Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) In a study examining the effectiveness and accuracy of profiling, police detectives indicated that the vast majority of profiles were _____ and they helped in solving _____ of the cases.
A) inaccurate; about half
B) inaccurate; less than 5%
C) accurate; the majority
D) accurate; about half
Q2) According to the text, some persistent problems with profiling include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) no educational requirements for profilers.
B) no peer review of profiling techniques.
C) high frequency of the use of profiling.
D) lack of substantial research evidence of the validity of profiling.
Q3) Most serial killers are _____ males of _____ intelligence.
A) African American; above average
B) African American; average
C) White; above average
D) White; average
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Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Most serial murder cases _____ solved by diligent police work _____ profiles. A) are not; but rather by B) are not; nor by C) are; with a huge help from D) are; and not by
Q2) Behavioral investigative advice (BIA) offers help to investigators on all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) whether a crime might be part of a series of crimes.
B) what questions to ask during police interviews.
C) how to use the media to lure the suspect into making a mistake.
D) what personality traits can be inferred from crime scene evidence.
Q3) A British study found that police detectives found profiling _____, and the profiles helped catch a perpetrator in _____ of the cases where profiles were developed.
A) helpful; the majority
B) not useful; none
C) helpful; a very small proportion
D) not useful; very few
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Explain the voir dire process.
Q2) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
Q3) How effective is scientific jury selection?
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) According to the text, research completed by Olczak, Kaplan, and Penrod (1991) revealed that seasoned lawyers performed _____ students when selecting favorable juries.
A) slightly better than B) less well than
C) no better than
D) significantly better than
Q2) According to the text, when an attorney takes the opportunity to remove a potential juror, it is referred to as:
A) a challenge.
B) venire.
C) an obstacle to equality.
D) recross.
Q3) The Sixth and Seventh Amendments guarantee the right to a trial by jury in criminal and civil cases. The jury is supposed to be:
A) an impartial group representing community values.
B) a group of a defendant's neighbors and acquaintances.
C) an unbiased group of people who know a defendant's reputation.
D) a group of people representing different parts of the country.
Page 19
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) A juror that scores high on measures of authoritarianism would be least likely to convict:
A) a gang member accused of killing another gang member.
B) a police officer accused of using excessive force.
C) a college student accused of stealing.
D) a politician accused of corruption.
Q2) Voir dire allows attorneys:
A) to question the veracity of a witness's testimony in criminal cases.
B) and judges to examine potential jurors to determine their acceptability to serve on a jury.
C) to subpoena important witnesses who may not otherwise be willing to appear in court.
D) and judges to question witnesses on the stand in civil cases.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the broad personality tendencies associated with jury verdicts, mentioned in Chapter 6?
A) locus of control
B) extraversion
C) authoritarianism
D) belief in a just world
Page 20
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Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
Q2) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
Q3) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Cross-racial identifications are generally _____ accurate than/as same-race identifications.
A) somewhat more
B) less
C) as
D) a great deal more
Q2) The memory process is often described as having the following component(s):
A) encoding, storage, retrieval.
B) storage, retrieval, identification.
C) retrieval, storage, processing.
D) processing, encoding, storage.
Q3) According to psychologists, memory is a _____-part component process.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an estimator variable in eyewitness identification?
A) The gender of the witness.
B) How carefully an eyewitness observes the crime.
C) The type of questions asked by the police.
D) The race of the victim.
Q2) One promising technique for improving the ability of an eyewitness to remember important information accurately is to relax the eyewitness and mentally reinstate the context surrounding the crime. This approach is known as a:
A) regulatory focus.
B) guided recognition.
C) hypernesia interview.
D) cognitive interview.
Q3) Research findings indicate that there are several drawbacks to using hypnosis in forensic settings. Which of the following statements about the use of hypnosis is INCORRECT?
A) People remember less but what they do recall under hypnosis is more accurate.
B) Hypnosis can elicit false memories.
C) The effects of suggestive questioning are amplified under hypnosis.
D) After hypnosis, eyewitnesses are more confident about what they remember.
Page 23
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
Q2) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
Q3) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Phillip is standing trial for robbery. His overall ability to adequately take care of himself and his ability to understand what is going on at trial has come into question. Before he goes to trial, it is important to assess whether he is:
A) mentally unstable.
B) too poor to pay for an attorney.
C) competent to stand trial.
D) has realistic chances for an acquittal.
Q2) According to the definition in the text, malingering means that an individual is:
A) dealing with a malignant condition.
B) intentionally faking a mental illness or disability.
C) effectively hiding an illness or disability.
D) incompetent to stand trial.
Q3) Adjudicative competence is a legal concept that describes defendants' ability to: A) participate effectively in legal proceedings.
B) plead guilty.
C) aid in their own defense.
D) waive an attorney.
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) According to the information presented in Chapter 8, which of the following is FALSE regarding competency to stand trial?
A) A majority of incompetent defendants are eventually restored to competency.
B) Judges agree with the decisions of competence evaluators most of the time.
C) A majority of individuals referred for a competence evaluation are found incompetent.
D) Defendants can be medicated against their will in order to restore competence.
Q2) Most states limit the period of confinement for defendants found to be incompetent to somewhere between:
A) 4 and 18 months.
B) 2 and 3 years.
C) 30 and 90 days.
D) 40% to 50% of the sentence if the defendant were to be convicted.
Q3) Competency to stand trial refers to the psychological state of the defendant:
A) at the time of the crime.
B) during pre-trial proceedings.
C) at the time of sentencing.
D) at the time of trial.
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26
Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
Q2) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
Q3) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Research completed by Rita Simon (1967) found that, when different sets of jurors were given different definitions of insanity based on legal terminology, there was:
A) no impact on their verdicts.
B) some impact on their verdicts.
C) a great deal of difference in their verdicts.
D) None of the above have happened.
Q2) _____ is the concept that the punishment of criminals teaches others that criminal activities lead to penalties.
A) Specific deterrence
B) Retribution
C) General deterrence
D) Mens rea
Q3) Insanity is considered a(n):
A) legal term.
B) psychological term.
C) opportunity for the guilty to escape punishment.
D) psychiatric diagnosis.
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Malingering refers to:
A) an inability to distinguish right from wrong.
B) exaggerating or faking a mental disorder.
C) having a mental illness and using it as a basis for an insanity defense.
D) having a mental illness and not raising this fact at trial.
Q2) Successful insanity pleas are associated with all of these psychiatric illnesses
EXCEPT:
A) psychosis.
B) mental retardation.
C) personality disorders.
D) mood disorders.
Q3) Andrea Yates was diagnosed with:
A) schizophrenia.
B) dissociative identity disorder.
C) postpartum mental illness.
D) bipolar disorder.
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29
Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
Q3) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) According to the text, the typical rape is committed by acquaintances, with approximately _____ of rapes being committed by strangers.
A) 5%
B) 15%
C) 25%
D) 40%
Q2) According to the text, jurors appear to be _____ inclined toward women who kill their partners _____.
A) positively; after years of abuse
B) negatively; despite the evidence of abuse
C) negatively; but only if the woman killed her husband while he slept
D) especially positively; because they sympathize with abused women
Q3) Statistics noted in the text indicate that serious violence perpetrated by intimate partners is _____ to happen against women.
A) more likely
B) less likely
C) equally as likely
D) unlikely
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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) Lenore Walker has identified several characteristics that she thought most battered women shared. Which one is NOT among these characteristics?
A) Belief that women should be submissive to their husbands.
B) Tendency to accept responsibility for the abuse.
C) Poor self-image.
D) Poor family upbringing.
Q2) According to the text, nearly _____ of women who are raped will exhibit all of the clinical signs of PTSD.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 90%
Q3) What was the reason that both judges in the Ibn-Tamas case used to prohibit expert testimony on battered woman syndrome (BWS) in front of the jury?
A) Expert testimony is generally unnecessary during jury trials.
B) The expert did not have the required credentials and expertise.
C) BWS is not generally accepted as legitimate in the field of psychology.
D) All of the above were offered as the reasons by both judges.
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
Q2) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
Q3) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Much research has demonstrated that most victims of traumatic events _____ memories of the episode.
A) have vivid B) have few C) completely repress their D) first repress, then recover their
Q2) Another way that children are able to testify in a case is through the use of a closed-circuit television (CCTV). Its use allows the judge and jury to see the child without exposing the alleged victim to the emotional trauma that may present itself while in the presence of the defendant. In the case of Maryland v. Craig, the Court decided that the _____ the child _____ the defendant's right to confront his or her accuser.
A) need to gather the truth from; is as important as B) need to protect; outweighs C) rights of; are as important as D) potential emotional trauma to; is not as salient as
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) All of the following are the reasons for underreporting of child sexual abuse EXCEPT:
A) very young children may not be able to talk and explain what happened.
B) young children may not interpret what's happening as sexual abuse.
C) children's allegations of sexual abuse are not taken seriously.
D) children may fear retaliation of the abuser.
Q2) The case of Paul Ingram is unusual because:
A) it was the longest time anyone had ever repressed a memory.
B) it involved recovered memories of being the perpetrator of sexual abuse.
C) Ingram repressed memories of traumatic abuse from more than three perpetrators.
D) Ingram was the first to sue a therapist for implanting false memories.
Q3) One of the situations when most states allow hearsay testimony at trial is when:
A) a child is the alleged victim in a crime.
B) the case has a disabled victim.
C) a victim lives in a different country.
D) In all of the above cases is hearsay testimony allowed.
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Q1) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
Q2) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
Q3) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
Makers
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Q1) According to the text, custody arrangements reveal that sole physical custody is granted to the mother approximately _____ of the time.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 90%
Q2) Which of the following statements reflects the current state of knowledge about Parental Alienation Syndrome (PAS)?
A) It has not been confirmed scientifically because there is not enough research data to support its existence.
B) It leads to extreme psychological damage to the child's relationships with both parents.
C) It was identified on the basis of the bitter divorce battle between Alec Baldwin and Kim Basinger.
D) It is a promising psychological breakthrough, and a large number of researchers are working on corroborating it.
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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a weakness of the best interest of the child standard (BICS)?
A) Vagueness of the criteria for custody decisions.
B) Possible escalation of conflicts and litigation between parents.
C) Asking courts to predict the future.
D) Presumption that mother is entitled to custody.
Q2) Under the tender years doctrine, unless there were extenuating circumstances, _____ were placed in the custody of the mother.
A) all children
B) only young children
C) young children and female children
D) only female children
Q3) To circumvent the vagueness of the best interest of the child standard, many states have adopted:
A) the joint legal custody standard.
B) the primary caretaker rule.
C) preferred custody arrangements.
D) the approximation rule.
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q2) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
Q3) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) According to the text, two models are utilized when describing the decision-making process of jury members. These two models are known as _____ and _____.
A) mathematical models; statistical models
B) statistical models; bias models
C) story models; mathematical models
D) statistical models; story models
Q2) Evidence that is meant to damage the credibility of a witness or defendant's reputation is also referred to as:
A) complex evidence.
B) reactance theory.
C) ironic processes.
D) impeachment evidence.
Q3) Interestingly, if a defendant is injured in the course of committing a crime:
A) jurors are more likely to hand down a harsh sentence.
B) jurors are more likely to hand down a lenient sentence.
C) judges and jurors are more likely to disagree about a sentence.
D) judges and jurors are more likely to agree about a sentence.
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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Research suggests that judges and juries agree on verdicts in about _____ of cases.
A) 3/4
B) 1/2
C) 1/3
D) 1/4
Q2) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding research on inadmissible evidence?
A) Jurors disregard inadmissible evidence when they consider it irrelevant or unfair.
B) If the judge does not explain clearly why the evidence should be disregarded, jurors are less likely to ignore the evidence.
C) Jurors are reluctant to disregard inadmissible evidence when they consider it useful.
D) Judges' instructions to disregard inadmissible evidence have no effect on jurors' decisions.
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Chapter
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Q1) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
Q2) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
Q3) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) Static markers of future violent behavior are also called:
A) dynamic markers.
B) risk management markers.
C) historical markers.
D) case markers.
Q2) James has a history of violent behavior. Many times, he has demonstrated he has not mastered the ability to maintain control over his own emotions, thoughts, and behaviors. This inability is also known as:
A) locus of control.
B) self-esteem.
C) self-reliance.
D) impulsivity.
Q3) According to the text, research studies find that the rate of sexual reoffense is _____ than that of other crimes.
A) slightly higher
B) significantly higher
C) lower
D) not different
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) Many states and the federal government have passed sexually violent predator civil commitment laws. The basis of these laws is to protect vulnerable citizens, or exercise the _____ power, and to restrain violent individuals, or exercise the state's _____ power.
A) parens patriae; police
B) police; parens patriae
C) double jeopardy; substantive
D) substantive; double jeopardy
Q2) There are some important ways in which involuntary civil commitment is different from criminal confinement, as both currently exist. Which of the following is NOT one of these differences?
A) The burden of proof: clear and convincing evidence versus beyond a reasonable doubt.
B) The length of confinement: indeterminate versus specified.
C) The reason for confinement: punishment versus prevention of harm.
D) The decision-making authority: court versus psychiatrists.
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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
Q2) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
Q3) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) One of the norms of distributive justice is _____, which is the concept that rewards are to be distributed according to each individual's contributions to the group.
A) the principle of need
B) equality
C) unanimity
D) equity
Q2) When men are victimized by harassment, the harassing behavior is more likely to come:
A) from another man, rather than a woman.
B) from a female supervisor.
C) from a female subordinate.
D) from a female equal.
Q3) In instances in which employees feel they are being treated unfairly, they generally try to:
A) work harder.
B) prove themselves more worthy.
C) quit.
D) "get even."
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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) "Sleep with me if you want to be promoted" is an example of which type of sexual harassment, as identified by Catherine MacKinnon?
A) Quid pro quo.
B) Sexual discrimination.
C) Hostile work environment.
D) Sexual categorical remarks.
Q2) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964:
A) outlawed discrimination based on race.
B) outlawed discrimination based on gender.
C) specifically addressed the issue of sexual harassment in the workplace.
D) outlawed discrimination based on race and gender.
Q3) It is difficult to obtain exact estimates of how often harassment in the workplace occurs. All of the following are valid reasons for this EXCEPT:
A) there are no uniform questionnaires asking about workplace harassment.
B) people's memories about their workplace experiences may be inaccurate.
C) people often refuse to disclose information about workplace harassment.
D) rates of harassment vary across work settings.
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Page 47
Chapter 16: Section 1: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
Q2) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
Q3) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Sam has been in prison before and, after his release, he promised to himself that he would never do anything that can land him in prison again. This illustrates one of the goals of imprisonment called:
A) specific deterrence.
B) incapacitation.
C) retribution.
D) general deterrence.
Q2) The U.S. Supreme Court decided in 2005 that sentencing guidelines should be _____ in nature.
A) advisory
B) mandatory
C) required
D) compulsory
Q3) The requirement that criminals receive an extended or life sentence when convicted of a third felony is commonly called the:
A) repeat offender guideline.
B) career criminal sentencing rule.
C) three-time loser rule.
D) three-strikes laws.
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) The Supreme Court abandoned the rigidity of mandatory sentencing in the case of:
A) United States v. Booker.
B) United States v. Ruback.
C) United States v. McCarthy.
D) United States v. Wroblewksi.
Q2) Which of the four goals of imprisonment did the creators of early prisons in the United States aspire to fulfill?
A) Incapacitation.
B) Deterrence.
C) Retribution.
D) Rehabilitation.
Q3) Crime rates have been _____ for the last 15 to 20 years. However, the rate of incarceration in the United States is _____ that of other industrialized democracies.
A) falling; getting close to B) rising; getting close to C) rising; much lower than D) falling; still several times higher than
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Page 50
Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Sample Questions
Q1) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
Q2) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
Q3) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the process of death qualification, if a potential juror _____, he or she is excluded from serving on a capital jury.
A) is unwilling to consider execution as a punishment
B) had previously been a victim of a violent crime
C) had witnessed a violent death before
D) has any close relatives who died of unnatural causes
Q2) Following Gregg v. Georgia and its companion cases, all death sentences are:
A) upheld.
B) considered unconstitutional.
C) deemed appropriate.
D) reviewed by state supreme courts.
Q3) In Gregg v. Georgia, and in companion cases, the Supreme Court set up a series of reforms. These reforms are referred to as:
A) formal edicts.
B) recommendation statutes.
C) guided discretion statutes.
D) state laws.
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most widely used forms of execution in parts of the world where the death penalty is still used are:
A) lethal injection and the gas chamber.
B) lethal injection and the electric chair.
C) the gas chamber and the electric chair.
D) hanging and shooting.
Q2) Generally, Americans _____ the death penalty. However, when asked to compare it with life without parole, _____ prefer punishment other than the death penalty.
A) favor; a clear majority of respondents
B) dislike; very few
C) favor; very few
D) dislike; only affluent respondents
Q3) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that mentally retarded individuals cannot be sentenced to death?
A) Roper v. Simmons (2005)
B) Ring v. Arizona (2002)
C) Lockett v. Ohio (1978)
D) Atkins v. Virginia (2002)
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