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Psychology and Law explores the intersection between psychological principles and the legal system, examining how human behavior, cognition, and mental processes impact legal proceedings. The course covers topics such as eyewitness testimony, jury decision-making, criminal profiling, competency evaluations, false confessions, and the assessment of risk and responsibility. Students analyze landmark cases and empirical research to understand the influence of psychological factors in legal contexts, as well as the ethical and practical challenges faced by professionals working at the interface of these fields. This course provides a foundation for understanding how psychological insights can contribute to more effective and just legal practices.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Behavior A Psychological Approach 10th Edition by Curtis R. Bartol
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Q1) The _____ perspective on crime is closely linked with the humanistic perspective.
A) conformity
B) strain
C) social learning
D) social control
E) nonconformist
Answer: A
Q2) Compared with the UCR, the NIBRS:
A) provides information on international crime.
B) is older.
C) provides more detailed information about a criminal event.
D) includes conviction data as well as arrest data.
E) is more reliable.
Answer: C
Q3) This text is based on the premise that there is an all-encompassing psychological explanation for crime.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Parental _____ refers to parents' awareness of their child's peer associations, free time activities, and physical whereabouts when outside the home.
A) participation
B) mindfulness
C) neurosis
D) monitoring
E) obsession
Answer: D
Q2) Which statement is not true about language impairment and antisocial behavior?
A) It teaches children to think outside the box and problem-solve in socially appropriate ways.
B) It increases frustration levels in children who have difficulty expressing themselves.
C) It can lead to peer rejection and poor academic performance.
D) It can be a strong predictor of adult later criminal behavior.
E) It is evident in the background of a high percentage of children diagnosed with conduct disorders.
Answer: B
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Q1) The research on environmental risk factors during infancy indicates that:
A) lead exposure may be linked to antisocial behavior.
B) trans fats are closely associated with delinquent behavior.
C) junk foods often lead to persistent and violent criminal behavior.
D) an organic diet can greatly reduce likelihood of antisocial behavior.
E) high sugar intake before age two is linked to criminal behavior.
Answer: A
Q2) The amygdala is located in the frontal lobe of the human brain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which one of the following behaviors is an example of adolescent risk taking behavior?
A) Binge drinking
B) Participation in school athletics
C) Obtaining a driver's license
D) Video gaming
E) Walking to school
Answer: A
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Q1) According to Sutherland's theory of differential association:
A) criminal behavior can be learned only by associating with others who are criminal.
B) violent behavior is biologically determined.
C) criminal behavior is learned like any other behavior.
D) criminal behavior is learned primarily through classical conditioning.
E) none of the above.
Q2) The theorist most associated with stimulus-response psychology is:
A) Watson.
B) Bandura.
C) Pavlov.
D) Wundt.
E) Eysenck.
Q3) Milgram's famous studies on obedience to authority indicate that:
A) people pay little attention to authority figures once they become adults.
B) in general, Americans are not obedient or conforming.
C) most people are obedient to authority even if it causes pain to others.
D) children are less obedient to authority than adults.
E) adults are more obedient to authority than children.
Q4) Describe Zimbardo's prison experimen
Page 6
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Q1) The perspective of human nature that argues that humans are intimately tied to their animal ancestry in important and significant ways is known as the ________ perspective.
A) difference-in-degree
B) difference-in-kind
C) medical model
D) parataxis
E) difference in cognition
Q2) Territoriality is a central concept in Konrad Lorenz's theory of aggression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare and contrast the cognitive scripts model and the hostile attribution model.
Q4) In hostile aggression, the perpetrator's primary goal is to:
A) ridicule the victim.
B) kill the victim.
C) make the victim suffer.
D) obtain an item of value.
E) avenge a wrong.
Q5) Discuss the difficulties in adequately defining aggression.
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Q1) Children with callous-unemotional traits lack empathic concern for others.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A program designed to prevent delinquent behavior before any signs of the behavioral pattern emerge is called:
A) secondary prevention.
B) early-onset prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) selective prevention.
E) universal prevention.
Q3) Female delinquency has steadily decreased since 1995.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Prevention and treatment programs that are designed to foster and maintain resilience in youth are also known as:
A) strength-based programs.
B) power-based programs.
C) selective programs.
D) individual-oriented programs.
E) resiliency-focused programs.
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Q1) Robert Hare's research studies have found that criminal psychopaths appear to be deficient in:
A) linguistic processing.
B) common sense.
C) intelligence.
D) logic.
E) boundary apathy.
Q2) The core behavioral dimension that reflects a socially deviant life style, such as impulsiveness, excessive needs for stimulation, and lack of realistic goals is referred to as psychopathic:
A) factor I.
B) factor 2.
C) factor 3.
D) factor 4.
E) asymmetry.
Q3) After summarizing the research on "juvenile psychopathy," explain why this construct is so controversial.
Q4) Briefly describe the core behavioral characteristics of the criminal psychopath.
Q5) Compare and contrast the terms sociopath and psychopath.
Q6) What behavioral differences have been found between male and female psychopaths?
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Q1) The most common result of a PTSD defense has been one of:
A) diminished responsibility.
B) guilty, but mentally ill.
C) not guilty by reason of insanity.
D) incompetent to stand trial.
E) guilty
Q2) In the Brawner Rule, the "caveat paragraph" intends to exclude _____ from using the insanity defense.
A) defendants under the influence of alcohol at the time of the offense
B) psychopaths
C) defendants under the influence of drugs at the time of the offense
D) defendants who refuse to undergo psychiatric evaluation
E) developmentally disabled
Q3) What was the essential ruling in Jackson v. Indiana?
A) Psychoactive medication could not be given to incompetent defendants.
B) Psychoactive medication could not be given to defendants found insane.
C) Incompetent defendants could not be hospitalized indefinitely if no progress was made to restore them.
D) Persons found insane could not be hospitalized indefinitely.
E) The deinstitutionalization of all psychiatric patients.
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Q1) Describe four ways juveniles are able to access guns, despite the Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act.
Q2) Filicide refers to the killing of:
A) an infant.
B) a child older than 24 hours.
C) a child by the mother.
D) a child within the first 24 hours after birth.
E) a sibling.
Q3) The most common form of intrafamilial violence involves:
A) siblings.
B) spouses.
C) parent acting violently toward a child.
D) child acting violently toward a parent.
E) step-child acting violently toward step-parent.
Q4) Males are more likely than female to perpetrate which act of family violence?
A) Munchausen Syndrome by proxy
B) Neonaticide
C) Elderly abuse
D) Filicide
E) Shaken baby syndrome
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Q1) Discuss the differences in motive, victim selection and method of killing between male and female serial killers.
Q2) A term coined by Havelock Ellis that refers to self-arousal and the self-gratification of sexual arousal is:
A) autoeroticism.
B) authochthonous.
C) autoplasty.
D) autophagy.
E) autopagnosia.
Q3) List two flaws in modern profiling discussed in the text.
Q4) Serial murder by children or adolescents is an exceedingly are event.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Criminal profiling is most often used to determine an offender's specific identity. A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain why the case of Jack the Ripper is relevant to criminal profiling.
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Q7) What type of psychological autopsy are insurance companies interested in and why?

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Q1) Which of the following is not included in Marsella's (2004) definition of terrorism?
A) It is a recent phenomenon.
B) It involves the use of force or violence.
C) It is performed by individuals or groups.
D) Its intention is to instill fear.
E) It is used as a means of coercing individuals or groups to change social positions.
Q2) The attacks on September 11, 2001 marked a radical shift in U.S. connection to terrorism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lone wolf terrorists are more likely to be mentally disturbed than other terrorists.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary similarity between terrorists and other violent offenders is their history of antisocial behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Research by Scully and Marolla found that most "admitters":
A) saw themselves as nice guys.
B) blamed an unhappy childhood for their behavior.
C) saw themselves as bad guys.
D) saw nothing wrong in their rape behavior.
E) blamed the woman for the attack.
Q2) There is a direct causal relationship between pornography and sexual aggression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the dominant contemporary theories of the etiology of rape:
A) rapists are mentally disturbed.
B) sexual socialization plays a crucial role in sexual assault.
C) rapists have compulsive physiological urges to rape.
D) women socialize boys to be aggressive and dominant.
E) most rapists have had abusive childhoods.
Q4) Many mental health clinicians do not consider sex offenders to be clinically mentally disordered.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe three of the rape myths discussed in the Chapter.
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Q1) When pedophile offenders claims that poor impulse control, excessive use of alcohol and drugs, and an assortment of stressors in his life lead him to sexually molest children, he is using what theory of pedophilia?
A) Disinhibition theory
B) Blockage theory
C) Emotional congruence theory
D) Sexual arousal theory
E) Diffusion of responsibility theory
Q2) Most exhibitionists rarely expose themselves more than once to the same victim.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hebephilia is a distinct, diagnostic category of pedophilia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the difficulties in obtaining data on pedophilia.
Q5) The MTC:CM3 has four categories and twelve subcategories.
A)True
B)False

Page 15
Q6) Identify some of the notable characteristics of male juvenile sex offenders and their victims.
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Q1) The most common form of violence in burglaries is:
A) aggravated assault.
B) forcible rape.
C) arson.
D) larceny-theft.
E) simple assault.
Q2) In addition to the other negative effects of victimization, victims of fraud and identity theft are most likely to experience:
A) post-traumatic stress.
B) feelings of self-blame.
C) uncontrollable anger.
D) clinical depression.
E) homicidal thoughts.
Q3) According to Shover, all of the following are characteristics of a "good burglar," except:
A) technical skill.
B) derives most of his or her income from burglary.
C) is skilled in the use of violence when necessary.
D) maintains a good reputation for personal integrity among other criminals.
E) has feelings of self-satisfaction and accomplishment.
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Q1) Which type of robbery occurs in urban areas and is less likely to be planned?
A) Commercial robbery
B) Bank robbery
C) Street robbery
D) Amateur robbery
E) Strong-arm robbery
Q2) A robbery in which the main weapon used is one's own body rather than guns, knives, or other weapons is called _____ robbery.
A) street
B) strong-arm
C) assault robbery
D) tertiary
E) kinesthetic
Q3) What are the two favored targets for robbery?
A) Thespians and tourists
B) University professors and bankers
C) Fast-food restaurants and convenience stores
D) Convenience stores and liquor stores
E) Resorts and banks
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Q4) Define Stockholm Syndrome and London Syndrome. Provide examples of each.

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Q1) Which of the following statements is supported in the text?
A) Cocaine is a synthetic compound.
B) Cocaine taken orally (other than smoked) is poorly absorbed by the body.
C) Cocaine tends to be less expensive than the amphetamines.
D) Cocaine often produces paranoia in those who use it.
E) Cocaine use is on the rise.
Q2) Other than alcohol, which drug in your opinion has the strongest association with crime? Support your answer by describing the drug and its effects as well as the available research.
Q3) More individuals are incarcerated in jails and prisons for drug offenses than for any other offense.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cocaine use has been steadily increasing since 2009.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the issues involved in addressing illegal drug use as a health problem. What are the implications for prisons and jails?
Q6) Discuss the relationship between alcohol and crime.
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