol.
Q2) Chronic anger ________ the risk of heart disease,and chronic depression ________ the risk of heart disease.
A) increases;decreases
B) increases;increases
C) has no effect on;increases
D) increases;has no effect on
Q3) In their classic nine-year study,Friedman and Rosenman found that Type A men are especially susceptible to A) stomach ulcers.
B) cancer.
C) heart attacks. D) lupus.
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthy lifestyle has been described as a(n)________ that might account for the association of religious involvement and life expectancy.
A) Type A profile
B) intervening variable
C) locus of control
D) mindfulness
Q2) The distress associated with having to pick a course of action from among a very large number of reasonable alternatives best illustrates
A) an external locus of control.
B) unrealistic optimism.
C) the tyranny of choice.
D) suppressed immune functioning.
Q3) The correlation between religious involvement and life expectancy best illustrates the health value of A) biofeedback.
B) an external locus of control.
C) a Type A personality.
D) the faith factor.
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Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers have filmed two people interacting face-to-face with cameras located just behind each person.Showing each person a replay of their interaction filmed from the other person's perspective increased their tendency to attribute the other person's behavior to
A) dispositional influences.
B) situational influences.
C) personality traits.
D) role playing.
Q2) Rhonda has just learned that her neighbor Patricia was involved in an automobile accident at a nearby intersection.The tendency to make the fundamental attribution error may lead Rhonda to conclude
A) "Patricia's brakes must have failed."
B) "Patricia's recklessness has finally gotten her into trouble."
C) "Patricia's children probably distracted her."
D) "The road must have been wet and slippery."
Q3) Which theory best explains why our actions can lead us to modify our attitudes?
A) role-playing theory
B) cognitive dissonance theory
C) attribution theory
D) attitude theory
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Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Milgram obedience experiments were controversial because the A) "teachers" actually seemed to enjoy shocking the "learners."
B) "learners" received painful electric shocks even if they had heart problems.
C) experiments were performed despite mass student protests against the research.
D) "teachers" were deceived and frequently subjected to stress.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Social contagion is limited to behavior.
B) Empathetic mimicking leads to abhorring.
C) Natural mimicry enables people to empathize.
D) Social contagion is associated with deindividuation.
Q3) During a riot,a large sporting event,or mob action,people may lose self-awareness and self-restraint.This is known as
A) normative social influence.
B) social facilitation.
C) deindividuation.
D) social loafing.
Q4) Describe the research of Solomon Asch.Explain why participants in his study conformed to the group.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Harry is dreadfully afraid of flying and fears that the plane could crash.His fear of flying may be related to A) explicit bias.
B) the just-world phenomenon.
C) the availability heuristic.
D) ingroup bias.
Q2) The longer Chinese people have resided in a Western country,for example,the less likely they are to exhibit A) social scripts.
B) social identities.
C) the other-race effect.
D) scapegoating.
Q3) Only when experimental participants were informed that a woman was raped did they perceive the woman's behavior as inviting rape.This best illustrates that victim blaming is fueled by A) the other-gender effect.
B) scapegoating.
C) hindsight bias.
D) unconscious patronization.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to social exchange theory,altruistic behavior is guided by A) calculations of costs and benefits.
B) feelings of social responsibility.
C) reciprocity norms.
D) family ties.
Q2) Although the leaders of two enemy nations admit to a buildup of their own military forces,each sees the other country's actions as unreasonable and motivated by evil intentions.This situation best illustrates
A) a social trap.
B) the mere exposure effect.
C) the reciprocity norm.
D) mirror-image perceptions.
Q3) People's preference for mirror-image photographs of themselves illustrates the impact of
A) the bystander effect.
B) mirror-image perceptions.
C) the mere exposure effect.
D) self-disclosure.
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Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Katrinka habitually makes nasty,hostile comments about her teachers.Freud would have suggested that her behavior illustrates the powerful influence of the A) self-concept.
B) superego.
C) ego.
D) id.
Q2) According to Freud,the ________ is a reservoir of mostly unacceptable thoughts,wishes,feelings,and memories of which we are unaware.
A) self-concept
B) ego
C) unconscious mind
D) superego
Q3) The theorist who opposed Freud's assumptions that women have weak superegos and suffer "penis envy," and who attempted to balance Freud's masculine bias was
A) Alfred Adler.
B) Karen Horney.
C) Carl Jung.
D) Drew Westen.
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Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Omar,who is extraverted,hates being alone,enjoys loud music,and dislikes reading quietly.According to trait theorists,this cluster of behaviors is called a A) human need.
B) self-concept.
C) factor.
D) dimension.
Q2) Carl Rogers emphasized that a positive self-concept is promoted by A) self-transcendence.
B) unconditional positive regard.
C) extraversion.
D) factor analysis.
Q3) After getting lost in a forest,Andrea became so hungry and thirsty that she became preoccupied with finding something to eat and drink.She was most clearly focused on satisfying ________ needs in Maslow's pyramid-shaped hierarchy of needs.
A) self-actualization
B) self-transcendence
C) base-level
D) midlevel
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Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fifty-six percent of high school seniors believed that they would earn a graduate degree,although only 9 percent actually did so.These students were demonstrating
A) unconditional positive regard.
B) unrealistic optimism.
C) narcissism.
D) reciprocal determinism.
Q2) Narcissistic people have been observed to take a(n)________ approach to their romantic relationships.
A) empathic
B) introverted
C) game-playing
D) self-sacrificing
Q3) Alexis brags excessively about her good looks and frequently deceives others in order to establish romantic relationships with them.Her behavior most clearly illustrates
A) the false consensus effect.
B) unconditional positive regard.
C) the spotlight effect.
D) narcissism.
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Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jane is wary of those who suffer from psychological disorders because she believes that they are aggressive and violent.She also thinks they are more likely to commit crimes than those in the general population that do not suffer from a psychological disorder.What would you say to Jane to convince her that she is mistaken in her assumptions?
Q2) Those who support the increase in ADHD diagnoses have most strongly emphasized that
A) children are not designed to sit for hours in chairs inside.
B) stimulant drugs calm hyperactivity and increase the ability to sit and focus.
C) increased diagnoses of ADHD reflects an increased awareness of the disorder.
D) psychological therapies help with the distress associated with ADHD.
Q3) Matt is restless and often jumps out of his seat or interferes with ongoing class activities in response to the sound of outside traffic.Matt most clearly exhibits symptoms of
A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) antisocial personality disorder.
C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
D) panic disorder.
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Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) George developed generalized anxiety disorder when he was in his mid-twenties.As he got older he developed some physical problems as a result of generalized anxiety disorder.Now that he is approaching late adulthood,his emotions have mellowed some.At what age is it less likely for him to have generalized anxiety disorder?
A) 35
B) 40
C) 50
D) 70
Q2) After lab-reared monkeys saw their parents fearfully avoid reaching for food located near a snake,the younger monkeys developed a strong fear of snakes.The younger monkeys' fear of snakes best illustrated the impact of
A) conditioning.
B) learning through observation.
C) repression.
D) epigenetics.
Q3) Janice has an irrational fear of spiders and will do everything she can to avoid them.Identify the DSM's diagnostic criteria for Janice's fear,and explain why.
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Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Failures are most likely to lead to depression if they are explained in terms that are
A) internal,temporary,and specific.
B) external,temporary,and global.
C) internal,stable,and global.
D) external,stable,and specific.
Q2) Malik was severely depressed for two weeks,but then became very agitated,going on wild spending sprees and driving recklessly around town.He was arrested for running into a bar with no clothes while laughing and yelling very loudly.Malik's behavior illustrates
A) persistent depressive disorder.
B) learned helplessness.
C) major depressive disorder.
D) bipolar disorder.
Q3) Which perspective has emphasized the impact of learned helplessness on depression?
A) cultural
B) biological
C) social-cognitive
D) explanatory styles
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that block ________ receptors often lessen the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
A) norepinephrine
B) serotonin
C) dopamine
D) acetylcholine
Q2) Billy,who has schizophrenia,experiences auditory hallucinations.Based on research using PET scans,which brain structure is active when Billy experiences these hallucinations?
A) thalamus
B) amygdala
C) hippocampus
D) frontal lobe
Q3) One of the hallmarks of schizophrenia is disorganized speech and behavior.Theorists suggest that people with such disorganized speech and behavior have
A) negative symptoms.
B) a breakdown in selective attention.
C) low levels of dopamine.
D) increased working-memory capacity.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antisocial personality disorder is most likely to be characterized by A) a persistent,irrational fear of people.
B) episodes of intense autonomic nervous system arousal.
C) disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of identity.
D) a lack of guilt feelings.
Q2) Disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of identity are most characteristic of A) borderline personality disorder.
B) bulimia nervosa.
C) antisocial personality disorder.
D) dissociative disorder.
Q3) Bulimia nervosa is characterized by A) losses of 25 percent or more of normal weight.
B) episodes of overeating followed by vomiting.
C) the loss of regular menstrual periods.
D) all of these conditions.
Q4) Describe the characteristics of dissociative identity disorder,and discuss the factors that have been implicated in its development.Why are many mental health professionals skeptical about the validity of this disorder?
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proponents of behavior modification have suggested that institutionalized patients can be weaned from ________ by shifting them to other rewards common to life outside an institution.
A) drug therapy
B) a token economy
C) unconditional positive regard
D) a 12-step program
Q2) Which of the following therapists introduced the use of free association?
A) Carl Rogers
B) Sigmund Freud
C) Aaron Beck
D) Mary Cover Jones
Q3) The relentless rehearsal of overgeneralized,self-blaming thoughts by depressed clients is called
A) aversive conditioning.
B) catastrophizing.
C) systematic desensitization.
D) transference.
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Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) Clients' perceptions of the effectiveness of psychotherapy are often misleading because clients
A) typically underestimate how much they have improved as a result of therapy. B) tend to focus on their behavioral changes rather than on changes in their attitudes and emotions.
C) often need to convince themselves that they didn't waste their money on therapy.
D) are often angry about the time-consuming nature of therapy.
Q2) The best outcome studies for evaluating the effectiveness of psychotherapy typically use
A) virtual reality.
B) token economies.
C) randomized clinical trials.
D) EMDR.
Q3) Dr.Mendez uses antidepressants and ECT to treat clients diagnosed with severe depression.Dr.Mendez is a A) psychiatrist.
B) clinical psychologist.
C) psychiatric social worker.
D) counselor.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic drug that reduces paranoia and hallucinations by
A) reducing involuntary muscle movements.
B) dampening responsiveness to irrelevant stimuli.
C) decreasing the availability of norepinephrine.
D) elevating arousal and mood.
Q2) After discontinuing heavy use of an antianxiety drug,Angela experienced increased anxiety and difficulty sleeping.Angela was experiencing symptoms of A) withdrawal.
B) resilience.
C) tardive dyskinesia.
D) neurogenesis.
Q3) Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by A) obsessions.
B) panic attacks.
C) auditory hallucinations.
D) involuntary muscle movements.
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Chapter 56: Appendix
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Sample Questions
Q1) Effective leaders of large corporations as well as smaller work teams have been found to exude a charisma that involves
A) using a directive management style.
B) understanding human factors psychology.
C) motivating people to cooperate toward a common goal.
D) viewing one's work as a career.
Q2) Matching people with existing jobs is to ________ psychology as modifying jobs and supervision is to ________ psychology.
A) human factors;organizational
B) organizational;human factors
C) personnel;organizational
D) organizational;personnel
Q3) Interviewers are disposed to judge job applicants more favorably when informed that the applicants
A) are applying for their very first career position.
B) have been prescreened by other company personnel.
C) are nervous and worried about making a good impression.
D) have a strong desire to work hard if paid well.
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